{"question": "What follows the 2N in a JEDEC EIA370?", "paragraph": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.", "answer": "a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties", "sentence": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). <hl> For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.", "paragraph_answer": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then <hl> a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties <hl> (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.", "sentence_answer": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then <hl> a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties <hl> (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium)."}
{"question": "What does a letter at the end of a device number mean?", "paragraph": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.", "answer": "a newer variant", "sentence": "A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant , but rarely gain groupings.", "paragraph_sentence": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor. <hl> A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant , but rarely gain groupings. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate <hl> a newer variant <hl>, but rarely gain groupings.", "sentence_answer": "A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate <hl> a newer variant <hl> , but rarely gain groupings."}
{"question": "What does the number 2N1301 indicate?", "paragraph": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.", "answer": "a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor", "sentence": "For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor .", "paragraph_sentence": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). <hl> For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor . <hl> A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.", "paragraph_answer": "The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with \"2N\", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is <hl> a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor <hl>. A letter suffix (such as \"A\") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.", "sentence_answer": "For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n\u2013p\u2013n power transistor, 2N1301 is <hl> a p\u2013n\u2013p germanium switching transistor <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was once an indicator of the devices creator?", "paragraph": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "answer": "a manufacturer's prefix", "sentence": "Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device.", "paragraph_sentence": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. <hl> Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. <hl> Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "paragraph_answer": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, <hl> a manufacturer's prefix <hl> (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "sentence_answer": "Since devices are second-sourced, <hl> a manufacturer's prefix <hl> (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device."}
{"question": "What makes a manufacturer's prefix less reliable?", "paragraph": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "answer": "devices are second-sourced", "sentence": "Since devices are second-sourced , a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device.", "paragraph_sentence": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. <hl> Since devices are second-sourced , a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. <hl> Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "paragraph_answer": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since <hl> devices are second-sourced <hl>, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "sentence_answer": "Since <hl> devices are second-sourced <hl> , a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device."}
{"question": "What is the marking for a 2N2222A in a plastic case?", "paragraph": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "answer": "PN2222A", "sentence": "Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor)", "paragraph_sentence": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. <hl> Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) <hl> 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "paragraph_answer": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a <hl> PN2222A <hl> is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "sentence_answer": "Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a <hl> PN2222A <hl> is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor)"}
{"question": "What is a plastic version of a BC108?", "paragraph": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "answer": "PN108", "sentence": "2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "paragraph_sentence": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) <hl> 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like \"MPF\" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a <hl> PN108 <hl> is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).", "sentence_answer": "2N2222A in a plastic case (but a <hl> PN108 <hl> is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices)."}
{"question": "What is the junction forward voltage?", "paragraph": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "answer": "the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT", "sentence": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. <hl> The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "paragraph_answer": "The junction forward voltage is <hl> the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT <hl> in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "sentence_answer": "The junction forward voltage is <hl> the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT <hl> in order to make the base conduct a specified current."}
{"question": "What is the purpose of a junction forward voltage?", "paragraph": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "answer": "to make the base conduct a specified current", "sentence": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current . <hl> The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "paragraph_answer": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order <hl> to make the base conduct a specified current <hl>. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "sentence_answer": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order <hl> to make the base conduct a specified current <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the ideal junction forward voltage?", "paragraph": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "answer": "lower", "sentence": "The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor.", "paragraph_sentence": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). <hl> The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. <hl> The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "paragraph_answer": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The <hl> lower <hl> the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> lower <hl> the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor."}
{"question": "Why is the ideal junction forward voltage lower?", "paragraph": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "answer": "less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor", "sentence": "The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor .", "paragraph_sentence": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). <hl> The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor . <hl> The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "paragraph_answer": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that <hl> less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor <hl>. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "sentence_answer": "The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that <hl> less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor <hl> ."}
{"question": "When happens to the junction forward voltage when temperature is raised?", "paragraph": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "answer": "decreases", "sentence": "The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature.", "paragraph_sentence": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. <hl> The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. <hl> For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "paragraph_answer": "The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter\u2013base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to \"drive\" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current <hl> decreases <hl> with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is \u22122.1 mV/\u00b0C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.", "sentence_answer": "The junction forward voltage for a given current <hl> decreases <hl> with increase in temperature."}
{"question": "What semiconductor has the highest electron mobility?", "paragraph": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "answer": "GaAs", "sentence": "GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors.", "paragraph_sentence": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. <hl> GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. <hl> It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "paragraph_answer": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. <hl> GaAs <hl> has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> GaAs <hl> has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors."}
{"question": "What is quicker, a bipolar n-p-n transistor or a p-n-p transistor?", "paragraph": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "answer": "a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor", "sentence": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. <hl> GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "paragraph_answer": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, <hl> a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor <hl> tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "sentence_answer": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, <hl> a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor <hl> tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor."}
{"question": "What is the common application of GaAs?", "paragraph": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "answer": "high-frequency applications", "sentence": "It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications .", "paragraph_sentence": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. <hl> It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications . <hl> A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "paragraph_answer": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in <hl> high-frequency applications <hl>. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "sentence_answer": "It is for this reason that GaAs is used in <hl> high-frequency applications <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does HEMT stand for?", "paragraph": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "answer": "high-electron-mobility transistor", "sentence": "A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction.", "paragraph_sentence": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. <hl> A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. <hl> Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "paragraph_answer": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the <hl> high-electron-mobility transistor <hl> (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "sentence_answer": "A relatively recent FET development, the <hl> high-electron-mobility transistor <hl> (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction."}
{"question": "What are common applications of HEMT?", "paragraph": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "answer": "satellite receivers", "sentence": "Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz.", "paragraph_sentence": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. <hl> Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. <hl> HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "paragraph_answer": "Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n\u2013p\u2013n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p\u2013n\u2013p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in <hl> satellite receivers <hl> working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.", "sentence_answer": "Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in <hl> satellite receivers <hl> working at frequencies around 12 GHz."}
{"question": "What is a discrete transistor?", "paragraph": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "answer": "individually packaged transistors", "sentence": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors . <hl> Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "paragraph_answer": "Discrete transistors are <hl> individually packaged transistors <hl>. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "sentence_answer": "Discrete transistors are <hl> individually packaged transistors <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the two most common types of transistor?", "paragraph": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "answer": "through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount", "sentence": "The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount , also known as surface-mount device (SMD).", "paragraph_sentence": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). <hl> The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount , also known as surface-mount device (SMD). <hl> The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "paragraph_answer": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are <hl> through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount <hl>, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "sentence_answer": "The two main categories are <hl> through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount <hl> , also known as surface-mount device (SMD)."}
{"question": "What is the newest surface-mount transistor?", "paragraph": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "answer": "ball grid array (BGA)", "sentence": "The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits).", "paragraph_sentence": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). <hl> The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). <hl> It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "paragraph_answer": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The <hl> ball grid array (BGA) <hl> is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> ball grid array (BGA) <hl> is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits)."}
{"question": "What is another name for the surface-mount transistor?", "paragraph": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "answer": "surface-mount device (SMD)", "sentence": "The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD) .", "paragraph_sentence": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). <hl> The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD) . <hl> The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "paragraph_answer": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as <hl> surface-mount device (SMD) <hl>. The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "sentence_answer": "The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as <hl> surface-mount device (SMD) <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a ball grid array composed of?", "paragraph": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "answer": "solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads", "sentence": "It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads .", "paragraph_sentence": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). <hl> It has solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads . <hl> Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "paragraph_answer": "Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has <hl> solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads <hl>. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.", "sentence_answer": "It has <hl> solder \"balls\" on the underside in place of leads <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did many people in the Pre-Modern era express their faith through?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "via a faith in some form of deity", "sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity , be that in a single God or in many gods.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity , be that in a single God or in many gods. <hl> Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed <hl> via a faith in some form of deity <hl>, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed <hl> via a faith in some form of deity <hl> , be that in a single God or in many gods."}
{"question": "What were Religious officials perceived as in the Pre-Modern era?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "spiritual intermediaries", "sentence": "Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. <hl> Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. <hl> It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the <hl> spiritual intermediaries <hl> to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the <hl> spiritual intermediaries <hl> to the common person."}
{"question": "Through whom did the general masses have access to the divine?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "Religious officials", "sentence": "Religious officials , who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. <hl> Religious officials , who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. <hl> It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. <hl> Religious officials <hl>, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Religious officials <hl> , who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person."}
{"question": "What belief did ancient cultures consider sacred?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "Tradition", "sentence": "Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. <hl> Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. <hl> Tradition <hl> was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Tradition <hl> was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced."}
{"question": "How were the moral standards of ancient cultures enforced?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "strictly", "sentence": "Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. <hl> Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be <hl> strictly <hl> enforced.", "sentence_answer": "Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be <hl> strictly <hl> enforced."}
{"question": "Who were spiritual intermediates?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "Religious officials", "sentence": "Religious officials , who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. <hl> Religious officials , who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. <hl> It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. <hl> Religious officials <hl>, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Religious officials <hl> , who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person."}
{"question": "Peoples sense of worth was expressed through what in the Pre-modern era?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "via a faith in some form of deity", "sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity , be that in a single God or in many gods.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity , be that in a single God or in many gods. <hl> Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed <hl> via a faith in some form of deity <hl>, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed <hl> via a faith in some form of deity <hl> , be that in a single God or in many gods."}
{"question": "Through who did the masses have access to the divine?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "spiritual intermediaries", "sentence": "Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. <hl> Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. <hl> It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the <hl> spiritual intermediaries <hl> to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the <hl> spiritual intermediaries <hl> to the common person."}
{"question": "What did social order mandate be strictly enforced?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "ceremony and morals", "sentence": "Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. <hl> Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of <hl> ceremony and morals <hl> in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of <hl> ceremony and morals <hl> in a culture could be strictly enforced."}
{"question": "What belief was considered sacred by ancient civilizations?", "paragraph": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "answer": "Tradition", "sentence": "Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. <hl> Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. <hl> Tradition <hl> was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Tradition <hl> was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced."}
{"question": "What term was coined in the 16th century to indicate present time?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "modern", "sentence": "The term \" modern \" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The term \" modern \" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"<hl> modern <hl>\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The term \" <hl> modern <hl> \" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now)."}
{"question": "The term \"modern\" was derived from what Latin adverb?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "modo", "sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo , meaning \"just now).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo , meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb <hl> modo <hl>, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb <hl> modo <hl> , meaning \"just now)."}
{"question": "What caused the transition between the middle ages and early modern times?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "The European Renaissance", "sentence": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance <hl> (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The European Renaissance <hl> (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge."}
{"question": "In what country did The European Renaissance start?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "Italy", "sentence": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in <hl> Italy <hl> and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in <hl> Italy <hl> and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge."}
{"question": "What two instruments were invented during The European Renaissance?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "telescope and microscope", "sentence": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope , expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope , expanding the borders of thought and knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the <hl> telescope and microscope <hl>, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the <hl> telescope and microscope <hl> , expanding the borders of thought and knowledge."}
{"question": "The phrase modern originated form what?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "Latin adverb modo", "sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo , meaning \"just now).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo , meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the <hl> Latin adverb modo <hl>, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the <hl> Latin adverb modo <hl> , meaning \"just now)."}
{"question": "What did The European renaissance mark?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times", "sentence": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times , started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times , started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the <hl> transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times <hl>, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the <hl> transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times <hl> , started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge."}
{"question": "What phrase was coined in the 16th century to reference recent times?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "modern", "sentence": "The term \" modern \" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The term \" modern \" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"<hl> modern <hl>\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The term \" <hl> modern <hl> \" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now)."}
{"question": "Through what time period did The European renaissance last?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "1420\u20131630)", "sentence": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630) , which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630) , which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about <hl> 1420\u20131630) <hl>, which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The European Renaissance (about <hl> 1420\u20131630) <hl> , which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge."}
{"question": "In what country did The European renaissance begin?", "paragraph": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "answer": "Italy", "sentence": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). <hl> The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"modern\" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning \"just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in <hl> Italy <hl> and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The European Renaissance (about 1420\u20131630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in <hl> Italy <hl> and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge."}
{"question": "What term was created in the 1930's to separate the middle ages form the 1800's?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "Early Modern", "sentence": "The term \" Early Modern \" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The term \" Early Modern \" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. <hl> to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"<hl> Early Modern <hl>\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence_answer": "The term \" <hl> Early Modern <hl> \" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s."}
{"question": "The 1800\"s are referred to as?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "time of the late Enlightenment", "sentence": "to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form).", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. <hl> to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). <hl> It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and <hl> time of the late Enlightenment <hl> (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence_answer": "to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and <hl> time of the late Enlightenment <hl> (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form)."}
{"question": "What do the terms \"Early Modern\" and 'Modern Ages\" originate from?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "European history", "sentence": "It is important to note that these terms stem from European history .", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). <hl> It is important to note that these terms stem from European history . <hl> In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from <hl> European history <hl>. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence_answer": "It is important to note that these terms stem from <hl> European history <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the terms \"Early Modern\" and \"Modern Ages\" used for i other countries?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence": "In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. <hl> In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often <hl> in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often <hl> in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. <hl>"}
{"question": "What does the term \"Early Modern\" mean?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment", "sentence": "to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form).", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. <hl> to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). <hl> It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. <hl> to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment <hl> (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment <hl> (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form)."}
{"question": "When was the term \"Early Modern\" implemented into the English language?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "1930s", "sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s . <hl> to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the <hl> 1930s <hl>. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the <hl> 1930s <hl> ."}
{"question": "What time period is referred to as The Late Enlightenment?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "1800", "sentence": "to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment ( 1800 ) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form).", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. <hl> to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment ( 1800 ) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). <hl> It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (<hl> 1800 <hl>) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence_answer": "to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment ( <hl> 1800 <hl> ) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form)."}
{"question": "Where do the terms \"Middle Ages\" and \"Modern Ages\" originate from?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "European history", "sentence": "It is important to note that these terms stem from European history .", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). <hl> It is important to note that these terms stem from European history . <hl> In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from <hl> European history <hl>. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence_answer": "It is important to note that these terms stem from <hl> European history <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the terms \"Middle Ages\" and \"Modern Ages\" used for in other countries?", "paragraph": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "answer": "in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "sentence": "In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. <hl> In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"Early Modern\" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often <hl> in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often <hl> in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. <hl>"}
{"question": "In what era were there many socio-technological trends?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "Contemporary era", "sentence": "In the Contemporary era , there were various socio-technological trends.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the Contemporary era , there were various socio-technological trends. <hl> Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "paragraph_answer": "In the <hl> Contemporary era <hl>, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "sentence_answer": "In the <hl> Contemporary era <hl> , there were various socio-technological trends."}
{"question": "The 21st century is refereed to as what?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "the Information age", "sentence": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. <hl> Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. <hl> The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, <hl> the Information age <hl> and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "sentence_answer": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, <hl> the Information age <hl> and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life."}
{"question": "What device was used most during the The Information age?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "computers", "sentence": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. <hl> Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. <hl> The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and <hl> computers <hl> were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "sentence_answer": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and <hl> computers <hl> were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life."}
{"question": "What was a major concern for Western civilization during the 21 century?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "terrorist acts", "sentence": "A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. <hl> A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary <hl> terrorist acts <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary <hl> terrorist acts <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what time were there many socio-technological trends?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "Contemporary era", "sentence": "In the Contemporary era , there were various socio-technological trends.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the Contemporary era , there were various socio-technological trends. <hl> Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "paragraph_answer": "In the <hl> Contemporary era <hl>, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "sentence_answer": "In the <hl> Contemporary era <hl> , there were various socio-technological trends."}
{"question": "What is the 21st century also known as?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "the Information age", "sentence": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. <hl> Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. <hl> The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, <hl> the Information age <hl> and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "sentence_answer": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, <hl> the Information age <hl> and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life."}
{"question": "What device was used most during 21st century?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "computers", "sentence": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. <hl> Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. <hl> The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "paragraph_answer": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and <hl> computers <hl> were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "sentence_answer": "Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and <hl> computers <hl> were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life."}
{"question": "What was considered a threat to Western civilization?", "paragraph": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.", "answer": "terrorist acts", "sentence": "A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. <hl> A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary <hl> terrorist acts <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary <hl> terrorist acts <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who controlled the Asian Sphere during the period between 1600-1868?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates", "sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. <hl> In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various <hl> Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates <hl> controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "In Asia, various <hl> Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates <hl> controlled the Asian sphere."}
{"question": "What is the period between 1600-1868 referred to as?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "the Edo period", "sentence": "In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. <hl> In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. <hl> And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, <hl> the Edo period <hl> from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "In Japan, <hl> the Edo period <hl> from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period."}
{"question": "What is the Edo period also known as?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "the early modern period", "sentence": "In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period .", "paragraph_sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. <hl> In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period . <hl> And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as <hl> the early modern period <hl>. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as <hl> the early modern period <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is time is considered the \"Modern Period\" in Korea?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong", "sentence": "And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. <hl> And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. <hl> In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, <hl> from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong <hl> is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "And in Korea, <hl> from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong <hl> is referred to as the early modern period."}
{"question": "Name one of the tribes Native Americans established in the Americas.", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "Aztec Empire", "sentence": "In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. <hl> In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. <hl> In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the <hl> Aztec Empire <hl> and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the <hl> Aztec Empire <hl> and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation."}
{"question": "What two groups controlled the Asian Sphere?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates", "sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. <hl> In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various <hl> Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates <hl> controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "In Asia, various <hl> Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates <hl> controlled the Asian sphere."}
{"question": "What time is referred to as the Edo period?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "1600 to 1868", "sentence": "In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. <hl> In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. <hl> And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from <hl> 1600 to 1868 <hl> is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "In Japan, the Edo period from <hl> 1600 to 1868 <hl> is also referred to as the early modern period."}
{"question": "What is the 'Early Modern period\" known as in Japan?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong", "sentence": "And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. <hl> And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. <hl> In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from <hl> the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong <hl> is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "And in Korea, from <hl> the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong <hl> is referred to as the early modern period."}
{"question": "Name one of the tribes Native Americans formed in the Americas?", "paragraph": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "answer": "Aztec Empire", "sentence": "In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. <hl> In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. <hl> In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "paragraph_answer": "In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the <hl> Aztec Empire <hl> and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.", "sentence_answer": "In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the <hl> Aztec Empire <hl> and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation."}
{"question": "Name one of the reasons urbanization grew in China.", "paragraph": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "answer": "population grew", "sentence": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. <hl> Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "paragraph_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as the <hl> population grew <hl> and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "sentence_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as the <hl> population grew <hl> and as the division of labor grew more complex."}
{"question": "What did Nanjing and Beijing contribute to?", "paragraph": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "answer": "growth of private industry", "sentence": "Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry .", "paragraph_sentence": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. <hl> Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry . <hl> In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "paragraph_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the <hl> growth of private industry <hl>. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "sentence_answer": "Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the <hl> growth of private industry <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are Nanjing and Beijing?", "paragraph": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "answer": "Large urban centers", "sentence": "Large urban centers , such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry.", "paragraph_sentence": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. <hl> Large urban centers , such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. <hl> In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "paragraph_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. <hl> Large urban centers <hl>, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Large urban centers <hl> , such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry."}
{"question": "Under what rule was China not isolated?", "paragraph": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "answer": "the early Ming dynasty", "sentence": "Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated.", "paragraph_sentence": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. <hl> Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. <hl> Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "paragraph_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under <hl> the early Ming dynasty <hl> was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "sentence_answer": "Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under <hl> the early Ming dynasty <hl> was not isolated."}
{"question": "During The Early MIng Dynasty Chinese merchants explored all of what?", "paragraph": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "answer": "Indian Ocean", "sentence": "Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean , reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "paragraph_sentence": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. <hl> Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean , reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the <hl> Indian Ocean <hl>, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "sentence_answer": "Chinese merchants explored all of the <hl> Indian Ocean <hl> , reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He."}
{"question": "What caused urbanization to increase in China?", "paragraph": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "answer": "the population grew", "sentence": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. <hl> Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "paragraph_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as <hl> the population grew <hl> and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "sentence_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as <hl> the population grew <hl> and as the division of labor grew more complex."}
{"question": "Where did Chinese merchants explore?", "paragraph": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "answer": "all of the Indian Ocean", "sentence": "Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean , reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "paragraph_sentence": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. <hl> Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean , reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored <hl> all of the Indian Ocean <hl>, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.", "sentence_answer": "Chinese merchants explored <hl> all of the Indian Ocean <hl> , reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He."}
{"question": "What was founded after the fall of the Ming?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "The Qing dynasty", "sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. <hl> The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Qing dynasty <hl> (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Qing dynasty <hl> (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus."}
{"question": "The Qing dynasty lasted through what time period?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "1644\u20131911", "sentence": "The Qing dynasty ( 1644\u20131911 ) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Qing dynasty ( 1644\u20131911 ) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. <hl> The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (<hl> 1644\u20131911 <hl>) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "The Qing dynasty ( <hl> 1644\u20131911 <hl> ) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus."}
{"question": "What were the Manchus originally known as?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "the Jurchens", "sentence": "The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. <hl> The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens . <hl> When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as <hl> the Jurchens <hl>. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "The Manchus were formerly known as <hl> the Jurchens <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why did the last Ming Emperor commit suicide?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels", "sentence": "When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. <hl> When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. <hl> The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When <hl> Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels <hl> in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "When <hl> Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels <hl> in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide."}
{"question": "Who became allies with the Manchus to seize control over Beijing?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "former Ming general Wu Sangui", "sentence": "The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. <hl> The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. <hl> The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with <hl> former Ming general Wu Sangui <hl> and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "The Manchus then allied with <hl> former Ming general Wu Sangui <hl> and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty."}
{"question": "The Qing dynasty formed after what event?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "after the fall of the Ming", "sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming , the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming , the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. <hl> The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded <hl> after the fall of the Ming <hl>, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded <hl> after the fall of the Ming <hl> , the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus."}
{"question": "During what time period did the Qing dynasty rule?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "1644\u20131911", "sentence": "The Qing dynasty ( 1644\u20131911 ) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Qing dynasty ( 1644\u20131911 ) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. <hl> The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (<hl> 1644\u20131911 <hl>) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "The Qing dynasty ( <hl> 1644\u20131911 <hl> ) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus."}
{"question": "What were the Manchus originally named?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "Jurchens", "sentence": "The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. <hl> The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens . <hl> When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the <hl> Jurchens <hl>. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "The Manchus were formerly known as the <hl> Jurchens <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was Beijing captured by in 1644?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "Li Zicheng's peasant rebels", "sentence": "When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. <hl> When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. <hl> The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by <hl> Li Zicheng's peasant rebels <hl> in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "When Beijing was captured by <hl> Li Zicheng's peasant rebels <hl> in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide."}
{"question": "Who did the Manchus make an Ally with to seize control of Beijing?", "paragraph": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "answer": "former Ming general Wu Sangui", "sentence": "The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. <hl> The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. <hl> The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Qing dynasty (1644\u20131911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with <hl> former Ming general Wu Sangui <hl> and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, \"A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.\"", "sentence_answer": "The Manchus then allied with <hl> former Ming general Wu Sangui <hl> and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty."}
{"question": "What was society based on during the Tukugawa period?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "strict class hierarchy", "sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. <hl> The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the <hl> strict class hierarchy <hl> originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the <hl> strict class hierarchy <hl> originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi."}
{"question": "Strict class hierarchy was established by who?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "Toyotomi Hideyoshi", "sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi . <hl> The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by <hl> Toyotomi Hideyoshi <hl>. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by <hl> Toyotomi Hideyoshi <hl> ."}
{"question": "What group were considered to be at the top of the Strict Class Hierarchy?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "The daimyo, or lords", "sentence": "The daimyo, or lords , were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below.", "paragraph_sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. <hl> The daimyo, or lords , were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. <hl> In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. <hl> The daimyo, or lords <hl>, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The daimyo, or lords <hl> , were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below."}
{"question": "How were taxes charged during the Tukugawa period?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "set at fixed amounts", "sentence": "Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value.", "paragraph_sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. <hl> Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. <hl> As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were <hl> set at fixed amounts <hl> which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "Taxes on the peasantry were <hl> set at fixed amounts <hl> which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value."}
{"question": "What effect did having taxes charged at a fixed amount have on it's revenue?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time.", "sentence": "As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. <hl> As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. <hl> None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the <hl> tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. <hl> This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "As a result, the <hl> tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. <hl> This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions."}
{"question": "What is the Tokugawa period also known as?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "Edo society", "sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" ( Edo society ), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" ( Edo society ), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. <hl> The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (<hl> Edo society <hl>), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" ( <hl> Edo society <hl> ), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi."}
{"question": "What was society in the Tokugawa period based in?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "strict class hierarchy", "sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. <hl> The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the <hl> strict class hierarchy <hl> originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the <hl> strict class hierarchy <hl> originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi."}
{"question": "What group was considered at the top of the Strict Class Society?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "The daimyo, or lords,", "sentence": "The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below.", "paragraph_sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. <hl> The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. <hl> In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. <hl> The daimyo, or lords, <hl> were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The daimyo, or lords, <hl> were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below."}
{"question": "What effect did the way the taxes were charged have on it's revenue.", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time.", "sentence": "As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. <hl> As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. <hl> None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax <hl> revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. <hl> This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "As a result, the tax <hl> revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. <hl> This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions."}
{"question": "How were taxes charged in the Tokugawa period?", "paragraph": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "answer": "set at fixed amounts", "sentence": "Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value.", "paragraph_sentence": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. <hl> Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. <hl> As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "paragraph_answer": "Society in the Japanese \"Tokugawa period\" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were <hl> set at fixed amounts <hl> which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.", "sentence_answer": "Taxes on the peasantry were <hl> set at fixed amounts <hl> which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value."}
{"question": "Who ruled most of India in the early 18th century?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "Mughal Empire", "sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. <hl> The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the <hl> Mughal Empire <hl> ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the <hl> Mughal Empire <hl> ruled most of India in the early 18th century."}
{"question": "How did the \"Classic Period\" end?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707", "sentence": "The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. <hl> The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. <hl> During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with <hl> the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 <hl> by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "The \"classic period\" ended with <hl> the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 <hl> by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years."}
{"question": "Who was behind the death off Emperor Aurangzeb?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "Hindu Maratha Empire", "sentence": "The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire , although the dynasty continued for another 150 years.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. <hl> The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire , although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. <hl> During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising <hl> Hindu Maratha Empire <hl>, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising <hl> Hindu Maratha Empire <hl> , although the dynasty continued for another 150 years."}
{"question": "Where was the The Maratha Empire centralized?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "south west of present-day India", "sentence": "The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. <hl> The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. <hl> In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the <hl> south west of present-day India <hl> and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "The Maratha Empire was located in the <hl> south west of present-day India <hl> and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire."}
{"question": "What happened when the Maratha Army lost the third battle of Panipat?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence": "In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. <hl> In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and <hl> the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and <hl> the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states. <hl>"}
{"question": "Who ruled most of India in the 18 century?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "Mughal Empire", "sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. <hl> The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the <hl> Mughal Empire <hl> ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the <hl> Mughal Empire <hl> ruled most of India in the early 18th century."}
{"question": "What event ended the \"classic period\"?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb", "sentence": "The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. <hl> The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. <hl> During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with <hl> the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb <hl> in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "The \"classic period\" ended with <hl> the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb <hl> in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years."}
{"question": "What caused the death of Emperor Auranzeb?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "the rising Hindu Maratha Empire,", "sentence": "The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. <hl> The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. <hl> During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by <hl> the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, <hl> although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by <hl> the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, <hl> although the dynasty continued for another 150 years."}
{"question": "Where was the Maratha Empire centralized?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "south west of present-day India", "sentence": "The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. <hl> The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. <hl> In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the <hl> south west of present-day India <hl> and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "The Maratha Empire was located in the <hl> south west of present-day India <hl> and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire."}
{"question": "What caused the Maratha Empire to split in 1761?", "paragraph": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "answer": "the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat", "sentence": "In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. <hl> In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The \"classic period\" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, <hl> the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat <hl> which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.", "sentence_answer": "In 1761, <hl> the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat <hl> which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states."}
{"question": "What did the development of new imperialism cause?", "paragraph": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "answer": "the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers.", "sentence": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The development of New Imperialism saw <hl> the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. <hl> The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "sentence_answer": "The development of New Imperialism saw <hl> the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. <hl> The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance."}
{"question": "When did the commercial colonization of India begin?", "paragraph": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "answer": "1757", "sentence": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757 , after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "paragraph_sentence": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. <hl> The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757 , after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in <hl> 1757 <hl>, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "sentence_answer": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in <hl> 1757 <hl> , after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance."}
{"question": "What happened n the battle of Plassey?", "paragraph": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "answer": "Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company", "sentence": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company , in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "paragraph_sentence": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. <hl> The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company , in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the <hl> Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company <hl>, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "sentence_answer": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the <hl> Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company <hl> , in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance."}
{"question": "When was the British East Company given the right to collect revenue?", "paragraph": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "answer": "1765", "sentence": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765 , when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "paragraph_sentence": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. <hl> The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765 , when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in <hl> 1765 <hl>, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "sentence_answer": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in <hl> 1765 <hl> , when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance."}
{"question": "What is the term used to describe the \"Right to collect revenue\"?", "paragraph": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "answer": "diwani", "sentence": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani , or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "paragraph_sentence": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. <hl> The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani , or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the <hl> diwani <hl>, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.", "sentence_answer": "The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the <hl> diwani <hl> , or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance."}
{"question": "In what year did the Maratha states lose to the British East Company?", "paragraph": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "answer": "1818", "sentence": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. <hl> The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "paragraph_answer": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in <hl> 1818 <hl> with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "sentence_answer": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in <hl> 1818 <hl> with the Third Anglo-Maratha War."}
{"question": "What was the name of the war lost by the Maratha states in 1818?", "paragraph": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "answer": "the Third Anglo-Maratha War", "sentence": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War . <hl> The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "paragraph_answer": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with <hl> the Third Anglo-Maratha War <hl>. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "sentence_answer": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with <hl> the Third Anglo-Maratha War <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long did the British east Indian Company rule last after the war?", "paragraph": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "answer": "1858", "sentence": "The rule lasted until 1858 , when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. <hl> The rule lasted until 1858 , when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. <hl> In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "paragraph_answer": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until <hl> 1858 <hl>, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "sentence_answer": "The rule lasted until <hl> 1858 <hl> , when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj."}
{"question": "What caused the British east Indian Company rule to end?", "paragraph": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "answer": "the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858", "sentence": "The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858 , the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. <hl> The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858 , the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. <hl> In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "paragraph_answer": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after <hl> the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858 <hl>, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "sentence_answer": "The rule lasted until 1858, when, after <hl> the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858 <hl> , the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj."}
{"question": "What did Britain establish in 1824?", "paragraph": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "answer": "Singapore as a key trading post", "sentence": "In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. <hl> In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. <hl> However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "paragraph_answer": "The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established <hl> Singapore as a key trading post <hl> for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.", "sentence_answer": "In 1819 Stamford Raffles established <hl> Singapore as a key trading post <hl> for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch."}
{"question": "What dispatched of The Dutch East India Company and the British East India Company?", "paragraph": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "answer": "their respective governments", "sentence": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments , who took over the direct administration of the colonies.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments , who took over the direct administration of the colonies. <hl> Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "paragraph_answer": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by <hl> their respective governments <hl>, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "sentence_answer": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by <hl> their respective governments <hl> , who took over the direct administration of the colonies."}
{"question": "What country did not have to succumb to forign rule?", "paragraph": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "answer": "Thailand", "sentence": "Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. <hl> Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. <hl> Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "paragraph_answer": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only <hl> Thailand <hl> was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "sentence_answer": "Only <hl> Thailand <hl> was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers."}
{"question": "Who also profited from Southeast Asia resources?", "paragraph": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "answer": "colonial powers", "sentence": "While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. <hl> While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the <hl> colonial powers <hl> profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.", "sentence_answer": "While the <hl> colonial powers <hl> profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent."}
{"question": "In what year did the fall of Constantinople happen?", "paragraph": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "answer": "1453", "sentence": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453 , the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453 , the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. <hl> In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "paragraph_answer": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in <hl> 1453 <hl>, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "sentence_answer": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in <hl> 1453 <hl> , the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517."}
{"question": "When is the modern period dated in England?", "paragraph": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "answer": "Battle of Bosworth in 1485", "sentence": "In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. <hl> In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485 . <hl> Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "paragraph_answer": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the <hl> Battle of Bosworth in 1485 <hl>. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "sentence_answer": "In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the <hl> Battle of Bosworth in 1485 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was defeated by Henry Vll at the battle of Bosworth?", "paragraph": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "answer": "Richard III", "sentence": "In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. <hl> In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. <hl> Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "paragraph_answer": "Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over <hl> Richard III <hl> at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.", "sentence_answer": "In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over <hl> Richard III <hl> at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485."}
{"question": "When did Russia experience territorial growth?", "paragraph": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "answer": "the 17th century", "sentence": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century , which was the age of Cossacks.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century , which was the age of Cossacks. <hl> Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "paragraph_answer": "Russia experienced territorial growth through <hl> the 17th century <hl>, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "sentence_answer": "Russia experienced territorial growth through <hl> the 17th century <hl> , which was the age of Cossacks."}
{"question": "The 17th century is also known as?", "paragraph": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "answer": "age of Cossacks.", "sentence": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. <hl> In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "paragraph_answer": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the <hl> age of Cossacks. <hl> Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "sentence_answer": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the <hl> age of Cossacks. <hl> Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World."}
{"question": "Who joined the Cossacks in 1648?", "paragraph": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "answer": "peasants of Ukraine", "sentence": "In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule.", "paragraph_sentence": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. <hl> In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. <hl> In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "paragraph_answer": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the <hl> peasants of Ukraine <hl> joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "sentence_answer": "In 1648, the <hl> peasants of Ukraine <hl> joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule."}
{"question": "Who are Cossacks?", "paragraph": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "answer": "warriors organized into military communities", "sentence": "Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities , resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World.", "paragraph_sentence": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. <hl> Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities , resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. <hl> In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "paragraph_answer": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were <hl> warriors organized into military communities <hl>, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "sentence_answer": "Cossacks were <hl> warriors organized into military communities <hl> , resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World."}
{"question": "Why dd the Peasants of Ukraine join the Cossacks?", "paragraph": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "answer": "in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania", "sentence": "In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule.", "paragraph_sentence": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. <hl> In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. <hl> In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "paragraph_answer": "Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks <hl> in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania <hl> during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654\u20131667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670\u201371 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.", "sentence_answer": "In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks <hl> in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania <hl> during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule."}
{"question": "What bridged the middle ages to the modern era?", "paragraph": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "answer": "European intellectual transformation", "sentence": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. <hl> The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "Traditionally, the <hl> European intellectual transformation <hl> of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "Traditionally, the <hl> European intellectual transformation <hl> of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era."}
{"question": "What is regarded as the start of modern philosophy?", "paragraph": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "answer": "The Age of Reason", "sentence": "The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism.", "paragraph_sentence": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. <hl> The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. <hl> Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. <hl> The Age of Reason <hl> in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Age of Reason <hl> in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism."}
{"question": "What does the Age of Rationalism succeed?", "paragraph": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "answer": "Renaissance philosophy", "sentence": "Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. <hl> Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. <hl> The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed <hl> Renaissance philosophy <hl> and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed <hl> Renaissance philosophy <hl> and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries."}
{"question": "What is 17th century philosophy also referred to as?", "paragraph": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "answer": "the Age of Rationalism", "sentence": "Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. <hl> Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. <hl> The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called <hl> the Age of Rationalism <hl> and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "Early 17th-century philosophy is often called <hl> the Age of Rationalism <hl> and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries."}
{"question": "What did the beginning of the 18th century mark the beginning of in Europe?", "paragraph": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "answer": "secularization", "sentence": "The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. <hl> The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of <hl> secularization <hl> in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "The 18th century saw the beginning of <hl> secularization <hl> in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution."}
{"question": "From where does the phrase humanist originate?", "paragraph": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "answer": "the 15th century", "sentence": "The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). <hl> The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century . <hl> The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of <hl> the 15th century <hl>. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "sentence_answer": "The term umanista comes from the latter part of <hl> the 15th century <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the basic training of a humanist?", "paragraph": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "answer": "speak well and write", "sentence": "The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. <hl> The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). <hl> The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to <hl> speak well and write <hl> (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "sentence_answer": "The basic training of the humanist was to <hl> speak well and write <hl> (typically, in the form of a letter)."}
{"question": "Where did Enlightenment gain momentum?", "paragraph": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "answer": "Europe and America", "sentence": "Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. <hl> Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America . <hl> Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of <hl> Europe and America <hl>. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "sentence_answer": "Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of <hl> Europe and America <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the age of Enlightenment centered on?", "paragraph": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "answer": "the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority.", "sentence": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. <hl> Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon <hl> the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. <hl> Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "sentence_answer": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon <hl> the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. <hl> Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America."}
{"question": "What were the studia humanitatis competing against?", "paragraph": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "answer": "quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "sentence": "The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. <hl> The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the <hl> quadrivium and scholastic logic. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the <hl> quadrivium and scholastic logic. <hl>"}
{"question": "What did renaissance humanism reference?", "paragraph": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "answer": "Latin and Greek classical texts", "sentence": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts , and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts , and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. <hl> They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "paragraph_answer": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the <hl> Latin and Greek classical texts <hl>, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "sentence_answer": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the <hl> Latin and Greek classical texts <hl> , and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity."}
{"question": "renaissance humanism was antagonistic to what?", "paragraph": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "answer": "scholasticism", "sentence": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. <hl> They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "paragraph_answer": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of <hl> scholasticism <hl> with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "sentence_answer": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of <hl> scholasticism <hl> with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity."}
{"question": "What did renaissance humanism place an emphasis on?", "paragraph": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "answer": "accumulated commentaries", "sentence": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries ; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries ; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. <hl> They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "paragraph_answer": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the <hl> accumulated commentaries <hl>; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.", "sentence_answer": "Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the <hl> accumulated commentaries <hl> ; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity."}
{"question": "What was the basis of the quarrel between the Ancients and the moderns?", "paragraph": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "answer": "literary and artistic", "sentence": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. <hl> The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "paragraph_answer": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a <hl> literary and artistic <hl> quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a <hl> literary and artistic <hl> quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise."}
{"question": "In what time period did the quarrel between the Ancients and the Moderns peak?", "paragraph": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "answer": "early 1690s", "sentence": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. <hl> The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "paragraph_answer": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the <hl> early 1690s <hl> and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the <hl> early 1690s <hl> and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise."}
{"question": "Moderns support the merits of whom?", "paragraph": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "answer": "authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle", "sentence": "The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. <hl> The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the <hl> authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle <hl> quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "sentence_answer": "The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the <hl> authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle <hl> quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge."}
{"question": "What did Louis XIV believe about the modern man?", "paragraph": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "answer": "modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "sentence": "Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.", "paragraph_sentence": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. <hl> Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Acad\u00e9mie fran\u00e7aise. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that <hl> modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that <hl> modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge. <hl>"}
{"question": "What did the Scientific Revolution cause?", "paragraph": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "answer": "a transition to modern science", "sentence": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science . <hl> This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "paragraph_answer": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to <hl> a transition to modern science <hl>. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "sentence_answer": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to <hl> a transition to modern science <hl> ."}
{"question": "What s the Scientific Revolution?", "paragraph": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "answer": "a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected", "sentence": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. <hl> This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "paragraph_answer": "The Scientific Revolution was <hl> a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected <hl> and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "sentence_answer": "The Scientific Revolution was <hl> a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected <hl> and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science."}
{"question": "What did Scientific Revolution form?", "paragraph": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "answer": "several modern scientific fields.", "sentence": "Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. <hl> Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of <hl> several modern scientific fields. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of <hl> several modern scientific fields. <hl>"}
{"question": "What did the Scientific Revolution force people to do?", "paragraph": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "answer": "question all manners of things", "sentence": "Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. <hl> Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to <hl> question all manners of things <hl> and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.", "sentence_answer": "Individuals started to <hl> question all manners of things <hl> and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields."}
{"question": "What happened to the king after the trial?", "paragraph": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "answer": "execution of the king", "sentence": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king , vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king , vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. <hl> Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "paragraph_answer": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and <hl> execution of the king <hl>, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "sentence_answer": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and <hl> execution of the king <hl> , vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power."}
{"question": "Who else was involved in the warfare?", "paragraph": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "answer": "every other major European power.", "sentence": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. <hl> In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "paragraph_answer": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving <hl> every other major European power. <hl> Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "sentence_answer": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving <hl> every other major European power. <hl> Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape."}
{"question": "name an event that can be contributed to the revolution.", "paragraph": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "answer": "the Napoleonic Wars", "sentence": "Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars , two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape.", "paragraph_sentence": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. <hl> Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars , two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. <hl> In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "paragraph_answer": "The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include <hl> the Napoleonic Wars <hl>, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.", "sentence_answer": "Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include <hl> the Napoleonic Wars <hl> , two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape."}
{"question": "What characterized the Napoleonic Era?", "paragraph": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "answer": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte", "sentence": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. <hl> Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte <hl> characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte <hl> characterized the Napoleonic Era."}
{"question": "Where was Napoleon Bonaparte born?", "paragraph": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "answer": "Corsica", "sentence": "Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies.", "paragraph_sentence": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. <hl> Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. <hl> The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "paragraph_answer": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on <hl> Corsica <hl> as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "sentence_answer": "Born on <hl> Corsica <hl> as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies."}
{"question": "Where was Napoleon Bonaparte die?", "paragraph": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "answer": "St. Helena", "sentence": "Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena , this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies.", "paragraph_sentence": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. <hl> Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena , this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. <hl> The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "paragraph_answer": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of <hl> St. Helena <hl>, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "sentence_answer": "Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of <hl> St. Helena <hl> , this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies."}
{"question": "Why were Europe's Empires and Kingdoms dispatched?", "paragraph": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "answer": "surge of Republicanism", "sentence": "The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism .", "paragraph_sentence": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. <hl> The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" <hl> surge of Republicanism <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" <hl> surge of Republicanism <hl> ."}
{"question": "From where did the French empire rule a large portion of Europe?", "paragraph": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "answer": "Paris", "sentence": "Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris , while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies.", "paragraph_sentence": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. <hl> Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris , while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. <hl> The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "paragraph_answer": "The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from <hl> Paris <hl>, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and \"Glorious\" surge of Republicanism.", "sentence_answer": "Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from <hl> Paris <hl> , while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies."}
{"question": "What is Italian Unification?", "paragraph": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "answer": "social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy", "sentence": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. <hl> There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "paragraph_answer": "Italian unification was the political and <hl> social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy <hl> in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "sentence_answer": "Italian unification was the political and <hl> social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy <hl> in the 19th century."}
{"question": "When did the Italian Unification occur?", "paragraph": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "answer": "in the 19th century", "sentence": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century . <hl> There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "paragraph_answer": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy <hl> in the 19th century <hl>. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "sentence_answer": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy <hl> in the 19th century <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what year do most Scholars agree the Italian Unification ended?", "paragraph": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "answer": "1871", "sentence": "There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871 , though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. <hl> There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871 , though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in <hl> 1871 <hl>, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "sentence_answer": "There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in <hl> 1871 <hl> , though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I."}
{"question": "In what year do most Scholars agree the Italian Unification began?", "paragraph": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "answer": "1815", "sentence": "There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815 , and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. <hl> There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815 , and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in <hl> 1815 <hl>, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "sentence_answer": "There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in <hl> 1815 <hl> , and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I."}
{"question": "After what event did the last citta irredente join Italy?", "paragraph": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "answer": "World War I.", "sentence": "There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. <hl> There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after <hl> World War I. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last citt\u00e0 irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after <hl> World War I. <hl>"}
{"question": "What event did the American revolution cause?", "paragraph": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "answer": "British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America.", "sentence": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. <hl> The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "paragraph_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the <hl> British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. <hl> In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "sentence_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the <hl> British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. <hl> In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states."}
{"question": "How did the Thirteen Colonies become The United States Of America?", "paragraph": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "answer": "overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy", "sentence": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. <hl> In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "paragraph_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America <hl> overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy <hl> itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "sentence_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America <hl> overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy <hl> itself to become the sovereign United States of America."}
{"question": "Why did the United States form independent states?", "paragraph": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "answer": "the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation", "sentence": "In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation , and formed self-governing independent states.", "paragraph_sentence": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. <hl> In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation , and formed self-governing independent states. <hl> The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "paragraph_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period <hl> the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation <hl>, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "sentence_answer": "In this period <hl> the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation <hl> , and formed self-governing independent states."}
{"question": "Who did the Second Continental Congress join together against?", "paragraph": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "answer": "the British", "sentence": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. <hl> In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "paragraph_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject <hl> the British <hl> monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "sentence_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject <hl> the British <hl> monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America."}
{"question": "What is the armed conflict form 1775 to 1783 is known as?", "paragraph": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "answer": "American Revolutionary War", "sentence": "The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).", "paragraph_sentence": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. <hl> The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the <hl> American Revolutionary War <hl> (also called American War of Independence).", "sentence_answer": "The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the <hl> American Revolutionary War <hl> (also called American War of Independence)."}
{"question": "Where did the American Revolution start?", "paragraph": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "answer": "Lexington and Concord", "sentence": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord . <hl> On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "paragraph_answer": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at <hl> Lexington and Concord <hl>. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "sentence_answer": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at <hl> Lexington and Concord <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was issued on July 4, 1776?", "paragraph": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "answer": "Declaration of Independence", "sentence": "On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence , which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union.", "paragraph_sentence": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. <hl> On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence , which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. <hl> In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "paragraph_answer": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the <hl> Declaration of Independence <hl>, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "sentence_answer": "On July 4, 1776, they issued the <hl> Declaration of Independence <hl> , which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union."}
{"question": "What did the Declaration Of Independence proclaim?", "paragraph": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "answer": "independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union.", "sentence": "On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence.", "paragraph_sentence": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. <hl> On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. <hl> Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "paragraph_answer": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their <hl> independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. <hl> In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "sentence_answer": "On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their <hl> independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. <hl> In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence."}
{"question": "What position was Ben Franklin appointed in 1776?", "paragraph": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "answer": "member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence.", "sentence": "In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "paragraph_sentence": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. <hl> In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a <hl> member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. <hl> Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "sentence_answer": "In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a <hl> member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. <hl> Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson."}
{"question": "What was Ben Franklin disabled by?", "paragraph": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "answer": "gout", "sentence": "Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "paragraph_sentence": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. <hl> Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by <hl> gout <hl> and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.", "sentence_answer": "Although he was temporarily disabled by <hl> gout <hl> and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson."}
{"question": "What is the decolonization of the Americas?", "paragraph": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "answer": "the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule.", "sentence": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. <hl> The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "paragraph_answer": "The decolonization of the Americas was <hl> the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. <hl> Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "sentence_answer": "The decolonization of the Americas was <hl> the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. <hl> Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries."}
{"question": "When did the decolonization of the Americas begin?", "paragraph": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "answer": "18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries.", "sentence": "Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain.", "paragraph_sentence": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. <hl> Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. <hl> The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "paragraph_answer": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late <hl> 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. <hl> The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "sentence_answer": "Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late <hl> 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. <hl> The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain."}
{"question": "What were the Spanish wars directly linked to?", "paragraph": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "answer": "Napoleonic French invasion of Spain.", "sentence": "The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "paragraph_sentence": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. <hl> The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the <hl> Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. <hl> The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "sentence_answer": "The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the <hl> Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. <hl> The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville."}
{"question": "When did the wars against Spanish rule occur?", "paragraph": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "answer": "1808 until 1829", "sentence": "The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829 , directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain.", "paragraph_sentence": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. <hl> The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829 , directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. <hl> The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "paragraph_answer": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from <hl> 1808 until 1829 <hl>, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "sentence_answer": "The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from <hl> 1808 until 1829 <hl> , directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain."}
{"question": "How did the Spanish conflict begin?", "paragraph": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "answer": "short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "sentence": "The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.", "paragraph_sentence": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. <hl> The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with <hl> short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The conflict started with <hl> short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville. <hl>"}
{"question": "Who did the central Junta fall to?", "paragraph": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "answer": "the French", "sentence": "When the Central Junta fell to the French , numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When the Central Junta fell to the French , numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. <hl> After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "paragraph_answer": "When the Central Junta fell to <hl> the French <hl>, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "sentence_answer": "When the Central Junta fell to <hl> the French <hl> , numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north."}
{"question": "What king died in 1833?", "paragraph": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "answer": "king Ferdinand VII", "sentence": "After the death of the king Ferdinand VII , in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898.", "paragraph_sentence": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. <hl> After the death of the king Ferdinand VII , in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. <hl> Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "paragraph_answer": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the <hl> king Ferdinand VII <hl>, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "sentence_answer": "After the death of the <hl> king Ferdinand VII <hl> , in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898."}
{"question": "After King Ferdinand died, who remained under Spanish rule?", "paragraph": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "answer": "Cuba and Puerto Rico", "sentence": "After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898.", "paragraph_sentence": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. <hl> After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. <hl> Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "paragraph_answer": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only <hl> Cuba and Puerto Rico <hl> remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "sentence_answer": "After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only <hl> Cuba and Puerto Rico <hl> remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898."}
{"question": "When did the Spanish-American war occur?", "paragraph": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "answer": "in 1898", "sentence": "After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898 .", "paragraph_sentence": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. <hl> After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898 . <hl> Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "paragraph_answer": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War <hl> in 1898 <hl>. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "sentence_answer": "After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War <hl> in 1898 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where were the Portuguese capacities centralized?", "paragraph": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "answer": "Salvador", "sentence": "The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "paragraph_sentence": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. <hl> The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish\u2013American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in <hl> Salvador <hl> (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.", "sentence_answer": "The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in <hl> Salvador <hl> (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil."}
{"question": "When did the first industrial revolution merge into the second?", "paragraph": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "answer": "around 1850", "sentence": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850 , when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850 , when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. <hl> The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution <hl> around 1850 <hl>, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "sentence_answer": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution <hl> around 1850 <hl> , when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation."}
{"question": "The 19th century was also known as?", "paragraph": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "answer": "the internal combustion engine and electric power generation.", "sentence": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. <hl> From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with <hl> the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. <hl> The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "sentence_answer": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with <hl> the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. <hl> The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution."}
{"question": "What was the second industrial revolution was labeled?", "paragraph": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "answer": "separate Technical Revolution", "sentence": "The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution .", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. <hl> The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution . <hl> From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the <hl> separate Technical Revolution <hl>. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "sentence_answer": "The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the <hl> separate Technical Revolution <hl> ."}
{"question": "What caused technological and economical progress?", "paragraph": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "answer": "development of steam-powered ships and railways", "sentence": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways , and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways , and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. <hl> The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the <hl> development of steam-powered ships and railways <hl>, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.", "sentence_answer": "The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the <hl> development of steam-powered ships and railways <hl> , and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation."}
{"question": "What is industrialization?", "paragraph": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "answer": "social and economic change", "sentence": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. <hl> It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "paragraph_answer": "Industrialization is the process of <hl> social and economic change <hl> whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "sentence_answer": "Industrialization is the process of <hl> social and economic change <hl> whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one."}
{"question": "industrialization is a subdivision of what general process?", "paragraph": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "answer": "technological innovation", "sentence": "It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation , particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production.", "paragraph_sentence": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. <hl> It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation , particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. <hl> It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "paragraph_answer": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with <hl> technological innovation <hl>, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "sentence_answer": "It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with <hl> technological innovation <hl> , particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production."}
{"question": "During industrialization a human group is turned into what?", "paragraph": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "answer": "from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one.", "sentence": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. <hl> It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "paragraph_answer": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed <hl> from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. <hl> It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.", "sentence_answer": "Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed <hl> from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. <hl> It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production."}
{"question": "When did the modern petroleum industry start?", "paragraph": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "answer": "1846", "sentence": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. <hl> Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "paragraph_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in <hl> 1846 <hl> with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "sentence_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in <hl> 1846 <hl> with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner."}
{"question": "What started the modern petroleum industry ?", "paragraph": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "answer": "the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal", "sentence": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. <hl> Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "paragraph_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with <hl> the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal <hl> by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "sentence_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with <hl> the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal <hl> by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner."}
{"question": "Who discovered the process of refining kerosene from coal?", "paragraph": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "answer": "Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner", "sentence": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner . <hl> Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "paragraph_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by <hl> Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner <hl>. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "sentence_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by <hl> Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who improved Gesner's of refining kerosene from coal?", "paragraph": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "answer": "Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz", "sentence": "Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year.", "paragraph_sentence": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. <hl> Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. <hl> In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "paragraph_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. <hl> Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz <hl> improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz <hl> improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year."}
{"question": "Where was the first Rock Oil mine built?", "paragraph": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "answer": "B\u00f3brka", "sentence": "Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka , near Krosno in Galicia in the following year.", "paragraph_sentence": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. <hl> Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in B\u00f3brka , near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. <hl> In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "paragraph_answer": "The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in <hl> B\u00f3brka <hl>, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.", "sentence_answer": "Ignacy \u0141ukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available \"rock oil\" (\"petr-oleum\") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in <hl> B\u00f3brka <hl> , near Krosno in Galicia in the following year."}
{"question": "In what fields did achievements occur during the revolution?", "paragraph": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "answer": "electrification to developments in materials science.", "sentence": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. <hl> In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "paragraph_answer": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from <hl> electrification to developments in materials science. <hl> The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "sentence_answer": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from <hl> electrification to developments in materials science. <hl> The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life."}
{"question": "What did the advancements during the revolution improve for people?", "paragraph": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "answer": "quality of life", "sentence": "The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life .", "paragraph_sentence": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. <hl> The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life . <hl> In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "paragraph_answer": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the <hl> quality of life <hl>. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "sentence_answer": "The advancements made a great contribution to the <hl> quality of life <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Lewis Paul invent?", "paragraph": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "answer": "roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill.", "sentence": "In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "paragraph_sentence": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. <hl> In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of <hl> roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. <hl> Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "sentence_answer": "In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of <hl> roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. <hl> Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world."}
{"question": "In what period did James Lewis invent the 'Roller Spinning\"?", "paragraph": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "answer": "the first revolution", "sentence": "In the first revolution , Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill.", "paragraph_sentence": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. <hl> In the first revolution , Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. <hl> Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "paragraph_answer": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In <hl> the first revolution <hl>, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> the first revolution <hl> , Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill."}
{"question": "Who improved the steam engine?", "paragraph": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "answer": "Matthew Boulton and James Watt", "sentence": "Matthew Boulton and James Watt 's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "paragraph_sentence": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. <hl> Matthew Boulton and James Watt 's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. <hl> Matthew Boulton and James Watt <hl>'s improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Matthew Boulton and James Watt <hl> 's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world."}
{"question": "Thomas Edison is credited with?", "paragraph": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "answer": "the creation of the first industrial research laboratory", "sentence": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory . <hl> In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "paragraph_answer": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with <hl> the creation of the first industrial research laboratory <hl>. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "sentence_answer": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with <hl> the creation of the first industrial research laboratory <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many volts did Thomas Edison's electrical supply provide?", "paragraph": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "answer": "110 volts", "sentence": "In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. <hl> In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. <hl> Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "paragraph_answer": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided <hl> 110 volts <hl> direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "sentence_answer": "In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided <hl> 110 volts <hl> direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan."}
{"question": "What Did Thomas Edison switch to in 1882?", "paragraph": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "answer": "the world's first large-scale electrical supply network", "sentence": "In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. <hl> In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. <hl> Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "paragraph_answer": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on <hl> the world's first large-scale electrical supply network <hl> that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "sentence_answer": "In 1882, Edison switched on <hl> the world's first large-scale electrical supply network <hl> that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan."}
{"question": "How many customers were supplied by Thomas Edison's electrical supply network?", "paragraph": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "answer": "fifty-nine", "sentence": "In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. <hl> In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. <hl> Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "paragraph_answer": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to <hl> fifty-nine <hl> customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "sentence_answer": "In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to <hl> fifty-nine <hl> customers in lower Manhattan."}
{"question": "Where was Thomas Edison's electrical supply network located?", "paragraph": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "answer": "lower Manhattan", "sentence": "In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. <hl> In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan . <hl> Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "paragraph_answer": "In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in <hl> lower Manhattan <hl>. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.", "sentence_answer": "In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in <hl> lower Manhattan <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the European revolutions occur?", "paragraph": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "answer": "1848", "sentence": "The European Revolutions of 1848 , known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The European Revolutions of 1848 , known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. <hl> Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "paragraph_answer": "The European Revolutions of <hl> 1848 <hl>, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "sentence_answer": "The European Revolutions of <hl> 1848 <hl> , known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent."}
{"question": "How many people were estimated to be killed in the revolutions?", "paragraph": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "answer": "tens of thousands", "sentence": "Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed.", "paragraph_sentence": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. <hl> Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. <hl> While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "paragraph_answer": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with <hl> tens of thousands <hl> of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "sentence_answer": "Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with <hl> tens of thousands <hl> of people tortured and killed."}
{"question": "What are European revolutions known as in other countries?", "paragraph": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "answer": "Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution", "sentence": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution , were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution , were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. <hl> Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "paragraph_answer": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the <hl> Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution <hl>, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "sentence_answer": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the <hl> Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution <hl> , were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent."}
{"question": "In what country did the revolutions begin?", "paragraph": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "answer": "France", "sentence": "Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe.", "paragraph_sentence": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. <hl> Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. <hl> Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "paragraph_answer": "The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in <hl> France <hl> and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.", "sentence_answer": "Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in <hl> France <hl> and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe."}
{"question": "What did the reformers look to to solve social problems?", "paragraph": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "answer": "Scientific Revolution and industrial progress", "sentence": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. <hl> Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "paragraph_answer": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the <hl> Scientific Revolution and industrial progress <hl> to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "sentence_answer": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the <hl> Scientific Revolution and industrial progress <hl> to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution."}
{"question": "What is Newton Natural philosophy?", "paragraph": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "answer": "a coherent system of verifiable predictions", "sentence": "Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. <hl> Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. <hl> Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "paragraph_answer": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding <hl> a coherent system of verifiable predictions <hl> and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "sentence_answer": "Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding <hl> a coherent system of verifiable predictions <hl> and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth."}
{"question": "What did Newton's Nataural philosophy replace?", "paragraph": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "answer": "reliance on revelation and inspired truth.", "sentence": "Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "paragraph_sentence": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. <hl> Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous <hl> reliance on revelation and inspired truth. <hl> Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "sentence_answer": "Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous <hl> reliance on revelation and inspired truth. <hl> Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy."}
{"question": "What did Newton's philosophy do when applied to life,", "paragraph": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "answer": "yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "sentence": "Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.", "paragraph_sentence": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. <hl> Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach <hl> yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Applied to public life, this approach <hl> yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy. <hl>"}
{"question": "Under whom was Russia declared an empire?", "paragraph": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "answer": "Peter I", "sentence": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. <hl> Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "paragraph_answer": "Under <hl> Peter I <hl> (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "sentence_answer": "Under <hl> Peter I <hl> (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power."}
{"question": "In what year was Russia declared an empire?", "paragraph": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "answer": "1721", "sentence": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. <hl> Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "paragraph_answer": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in <hl> 1721 <hl> and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "sentence_answer": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in <hl> 1721 <hl> and became recognized as a world power."}
{"question": "Through what period did Peter I rule?", "paragraph": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "answer": "1682 to 1725", "sentence": "Ruling from 1682 to 1725 , Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade.", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. <hl> Ruling from 1682 to 1725 , Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. <hl> On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "paragraph_answer": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from <hl> 1682 to 1725 <hl>, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "sentence_answer": "Ruling from <hl> 1682 to 1725 <hl> , Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade."}
{"question": "Who did Peter I defeat in the Great Northern War?", "paragraph": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "answer": "Sweden", "sentence": "Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade.", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. <hl> Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. <hl> On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "paragraph_answer": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated <hl> Sweden <hl> in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "sentence_answer": "Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated <hl> Sweden <hl> in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade."}
{"question": "What did Peter I found on the Baltic Sea?", "paragraph": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "answer": "a new capital called Saint Petersburg", "sentence": "On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg , later known as Russia's Window to Europe.", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. <hl> On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg , later known as Russia's Window to Europe. <hl> Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "paragraph_answer": "Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded <hl> a new capital called Saint Petersburg <hl>, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762\u201396, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.", "sentence_answer": "On the Baltic Sea Peter founded <hl> a new capital called Saint Petersburg <hl> , later known as Russia's Window to Europe."}
{"question": "What was the Victorian era of the United Kingdom?", "paragraph": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "answer": "the period of Queen Victoria's reign", "sentence": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. <hl> This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "paragraph_answer": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was <hl> the period of Queen Victoria's reign <hl> from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "sentence_answer": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was <hl> the period of Queen Victoria's reign <hl> from June 1837 to January 1901."}
{"question": "Through what Period did Queen Victoria reign?", "paragraph": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "answer": "1837 to January 1901", "sentence": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901 . <hl> This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "paragraph_answer": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June <hl> 1837 to January 1901 <hl>. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "sentence_answer": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June <hl> 1837 to January 1901 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did the people consider Queen Victoria reign to be?", "paragraph": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "answer": "a long period of prosperity for the British people", "sentence": "This was a long period of prosperity for the British people , as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. <hl> This was a long period of prosperity for the British people , as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. <hl> Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "paragraph_answer": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was <hl> a long period of prosperity for the British people <hl>, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "sentence_answer": "This was <hl> a long period of prosperity for the British people <hl> , as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop."}
{"question": "How far back would some scholars extend Victoria's reign?", "paragraph": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "answer": "five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "sentence": "Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. <hl> Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back <hl> five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period\u2014as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians\u2014back <hl> five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832. <hl>"}
{"question": "What did defeating Napoleon leave Britain without?", "paragraph": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "answer": "any serious international rival", "sentence": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival , other than Russia in central Asia.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival , other than Russia in central Asia. <hl> Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without <hl> any serious international rival <hl>, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "sentence_answer": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without <hl> any serious international rival <hl> , other than Russia in central Asia."}
{"question": "Why did Britain adopt the role of Global Policemen?", "paragraph": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "answer": "Unchallenged at sea", "sentence": "Unchallenged at sea , Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\".", "paragraph_sentence": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. <hl> Unchallenged at sea , Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". <hl> Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. <hl> Unchallenged at sea <hl>, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Unchallenged at sea <hl> , Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\"."}
{"question": "Britain adopting the role as global policeman is known as", "paragraph": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "answer": "Pax Britannica", "sentence": "Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica , and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\".", "paragraph_sentence": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. <hl> Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica , and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". <hl> Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the <hl> Pax Britannica <hl>, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "sentence_answer": "Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the <hl> Pax Britannica <hl> , and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\"."}
{"question": "What was Britain's foreign policy called?", "paragraph": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "answer": "splendid isolation", "sentence": "Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \" splendid isolation \".", "paragraph_sentence": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. <hl> Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \" splendid isolation \". <hl> Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"<hl> splendid isolation <hl>\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "sentence_answer": "Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \" <hl> splendid isolation <hl> \"."}
{"question": "Britain's dominant position in the world trade allowed them to do what?", "paragraph": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "answer": "effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam", "sentence": "Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam , which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\".", "paragraph_sentence": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". <hl> Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam , which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". <hl> Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "In Britain's \"imperial century\", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of \"splendid isolation\". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it <hl> effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam <hl>, which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.", "sentence_answer": "Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it <hl> effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam <hl> , which has been generally characterized as \"informal empire\"."}
{"question": "What was British imperial strength replace by?", "paragraph": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "answer": "steamship and the telegraph", "sentence": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph , new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph , new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. <hl> By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the <hl> steamship and the telegraph <hl>, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "sentence_answer": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the <hl> steamship and the telegraph <hl> , new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire."}
{"question": "What was the British Empire linked by in 1982?", "paragraph": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "answer": "a network of telegraph cables", "sentence": "By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables , the so-called All Red Line.", "paragraph_sentence": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. <hl> By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables , the so-called All Red Line. <hl> Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by <hl> a network of telegraph cables <hl>, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "sentence_answer": "By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by <hl> a network of telegraph cables <hl> , the so-called All Red Line."}
{"question": "When were the steamship and the telegraph invented?", "paragraph": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "answer": "the second half of the 19th century", "sentence": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century , allowing it to control and defend the Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century , allowing it to control and defend the Empire. <hl> By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in <hl> the second half of the 19th century <hl>, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "sentence_answer": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in <hl> the second half of the 19th century <hl> , allowing it to control and defend the Empire."}
{"question": "How many people were added to the British Empire by 1922?", "paragraph": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "answer": "458 million", "sentence": "Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. <hl> Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. <hl> The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly <hl> 458 million <hl> people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "sentence_answer": "Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly <hl> 458 million <hl> people were added to the British Empire."}
{"question": "When did the British establish colonies in Australia?", "paragraph": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "answer": "1788", "sentence": "The British established colonies in Australia in 1788 , New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. <hl> The British established colonies in Australia in 1788 , New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in <hl> 1788 <hl>, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.", "sentence_answer": "The British established colonies in Australia in <hl> 1788 <hl> , New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire."}
{"question": "The Bourbon Restoration followed what event?", "paragraph": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "answer": "Napoleon I of France", "sentence": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. <hl> The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "paragraph_answer": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of <hl> Napoleon I of France <hl> in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "sentence_answer": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of <hl> Napoleon I of France <hl> in 1814."}
{"question": "What is the Bourbon Restoration?", "paragraph": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "answer": "Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne.", "sentence": "The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. <hl> The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. <hl> The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "paragraph_answer": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The <hl> Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. <hl> The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. <hl> The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics."}
{"question": "What is the July Monarchy?", "paragraph": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "answer": "a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe", "sentence": "The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. <hl> The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. <hl> The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "paragraph_answer": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was <hl> a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe <hl> starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "sentence_answer": "The July Monarchy was <hl> a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe <hl> starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848."}
{"question": "What is the second empires?", "paragraph": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "answer": "the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III", "sentence": "The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. <hl> The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was <hl> the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III <hl> from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "sentence_answer": "The Second Empire was <hl> the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III <hl> from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France."}
{"question": "Through what period did the second empire last?", "paragraph": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "answer": "1852 to 1870", "sentence": "The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870 , between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. <hl> The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870 , between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from <hl> 1852 to 1870 <hl>, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.", "sentence_answer": "The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from <hl> 1852 to 1870 <hl> , between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France."}
{"question": "What countries were involved in the Franco-Russian war?", "paragraph": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "answer": "France and Prussia", "sentence": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia , while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia , while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. <hl> The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "paragraph_answer": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between <hl> France and Prussia <hl>, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "sentence_answer": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between <hl> France and Prussia <hl> , while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria."}
{"question": "What did the Prussian and German victory mark?", "paragraph": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "answer": "final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia.", "sentence": "The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. <hl> The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. <hl> As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "paragraph_answer": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the <hl> final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. <hl> It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "sentence_answer": "The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the <hl> final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. <hl> It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic."}
{"question": "Name one of the groups who backed Prussia in the Franco-Russian war?", "paragraph": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "answer": "North German Confederation", "sentence": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation , of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation , of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. <hl> The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "paragraph_answer": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the <hl> North German Confederation <hl>, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "sentence_answer": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the <hl> North German Confederation <hl> , of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria."}
{"question": "Prussia claimed almost all of what territory?", "paragraph": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "answer": "Alsace-Lorraine", "sentence": "As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. <hl> As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of <hl> Alsace-Lorraine <hl> was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "sentence_answer": "As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of <hl> Alsace-Lorraine <hl> was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I."}
{"question": "Prussia retained most of Alsace-Lorraine up until what event?", "paragraph": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "answer": "World War I.", "sentence": "As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. <hl> As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, W\u00fcrttemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of <hl> World War I. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of <hl> World War I. <hl>"}
{"question": "Why did European powers lay claim to areas Africa?", "paragraph": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "answer": "exhibit a sphere of influence over the area", "sentence": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area . <hl> These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could <hl> exhibit a sphere of influence over the area <hl>. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "sentence_answer": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could <hl> exhibit a sphere of influence over the area <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did the European powers need to make their claim over these areas legitimate?", "paragraph": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "answer": "These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate.", "sentence": "These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony.", "paragraph_sentence": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. <hl> These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. <hl> The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. <hl> These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. <hl> The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "sentence_answer": "<hl> These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. <hl> The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony."}
{"question": "What do European powers that exibit their control ovet an area accept?", "paragraph": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "answer": "mandate to rule that region as a national colony.", "sentence": "The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition.", "paragraph_sentence": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. <hl> The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. <hl> With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the <hl> mandate to rule that region as a national colony. <hl> The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "sentence_answer": "The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the <hl> mandate to rule that region as a national colony. <hl> The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition."}
{"question": "What was the colonial experience for Africans described as?", "paragraph": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "answer": "hell on earth.", "sentence": "There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \" hell on earth. \"", "paragraph_sentence": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. <hl> There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \" hell on earth. \" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"<hl> hell on earth. <hl>\"", "sentence_answer": "There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \" <hl> hell on earth. <hl> \""}
{"question": "How did the claims on the areas in Africa benefit the European powers?", "paragraph": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "answer": "colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition.", "sentence": "The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice.", "paragraph_sentence": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. <hl> The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. <hl> There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their <hl> colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. <hl> With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as \"hell on earth.\"", "sentence_answer": "The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their <hl> colony\u2019s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. <hl> With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice."}
{"question": "What percent of the worlds population did Africa posses at the Berlin Conference?", "paragraph": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "answer": "one-fifth", "sentence": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. <hl> However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "paragraph_answer": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained <hl> one-fifth <hl> of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "sentence_answer": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained <hl> one-fifth <hl> of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area."}
{"question": "What was Europe's perspective o Africa containing one-fifth of the worlds population?", "paragraph": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "answer": "they were dividing an unknown continent.", "sentence": "However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. <hl> However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. <hl> Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "paragraph_answer": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, <hl> they were dividing an unknown continent. <hl> European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "sentence_answer": "However, from Europe's perspective, <hl> they were dividing an unknown continent. <hl> European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession."}
{"question": "When did European countries establish colonies in Africa?", "paragraph": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "answer": "the mid-nineteenth century,", "sentence": "European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. <hl> European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. <hl> Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "paragraph_answer": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by <hl> the mid-nineteenth century, <hl> which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "sentence_answer": "European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by <hl> the mid-nineteenth century, <hl> which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession."}
{"question": "Europe did not feel the need to posses territory in Africa until?", "paragraph": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "answer": "1880s", "sentence": "Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. <hl> Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the <hl> 1880s <hl> most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "sentence_answer": "Until the <hl> 1880s <hl> most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior."}
{"question": "How did maps show Africa Before 1880?", "paragraph": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "answer": "generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "sentence": "Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. <hl> Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world\u2019s population living in one-quarter of the world\u2019s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period <hl> generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period <hl> generally showing blank spaces for the continent\u2019s interior. <hl>"}
{"question": "Through what period did European powers expand control in Africa?", "paragraph": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "answer": "1880s to 1914", "sentence": "From the 1880s to 1914 , the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> From the 1880s to 1914 , the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. <hl> Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "paragraph_answer": "From the <hl> 1880s to 1914 <hl>, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "sentence_answer": "From the <hl> 1880s to 1914 <hl> , the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources."}
{"question": "What was Europe competing for?", "paragraph": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "answer": "Africa\u2019s land and resources.", "sentence": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. <hl> The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "paragraph_answer": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for <hl> Africa\u2019s land and resources. <hl> Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "sentence_answer": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for <hl> Africa\u2019s land and resources. <hl> Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa."}
{"question": "What did Great Britain control?", "paragraph": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "answer": "various colonial holdings in East Africa", "sentence": "Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa.", "paragraph_sentence": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. <hl> Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. <hl> The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "paragraph_answer": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled <hl> various colonial holdings in East Africa <hl> that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "sentence_answer": "Great Britain controlled <hl> various colonial holdings in East Africa <hl> that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa."}
{"question": "Where in Africa did the French have control?", "paragraph": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "answer": "West Africa", "sentence": "The French gained major ground in West Africa , and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa.", "paragraph_sentence": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. <hl> The French gained major ground in West Africa , and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. <hl> Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "paragraph_answer": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in <hl> West Africa <hl>, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "sentence_answer": "The French gained major ground in <hl> West Africa <hl> , and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa."}
{"question": "Where in Africa did Portuguese have control?", "paragraph": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "answer": "southern Africa", "sentence": "The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa .", "paragraph_sentence": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. <hl> The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa . <hl> Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "paragraph_answer": "From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa\u2019s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in <hl> southern Africa <hl>. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865\u20131909), there was the large \u201cpiece of that great African cake\u201d known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819\u2013859).", "sentence_answer": "The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in <hl> southern Africa <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the Meija era marked by?", "paragraph": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "answer": "the reign of the Meiji Emperor", "sentence": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor . <hl> During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by <hl> the reign of the Meiji Emperor <hl>. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "sentence_answer": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by <hl> the reign of the Meiji Emperor <hl> ."}
{"question": "How did Japan rise to be a world power during the Meja era?", "paragraph": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "answer": "modernization", "sentence": "During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status.", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. <hl> During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. <hl> This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its <hl> modernization <hl> and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "sentence_answer": "During this time, Japan started its <hl> modernization <hl> and rose to world power status."}
{"question": "When did the Meija restoration begin?", "paragraph": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "answer": "1860s", "sentence": "In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s , marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines.", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". <hl> In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s , marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. <hl> Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the <hl> 1860s <hl>, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "sentence_answer": "In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the <hl> 1860s <hl> , marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines."}
{"question": "What does \"Meija era\"", "paragraph": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "answer": "Enlightened Rule", "sentence": "This era name means \" Enlightened Rule \".", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. <hl> This era name means \" Enlightened Rule \". <hl> In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"<hl> Enlightened Rule <hl>\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "sentence_answer": "This era name means \" <hl> Enlightened Rule <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What did Irokawa Daikichi act out against?", "paragraph": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "answer": "bureaucratic superstate", "sentence": "In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate , and began searching for the historic role of the common people .", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. <hl> In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate , and began searching for the historic role of the common people . <hl> They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means \"Enlightened Rule\". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the <hl> bureaucratic superstate <hl>, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.", "sentence_answer": "In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the <hl> bureaucratic superstate <hl> , and began searching for the historic role of the common people ."}
{"question": "Laws mandated that every able bodies Japanese citizen do what?", "paragraph": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "answer": "serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves.", "sentence": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. <hl> The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "paragraph_answer": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to <hl> serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. <hl> This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "sentence_answer": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to <hl> serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. <hl> This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike."}
{"question": "Who initially rejected the Japanese laws mandating military service?", "paragraph": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "answer": "peasant and warrior alike.", "sentence": "This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary.", "paragraph_sentence": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. <hl> This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. <hl> The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "paragraph_answer": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the <hl> peasant and warrior alike. <hl> The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "sentence_answer": "This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the <hl> peasant and warrior alike. <hl> The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary."}
{"question": "Who did the Japanese form their military forces after?", "paragraph": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "answer": "French military", "sentence": "The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military .", "paragraph_sentence": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. <hl> The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military . <hl> The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "paragraph_answer": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the <hl> French military <hl>. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "sentence_answer": "The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the <hl> French military <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did the peasant class name the mandatory military service law?", "paragraph": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "answer": "ketsu-eki", "sentence": "The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary.", "paragraph_sentence": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. <hl> The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. <hl> The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "paragraph_answer": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, <hl> ketsu-eki <hl> (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "sentence_answer": "The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, <hl> ketsu-eki <hl> (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary."}
{"question": "Where was the military academy located?", "paragraph": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "answer": "Kyoto", "sentence": "Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto , and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "paragraph_sentence": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. <hl> Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto , and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in <hl> Kyoto <hl>, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.", "sentence_answer": "Many were employed at the military academy in <hl> Kyoto <hl> , and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks."}
{"question": "What is the antebellum age?", "paragraph": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "answer": "a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery", "sentence": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. <hl> The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The Antebellum Age was <hl> a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery <hl> in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The Antebellum Age was <hl> a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery <hl> in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861."}
{"question": "When did the civil was begin?", "paragraph": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "answer": "1861", "sentence": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861 . <hl> The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in <hl> 1861 <hl>. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in <hl> 1861 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the Antebellum age considered to have begun?", "paragraph": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "answer": "with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854", "sentence": "The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854 ,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. <hl> The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854 ,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. <hl> This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun <hl> with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854 <hl>,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun <hl> with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854 <hl> ,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812."}
{"question": "What did The Antebellum age mark?", "paragraph": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]", "answer": "the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.", "sentence": "This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution. [citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. <hl> This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution. [citation needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas\u2013Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked <hl> the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution. <hl>[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "This period is also significant because it marked <hl> the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution. <hl> [citation needed]"}
{"question": "What did northern leaders agree on about slavery?", "paragraph": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "answer": "all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated.", "sentence": "Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal.", "paragraph_sentence": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. <hl> Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. <hl> The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and <hl> all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. <hl> Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and <hl> all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. <hl> Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal."}
{"question": "What did Lincoln do well in the war?", "paragraph": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "answer": "mobilizing support for the war goals", "sentence": "Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals , raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal.", "paragraph_sentence": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. <hl> Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals , raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. <hl> The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in <hl> mobilizing support for the war goals <hl>, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "Lincoln proved effective in <hl> mobilizing support for the war goals <hl> , raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal."}
{"question": "Why couldn't the confederacy defend their ports?", "paragraph": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "answer": "The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend", "sentence": "The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend , and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear.", "paragraph_sentence": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. <hl> The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend , and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. <hl> The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. <hl> The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend <hl>, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend <hl> , and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear."}
{"question": "General Robert E. Lee controlled what sect of the confederacy?", "paragraph": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "answer": "the East", "sentence": "Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks.", "paragraph_sentence": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. <hl> Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. <hl> It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in <hl> the East <hl> under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "Its soldiers, especially those in <hl> the East <hl> under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks."}
{"question": "The south could barely do what for their souldiers?", "paragraph": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "answer": "feed and clothe", "sentence": "The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers.", "paragraph_sentence": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. <hl> The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. <hl> Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely <hl> feed and clothe <hl> its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864\u201365, The Reconstruction Era (1863\u201377) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely <hl> feed and clothe <hl> its soldiers."}
{"question": "What happened in the Glided Age/", "paragraph": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "answer": "extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class", "sentence": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. <hl> The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and <hl> extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class <hl> during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "sentence_answer": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and <hl> extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class <hl> during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century."}
{"question": "In what time period did the Glided Age occur?", "paragraph": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "answer": "late 19th century", "sentence": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century . <hl> The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the <hl> late 19th century <hl>. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "sentence_answer": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the <hl> late 19th century <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where did the wealth of the Glided Age come form?", "paragraph": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "answer": "industrial and population expansion.", "sentence": "The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\".", "paragraph_sentence": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. <hl> The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". <hl> An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from <hl> industrial and population expansion. <hl> The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "sentence_answer": "The wealth polarization derived primarily from <hl> industrial and population expansion. <hl> The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\"."}
{"question": "What did Financiers refer to rich industrialist as?", "paragraph": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "answer": "robber barons", "sentence": "The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \" robber barons \".", "paragraph_sentence": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. <hl> The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \" robber barons \". <hl> An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"<hl> robber barons <hl>\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "sentence_answer": "The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \" <hl> robber barons <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What type of practices did John D. Rockefeller exhibit in the oil industry?", "paragraph": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "answer": "effective tactics and aggressive practices", "sentence": "Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices , later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. <hl> Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices , later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the \"robber barons\". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly <hl> effective tactics and aggressive practices <hl>, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.", "sentence_answer": "Using highly <hl> effective tactics and aggressive practices <hl> , later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition."}
{"question": "What creations brought in the modern industrial economy?", "paragraph": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "answer": "transportation and communication infrastructure", "sentence": "With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure , the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations.", "paragraph_sentence": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. <hl> With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure , the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. <hl> In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "paragraph_answer": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a <hl> transportation and communication infrastructure <hl>, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "sentence_answer": "With the creation of a <hl> transportation and communication infrastructure <hl> , the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations."}
{"question": "What became the dominant form of business organization?", "paragraph": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "answer": "the corporation", "sentence": "With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations.", "paragraph_sentence": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. <hl> With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. <hl> In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "paragraph_answer": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, <hl> the corporation <hl> became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "sentence_answer": "With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, <hl> the corporation <hl> became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations."}
{"question": "What transformed business organization in 1890?", "paragraph": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "answer": "managerial revolution", "sentence": "With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations.", "paragraph_sentence": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. <hl> With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. <hl> In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "paragraph_answer": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a <hl> managerial revolution <hl> transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "sentence_answer": "With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a <hl> managerial revolution <hl> transformed business operations."}
{"question": "The Sherman Antitrust Act is the source of what?", "paragraph": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "answer": "all American anti-monopoly laws.", "sentence": "In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective.", "paragraph_sentence": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. <hl> In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. <hl> By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "paragraph_answer": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of <hl> all American anti-monopoly laws. <hl> The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "sentence_answer": "In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of <hl> all American anti-monopoly laws. <hl> The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective."}
{"question": "What was he Standard Oil Group determined to be by the courts?", "paragraph": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "answer": "an \"unreasonable\" monopoly", "sentence": "But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911.", "paragraph_sentence": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. <hl> But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an \"unreasonable\" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. <hl> It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "paragraph_answer": "The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act\u2014the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase \"restraint of trade\" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be <hl> an \"unreasonable\" monopoly <hl> under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.", "sentence_answer": "But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be <hl> an \"unreasonable\" monopoly <hl> under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911."}
{"question": "When did modern physics arise?", "paragraph": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "answer": "early 20th century", "sentence": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. <hl> The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the <hl> early 20th century <hl> with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "sentence_answer": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the <hl> early 20th century <hl> with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent."}
{"question": "What is the old Quantum theory?", "paragraph": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "answer": "a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent.", "sentence": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. <hl> Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was <hl> a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. <hl> The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "sentence_answer": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was <hl> a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. <hl> The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics."}
{"question": "The \"fifth element\" was disproved by what?", "paragraph": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "answer": "Michelson-Morley experiment", "sentence": "Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment \u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether.", "paragraph_sentence": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. <hl> Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment \u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. <hl> In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the <hl> Michelson-Morley experiment <hl>\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "sentence_answer": "Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the <hl> Michelson-Morley experiment <hl> \u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether."}
{"question": "What is the Michelson-Morley experiment?", "paragraph": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "answer": "an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether", "sentence": "Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014 an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether .", "paragraph_sentence": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. <hl> Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014 an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether . <hl> In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014<hl> an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether <hl>. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "sentence_answer": "Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014 <hl> an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does Darwinism promote?", "paragraph": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "answer": "the theory of natural selection.", "sentence": "In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights.", "paragraph_sentence": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. <hl> In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. <hl> In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a \"fifth element\" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment\u2014an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in <hl> the theory of natural selection. <hl> The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.", "sentence_answer": "In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in <hl> the theory of natural selection. <hl> The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights."}
{"question": "Why did Chinese philosophy begin to mix with western concepts?", "paragraph": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "answer": "as steps toward modernization", "sentence": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization . <hl> By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, <hl> as steps toward modernization <hl>. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, <hl> as steps toward modernization <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the Xinhai Revolution begin?", "paragraph": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "answer": "1911", "sentence": "By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911 , there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China.", "paragraph_sentence": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. <hl> By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911 , there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. <hl> There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in <hl> 1911 <hl>, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in <hl> 1911 <hl> , there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China."}
{"question": "What is the May Forth Movement?", "paragraph": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "answer": "to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China", "sentence": "By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China .", "paragraph_sentence": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. <hl> By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China . <hl> There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, <hl> to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China <hl>. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, <hl> to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Marxist-Leninst add to Chinese philosophy?", "paragraph": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "answer": "Marxist-Leninist thought", "sentence": "Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought .", "paragraph_sentence": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. <hl> Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought . <hl> When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added <hl> Marxist-Leninist thought <hl>. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "sentence_answer": "Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added <hl> Marxist-Leninist thought <hl> ."}
{"question": "During what event was Legalism abolished?", "paragraph": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.", "answer": "the Cultural Revolution", "sentence": "When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution .", "paragraph_sentence": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. <hl> When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (S\u016bn y\u00ec xi\u0101n, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (M\u00e1o z\u00e9 d\u014dng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during <hl> the Cultural Revolution <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during <hl> the Cultural Revolution <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the enlightenment of spiritual philosophy challenged?", "paragraph": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "answer": "in various quarters around the 1900s.", "sentence": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. <hl> For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "paragraph_answer": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged <hl> in various quarters around the 1900s. <hl> Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "sentence_answer": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged <hl> in various quarters around the 1900s. <hl> Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts."}
{"question": "What were Humanist ethical philosophy's developed from?", "paragraph": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "answer": "earlier secular traditions", "sentence": "Developed from earlier secular traditions , modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts.", "paragraph_sentence": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. <hl> Developed from earlier secular traditions , modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. <hl> For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "paragraph_answer": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from <hl> earlier secular traditions <hl>, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "sentence_answer": "Developed from <hl> earlier secular traditions <hl> , modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts."}
{"question": "Why did Kari Marx criticize Humanist Philosophy's?", "paragraph": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "answer": "it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose", "sentence": "These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose .", "paragraph_sentence": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. <hl> These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose . <hl> For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "paragraph_answer": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting <hl> it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose <hl>. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "sentence_answer": "These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting <hl> it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Friedrinch Netzsche consider Humanism to be?", "paragraph": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "answer": "a secular version of theism", "sentence": "For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism .", "paragraph_sentence": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. <hl> For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism . <hl> In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "paragraph_answer": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than <hl> a secular version of theism <hl>. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "sentence_answer": "For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than <hl> a secular version of theism <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why does Friedrinch Netzsche believe human rights exist?", "paragraph": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "answer": "as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong.", "sentence": "In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it.", "paragraph_sentence": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. <hl> In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. <hl> In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "paragraph_answer": "Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist <hl> as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. <hl> On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.", "sentence_answer": "In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist <hl> as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. <hl> On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it."}
{"question": "What is Albert Einstein known for?", "paragraph": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "answer": "his theories of special relativity and general relativity", "sentence": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity . <hl> He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "paragraph_answer": "Albert Einstein is known for <hl> his theories of special relativity and general relativity <hl>. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "sentence_answer": "Albert Einstein is known for <hl> his theories of special relativity and general relativity <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Einstein add to the Brownman Motion?", "paragraph": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "answer": "mathematical treatment", "sentence": "He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. <hl> He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. <hl> Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "paragraph_answer": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his <hl> mathematical treatment <hl> of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "sentence_answer": "He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his <hl> mathematical treatment <hl> of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation."}
{"question": "What did Einstein discover a resolution to?", "paragraph": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "answer": "the paradox of specific heats", "sentence": "He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats , and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. <hl> He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats , and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. <hl> Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "paragraph_answer": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of <hl> the paradox of specific heats <hl>, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "sentence_answer": "He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of <hl> the paradox of specific heats <hl> , and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation."}
{"question": "What theory did Einstein have reservations about?", "paragraph": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "answer": "quantum field theory", "sentence": "Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory , primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "paragraph_sentence": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. <hl> Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory , primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, <hl> quantum field theory <hl>, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.", "sentence_answer": "Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, <hl> quantum field theory <hl> , primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon."}
{"question": "What is the federation of Australia?", "paragraph": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "answer": "six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation.", "sentence": "the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which <hl> the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. <hl> When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the <hl> six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. <hl> They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "sentence_answer": "the <hl> six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. <hl> They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation."}
{"question": "What was the federal Government responsible for?", "paragraph": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "answer": "matters concerning the whole nation.", "sentence": "They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. <hl> They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for <hl> matters concerning the whole nation. <hl> When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "sentence_answer": "They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for <hl> matters concerning the whole nation. <hl> When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia."}
{"question": "When did the colonies collectively become a part of the Commonwealth of Australia?", "paragraph": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "answer": "When the Constitution of Australia came into force", "sentence": "When the Constitution of Australia came into force , the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. <hl> When the Constitution of Australia came into force , the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. <hl> When the Constitution of Australia came into force <hl>, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> When the Constitution of Australia came into force <hl> , the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia."}
{"question": "What were the last days of the Qing dynasty marked by?", "paragraph": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "answer": "civil unrest and foreign invasions.", "sentence": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. <hl> However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by <hl> civil unrest and foreign invasions. <hl> Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "sentence_answer": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by <hl> civil unrest and foreign invasions. <hl> Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910."}
{"question": "What did the Qing dynasty attempt to do n the face of civil unrest?", "paragraph": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "answer": "attempt to reform the government in various", "sentence": "Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910.", "paragraph_sentence": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. <hl> Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. <hl> However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "paragraph_answer": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did <hl> attempt to reform the government in various <hl> ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "sentence_answer": "Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did <hl> attempt to reform the government in various <hl> ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910."}
{"question": "What happened to The reformers in the Qing dynasty?", "paragraph": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "answer": "either imprisoned or executed outright.", "sentence": "However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. <hl> However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were <hl> either imprisoned or executed outright. <hl> The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "sentence_answer": "However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were <hl> either imprisoned or executed outright. <hl> The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution."}
{"question": "What caused the revolution against the Qing dynasty?", "paragraph": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "answer": "failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization", "sentence": "The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. <hl> The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The <hl> failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization <hl> caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization <hl> caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution."}
{"question": "When was the Republic of China established?", "paragraph": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "answer": "1912", "sentence": "In 1912 , the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1912 , the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. <hl> But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1912 <hl>, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1912 <hl> , the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President."}
{"question": "What did China agree to avoid the undermining of the Republic?", "paragraph": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "answer": "agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government.", "sentence": "To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. <hl> To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders <hl> agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. <hl> On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "sentence_answer": "To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders <hl> agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. <hl> On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China."}
{"question": "Who had control of the Beiyang army?", "paragraph": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "answer": "Yuan Shikai", "sentence": "But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai , who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. <hl> But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai , who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. <hl> To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to <hl> Yuan Shikai <hl>, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "sentence_answer": "But power in Beijing already had passed to <hl> Yuan Shikai <hl> , who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time."}
{"question": "Who was Inaugurated in Nanjing as the first provisional president?", "paragraph": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "answer": "Sun Yat-sen", "sentence": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. <hl> But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and <hl> Sun Yat-sen <hl> was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "sentence_answer": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and <hl> Sun Yat-sen <hl> was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President."}
{"question": "Who was sworn in as the second provisional president of the republic of China?", "paragraph": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "answer": "Beijing, Shikai", "sentence": "On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. <hl> On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in <hl> Beijing, Shikai <hl> was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.", "sentence_answer": "On March 10, in <hl> Beijing, Shikai <hl> was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China."}
{"question": "What happened to China after the 20th century revolutions?", "paragraph": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "answer": "shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government.", "sentence": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. <hl> These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "paragraph_answer": "After the early 20th century revolutions, <hl> shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. <hl> Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "sentence_answer": "After the early 20th century revolutions, <hl> shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. <hl> Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves."}
{"question": "Who ultimately gained control of the Beijing government?", "paragraph": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "answer": "various warlords", "sentence": "Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves.", "paragraph_sentence": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. <hl> Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. <hl> These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "paragraph_answer": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that <hl> various warlords <hl> gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "sentence_answer": "Despite the fact that <hl> various warlords <hl> gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves."}
{"question": "Why was there not a new era of governance in Beijing?", "paragraph": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "answer": "because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves.", "sentence": "Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government.", "paragraph_sentence": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. <hl> Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. <hl> The warlord era ended around 1927.", "paragraph_answer": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, <hl> because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. <hl> These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "sentence_answer": "Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, <hl> because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. <hl> These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government."}
{"question": "What were the military dominated governments known as?", "paragraph": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "answer": "the Beiyang government", "sentence": "These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government .", "paragraph_sentence": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. <hl> These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government . <hl> The warlord era ended around 1927.", "paragraph_answer": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as <hl> the Beiyang government <hl>. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "sentence_answer": "These military-dominated governments were collectively known as <hl> the Beiyang government <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the warlord era end?", "paragraph": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.", "answer": "around 1927", "sentence": "The warlord era ended around 1927 .", "paragraph_sentence": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. <hl> The warlord era ended around 1927 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended <hl> around 1927 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The warlord era ended <hl> around 1927 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When dd the Russo-Japanese war take place?", "paragraph": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "answer": "Four years into the 20th century", "sentence": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. <hl> The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Four years into the 20th century <hl> saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Four years into the 20th century <hl> saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power."}
{"question": "What did the battle of Port Arthur establish?", "paragraph": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "answer": "the Empire of Japan as a world power.", "sentence": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. <hl> The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "paragraph_answer": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing <hl> the Empire of Japan as a world power. <hl> The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "sentence_answer": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing <hl> the Empire of Japan as a world power. <hl> The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade."}
{"question": "What were the Russians hoping to find in the pacific ocean?", "paragraph": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "answer": "warm water port", "sentence": "The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade.", "paragraph_sentence": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. <hl> The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. <hl> The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "paragraph_answer": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a <hl> warm water port <hl> on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "sentence_answer": "The Russians were in constant pursuit of a <hl> warm water port <hl> on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade."}
{"question": "Why did the Manchurian Campaign fight the Russians.", "paragraph": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "answer": "over Manchuria and Korea.", "sentence": "The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea.", "paragraph_sentence": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. <hl> The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. <hl> The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "paragraph_answer": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese <hl> over Manchuria and Korea. <hl> The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "sentence_answer": "The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese <hl> over Manchuria and Korea. <hl> The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea."}
{"question": "How were the Japanese victories over the Russians views around the world?", "paragraph": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "answer": "unexpected", "sentence": "The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers.", "paragraph_sentence": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. <hl> The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. <hl> These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "paragraph_answer": "Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were <hl> unexpected <hl> by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.", "sentence_answer": "The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were <hl> unexpected <hl> by world observers."}
{"question": "What is the Edwardian era?", "paragraph": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "answer": "the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War,", "sentence": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. <hl> In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "paragraph_answer": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is <hl> the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, <hl> including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "sentence_answer": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is <hl> the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, <hl> including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic."}
{"question": "What event split the United Kingdom into two groups?", "paragraph": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "answer": "Second Boer War", "sentence": "In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. <hl> In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. <hl> The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "paragraph_answer": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the <hl> Second Boer War <hl> in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "sentence_answer": "In the early years of the period, the <hl> Second Boer War <hl> in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions."}
{"question": "In what year did the Liberals win huge in the general election?", "paragraph": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "answer": "1906", "sentence": "The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. <hl> The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. <hl> The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "paragraph_answer": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of <hl> 1906 <hl> the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "sentence_answer": "The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of <hl> 1906 <hl> the Liberals won a huge landslide."}
{"question": "What led to a reduction in the power of the peers?", "paragraph": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "answer": "Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget", "sentence": "Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. <hl> Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. <hl> The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "paragraph_answer": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. <hl> Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget <hl> led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget <hl> led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910."}
{"question": "Who held the balance of power in the 1910 election?", "paragraph": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "answer": "Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "sentence": "The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. <hl> The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by <hl> Labour and Irish Nationalist members. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by <hl> Labour and Irish Nationalist members. <hl>"}
{"question": "What is The Triple Entente?", "paragraph": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "answer": "the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907.", "sentence": "The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments.", "paragraph_sentence": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. <hl> The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. <hl> Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "paragraph_answer": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was <hl> the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. <hl> The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "sentence_answer": "The Triple Entente was <hl> the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. <hl> The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments."}
{"question": "When was the Anglo -Russia Entente signed?", "paragraph": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "answer": "1907.", "sentence": "The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments.", "paragraph_sentence": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. <hl> The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. <hl> Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "paragraph_answer": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in <hl> 1907. <hl> The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "sentence_answer": "The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in <hl> 1907. <hl> The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments."}
{"question": "What was the origin of the war?", "paragraph": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "answer": "the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914", "sentence": "The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914 , the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "paragraph_sentence": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. <hl> The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914 , the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in <hl> the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914 <hl>, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "sentence_answer": "The immediate origins of the war lay in <hl> the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914 <hl> , the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria."}
{"question": "Who was murdered in Austria?", "paragraph": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "answer": "Archduke Franz Ferdinand", "sentence": "The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "paragraph_sentence": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. <hl> The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of <hl> Archduke Franz Ferdinand <hl> of Austria.", "sentence_answer": "The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of <hl> Archduke Franz Ferdinand <hl> of Austria."}
{"question": "The Triple Entente served as a counter to what agreement?", "paragraph": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "answer": "Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy,", "sentence": "The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments.", "paragraph_sentence": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. <hl> The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. <hl> Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "paragraph_answer": "The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the <hl> Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, <hl> the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.", "sentence_answer": "The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the <hl> Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, <hl> the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments."}
{"question": "Where was the Baghdad Railway Suppose to connect?", "paragraph": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "answer": "Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq", "sentence": "An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq .", "paragraph_sentence": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. <hl> An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq . <hl> The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "paragraph_answer": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the <hl> Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq <hl>. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "sentence_answer": "An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the <hl> Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq <hl> ."}
{"question": "What fundamental cause started the war in 1914?", "paragraph": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "answer": "tensions over territory in the Balkans.", "sentence": "Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties.", "paragraph_sentence": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. <hl> Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. <hl> The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "paragraph_answer": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by <hl> tensions over territory in the Balkans. <hl> Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "sentence_answer": "Fundamentally the war was sparked by <hl> tensions over territory in the Balkans. <hl> Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties."}
{"question": "Who did Austria-Hungary war with over territory?", "paragraph": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "answer": "Serbia and Russia", "sentence": "Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties.", "paragraph_sentence": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. <hl> Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. <hl> The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "paragraph_answer": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with <hl> Serbia and Russia <hl> for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "sentence_answer": "Austria-Hungary competed with <hl> Serbia and Russia <hl> for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties."}
{"question": "Where did the Balkan wars take place?", "paragraph": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "answer": "South-eastern Europe", "sentence": "The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "paragraph_sentence": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. <hl> The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in <hl> South-eastern Europe <hl> in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "sentence_answer": "The Balkan Wars were two wars in <hl> South-eastern Europe <hl> in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time."}
{"question": "Why did Albania fall out with Thessaly, Macedonia and Epirus?", "paragraph": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "answer": "over the division of the spoils", "sentence": "The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils , with incorporation of Romania this time.", "paragraph_sentence": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. <hl> The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils , with incorporation of Romania this time. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out <hl> over the division of the spoils <hl>, with incorporation of Romania this time.", "sentence_answer": "The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912\u20131913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out <hl> over the division of the spoils <hl> , with incorporation of Romania this time."}
{"question": "When did the first World War begin?", "paragraph": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "answer": "1914", "sentence": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. <hl> The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "paragraph_answer": "The First World War began in <hl> 1914 <hl> and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "sentence_answer": "The First World War began in <hl> 1914 <hl> and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918."}
{"question": "Who led the Allied powers?", "paragraph": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "answer": "British Empire, France, Russia", "sentence": "The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. <hl> The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. <hl> The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "paragraph_answer": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the <hl> British Empire, France, Russia <hl> until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "sentence_answer": "The Allied Powers, led by the <hl> British Empire, France, Russia <hl> until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire."}
{"question": "Who defeated the Central Powers led by the German Empire Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire??", "paragraph": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "answer": "Japan and the United States", "sentence": "The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. <hl> The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. <hl> The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "paragraph_answer": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, <hl> Japan and the United States <hl> after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "sentence_answer": "The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, <hl> Japan and the United States <hl> after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire."}
{"question": "What were the Allied powers referred to before 1917?", "paragraph": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "answer": "Triple Entente", "sentence": "The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente , and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "paragraph_sentence": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. <hl> The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente , and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the <hl> Triple Entente <hl>, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "sentence_answer": "The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the <hl> Triple Entente <hl> , and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance."}
{"question": "How many Empires did the war cause destruction to?", "paragraph": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "answer": "four empires", "sentence": "The war caused the disintegration of four empires \u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps.", "paragraph_sentence": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. <hl> The war caused the disintegration of four empires \u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. <hl> The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "paragraph_answer": "The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of <hl> four empires <hl>\u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.", "sentence_answer": "The war caused the disintegration of <hl> four empires <hl> \u2014the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones\u2014as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps."}
{"question": "Where did most of the fighting in World War I take place?", "paragraph": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "answer": "along the Western Front", "sentence": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front , within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front , within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. <hl> On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "paragraph_answer": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place <hl> along the Western Front <hl>, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "sentence_answer": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place <hl> along the Western Front <hl> , within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland."}
{"question": "What is the Western Front?", "paragraph": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "answer": "a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland.", "sentence": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. <hl> Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "paragraph_answer": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within <hl> a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. <hl> On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "sentence_answer": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within <hl> a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. <hl> On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large."}
{"question": "What prevented a trench warfare stalemate?", "paragraph": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "answer": "On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network", "sentence": "On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large.", "paragraph_sentence": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. <hl> On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. <hl> Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "paragraph_answer": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. <hl> On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network <hl> prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network <hl> prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large."}
{"question": "How many soldiers died? in World War I?", "paragraph": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "answer": "More than 9 million", "sentence": "More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts.", "paragraph_sentence": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. <hl> More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. <hl> Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "paragraph_answer": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. <hl> More than 9 million <hl> soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> More than 9 million <hl> soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts."}
{"question": "Where did hostiles appear for the first time during the war?", "paragraph": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "answer": "from the air.", "sentence": "Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014 from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts.", "paragraph_sentence": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. <hl> Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014 from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. <hl> Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "paragraph_answer": "Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a \"No man's land\") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014<hl> from the air. <hl> More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.", "sentence_answer": "Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and\u2014for the first time\u2014 <hl> from the air. <hl> More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts."}
{"question": "In what century did the Nationalistic revolutions occur?", "paragraph": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "answer": "mid-19th century's", "sentence": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. <hl> The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "paragraph_answer": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the <hl> mid-19th century's <hl> nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "sentence_answer": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the <hl> mid-19th century's <hl> nationalistic revolutions."}
{"question": "How many years after world war I did world war II start?", "paragraph": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "answer": "20 years later.", "sentence": "The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. <hl> The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. <hl> The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "paragraph_answer": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately <hl> 20 years later. <hl> More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "sentence_answer": "The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately <hl> 20 years later. <hl> More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia."}
{"question": "What withdrew the political boundaries of West Asia?", "paragraph": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "answer": "partitioning of the Ottoman Empire", "sentence": "More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. <hl> More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. <hl> The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "paragraph_answer": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the <hl> partitioning of the Ottoman Empire <hl> was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "sentence_answer": "More immediate to the time, the <hl> partitioning of the Ottoman Empire <hl> was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia."}
{"question": "Who did The League of Nations grant France mandates over?", "paragraph": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "answer": "Syria and Lebanon", "sentence": "The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan).", "paragraph_sentence": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. <hl> The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). <hl> Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "paragraph_answer": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over <hl> Syria and Lebanon <hl> and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "sentence_answer": "The League of Nations granted France mandates over <hl> Syria and Lebanon <hl> and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan)."}
{"question": "What did the partitioning of the Otto Empire bring about?", "paragraph": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "answer": "the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey.", "sentence": "The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan).", "paragraph_sentence": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. <hl> The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). <hl> Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "paragraph_answer": "Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of <hl> the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. <hl> The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.", "sentence_answer": "The partitioning brought the creation of <hl> the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. <hl> The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan)."}
{"question": "What event happened in October of 1917?", "paragraph": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "answer": "a red faction revolution", "sentence": "In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. <hl> In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, <hl> a red faction revolution <hl> occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "sentence_answer": "In October 1917, <hl> a red faction revolution <hl> occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire."}
{"question": "What happened when Nicholas II was removed from power?", "paragraph": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "answer": "the Russian Provisional Government was established.", "sentence": "Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. <hl> Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, <hl> the Russian Provisional Government was established. <hl> In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "sentence_answer": "Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, <hl> the Russian Provisional Government was established. <hl> In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire."}
{"question": "What happened during the red faction revolution?", "paragraph": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "answer": "armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg", "sentence": "In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd)", "paragraph_sentence": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. <hl> In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) <hl> and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, <hl> armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg <hl> (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "sentence_answer": "In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, <hl> armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg <hl> (then known as Petrograd)"}
{"question": "What is the Russian Revolution?", "paragraph": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "answer": "the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union.", "sentence": "The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. <hl> In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Revolution is <hl> the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. <hl> Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.", "sentence_answer": "The Russian Revolution is <hl> the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. <hl> Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established."}
{"question": "When was the armistice signed between Russia and Central powers?", "paragraph": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "answer": "1917", "sentence": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. <hl> As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "paragraph_answer": "Another action in <hl> 1917 <hl> that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "sentence_answer": "Another action in <hl> 1917 <hl> that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk."}
{"question": "What did Central powers concede in exchange for peace?", "paragraph": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "answer": "huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire", "sentence": "As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire , greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. <hl> As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire , greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. <hl> The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "paragraph_answer": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded <hl> huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire <hl>, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "sentence_answer": "As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded <hl> huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire <hl> , greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives."}
{"question": "Who did the Bolsheviks make peace with?", "paragraph": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "answer": "the German Empire", "sentence": "The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. <hl> The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. <hl> Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "paragraph_answer": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with <hl> the German Empire <hl> and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "sentence_answer": "The Bolsheviks made peace with <hl> the German Empire <hl> and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution."}
{"question": "What were Vladimir Lenin's decisions caused by?", "paragraph": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "answer": "his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II", "sentence": "Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II , German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. <hl> Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II , German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. <hl> This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "paragraph_answer": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to <hl> his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II <hl>, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "sentence_answer": "Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to <hl> his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II <hl> , German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I."}
{"question": "Who did the German sponsorship of Lenin's Petrograd upset?", "paragraph": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "answer": "Western Allies", "sentence": "The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "paragraph_sentence": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. <hl> The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at: <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The <hl> Western Allies <hl> expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Western Allies <hl> expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:"}
{"question": "Where did Soviets under the rule of the Bolshevik first assume power during the Russian Civil War?", "paragraph": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "answer": "Petrograd (St. Petersburg)", "sentence": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. <hl> In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in <hl> Petrograd (St. Petersburg) <hl> and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "sentence_answer": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in <hl> Petrograd (St. Petersburg) <hl> and then in other places."}
{"question": "In the wake of the October resolution, what happened to the Russian Imperial Army?", "paragraph": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "answer": "demobilized", "sentence": "In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized ; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. <hl> In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized ; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. <hl> There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been <hl> demobilized <hl>; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "sentence_answer": "In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been <hl> demobilized <hl> ; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus."}
{"question": "What was Bolshevik's main military force?", "paragraph": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "answer": "volunteer-based Red Guard", "sentence": "In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. <hl> In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. <hl> There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the <hl> volunteer-based Red Guard <hl> was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "sentence_answer": "In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the <hl> volunteer-based Red Guard <hl> was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus."}
{"question": "How did the Red red Army overcome their foes?", "paragraph": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "answer": "by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance.", "sentence": "Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. <hl> Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. <hl> At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome <hl> by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. <hl> Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "sentence_answer": "Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome <hl> by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. <hl> Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty."}
{"question": "How were former Tsarist Officers utilized?", "paragraph": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "answer": "as \"military specialists\"", "sentence": "Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. <hl> Former Tsarist officers were utilized as \"military specialists\" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. <hl> At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "paragraph_answer": "The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized <hl> as \"military specialists\" <hl> (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.", "sentence_answer": "Former Tsarist officers were utilized <hl> as \"military specialists\" <hl> (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty."}
{"question": "Who was the principal fighting between?", "paragraph": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "answer": "Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army.", "sentence": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. <hl> Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "paragraph_answer": "The principal fighting occurred between the <hl> Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. <hl> Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "sentence_answer": "The principal fighting occurred between the <hl> Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. <hl> Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War."}
{"question": "In what time period did the most brutal battles occur?", "paragraph": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "answer": "1918 to 1920", "sentence": "The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. <hl> The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920 . <hl> Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "paragraph_answer": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from <hl> 1918 to 1920 <hl>. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "sentence_answer": "The most intense fighting took place from <hl> 1918 to 1920 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What general was defeated in 1920?", "paragraph": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "answer": "General Pyotr Wrangel", "sentence": "The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "paragraph_sentence": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. <hl> The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of <hl> General Pyotr Wrangel <hl> in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "sentence_answer": "The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of <hl> General Pyotr Wrangel <hl> in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East)."}
{"question": "When did the major military operation end?", "paragraph": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "answer": "25 October 1922", "sentence": "Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government.", "paragraph_sentence": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. <hl> Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. <hl> The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "paragraph_answer": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on <hl> 25 October 1922 <hl> when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "sentence_answer": "Major military operations ended on <hl> 25 October 1922 <hl> when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government."}
{"question": "Where did the last Resistance from the White movement occur?", "paragraph": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).", "answer": "Far East", "sentence": "The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East )", "paragraph_sentence": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. <hl> The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East ) <hl> .", "paragraph_answer": "The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the <hl> Far East <hl>).", "sentence_answer": "The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the <hl> Far East <hl> )"}
{"question": "What did the May Fourth movement help do?", "paragraph": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "answer": "rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution.", "sentence": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. <hl> Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "paragraph_answer": "The May Fourth Movement helped to <hl> rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. <hl> In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "sentence_answer": "The May Fourth Movement helped to <hl> rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. <hl> In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords."}
{"question": "Sun Yat-Sen became the leader of what military group.", "paragraph": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "answer": "a rival military government in Guangzhou", "sentence": "In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords.", "paragraph_sentence": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. <hl> In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. <hl> Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "paragraph_answer": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of <hl> a rival military government in Guangzhou <hl> in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "sentence_answer": "In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of <hl> a rival military government in Guangzhou <hl> in collaboration with southern warlords."}
{"question": "What did Sun Yat-Sen hope to get from western democracies?", "paragraph": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "answer": "aid", "sentence": "Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. <hl> Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. <hl> The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "paragraph_answer": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain <hl> aid <hl> from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "sentence_answer": "Sun's efforts to obtain <hl> aid <hl> from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution."}
{"question": "Who did Sun Yet-Sen turn in 1930 for help?", "paragraph": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "answer": "the Soviet Union", "sentence": "Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union , which had recently achieved its own revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. <hl> Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union , which had recently achieved its own revolution. <hl> The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "paragraph_answer": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to <hl> the Soviet Union <hl>, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "sentence_answer": "Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to <hl> the Soviet Union <hl> , which had recently achieved its own revolution."}
{"question": "How did the Soviets try to befriend the Chinese Revolutionist?", "paragraph": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "answer": "by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism.", "sentence": "The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "paragraph_sentence": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. <hl> The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists <hl> by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. <hl> But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).", "sentence_answer": "The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists <hl> by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. <hl> But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP)."}
{"question": "What is the \"Roaring Twenties\" ?", "paragraph": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "answer": "social and societal upheaval", "sentence": "The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. <hl> The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. <hl> The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "paragraph_answer": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The <hl> social and societal upheaval <hl> known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> social and societal upheaval <hl> known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I."}
{"question": "What is the \"Roaring Twenties\" also known as?", "paragraph": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "answer": "The Jazz Age", "sentence": "The Roaring Twenties, often called \" The Jazz Age \", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism.", "paragraph_sentence": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. <hl> The Roaring Twenties, often called \" The Jazz Age \", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. <hl> 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "paragraph_answer": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"<hl> The Jazz Age <hl>\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "sentence_answer": "The Roaring Twenties, often called \" <hl> The Jazz Age <hl> \", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism."}
{"question": "Where did the \"Roaring Twenties\" begin?", "paragraph": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "answer": "North America", "sentence": "In North America , especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In North America , especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. <hl> The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> North America <hl>, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> North America <hl> , especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties."}
{"question": "Where did the \"Roaring Twenties\" spread to after the war?", "paragraph": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "answer": "Europe", "sentence": "The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I.", "paragraph_sentence": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. <hl> The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. <hl> The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "paragraph_answer": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to <hl> Europe <hl> in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "sentence_answer": "The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to <hl> Europe <hl> in the aftermath of World War I."}
{"question": "what did the \"Jazz Age\" usher in?", "paragraph": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "answer": "an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism.", "sentence": "The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked.", "paragraph_sentence": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. <hl> The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. <hl> The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "paragraph_answer": "In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw <hl> an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. <hl> 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.", "sentence_answer": "The Roaring Twenties, often called \"The Jazz Age\", saw <hl> an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. <hl> 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked."}
{"question": "When did the hyperinflation of 1923 occur?", "paragraph": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "answer": "1923", "sentence": "In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year.", "paragraph_sentence": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. <hl> In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. <hl> When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "paragraph_answer": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of <hl> 1923 <hl> and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "sentence_answer": "In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of <hl> 1923 <hl> and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year."}
{"question": "Who invested in European debts?", "paragraph": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "answer": "Wall Street", "sentence": "When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods.", "paragraph_sentence": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. <hl> When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. <hl> By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "paragraph_answer": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. When Germany could no longer afford war payments, <hl> Wall Street <hl> invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "sentence_answer": "When Germany could no longer afford war payments, <hl> Wall Street <hl> invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods."}
{"question": "Europe has a large market for what?", "paragraph": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "answer": "American mass-produced goods", "sentence": "When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods .", "paragraph_sentence": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. <hl> When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods . <hl> By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "paragraph_answer": "Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for <hl> American mass-produced goods <hl>. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the \"Golden Twenties\". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the \"ann\u00e9es folles\" (\"Crazy Years\").", "sentence_answer": "When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for <hl> American mass-produced goods <hl> ."}
{"question": "What changed worldwide property drasrically?", "paragraph": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "answer": "the onset of the Great Depression", "sentence": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. <hl> The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "paragraph_answer": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with <hl> the onset of the Great Depression <hl> in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "sentence_answer": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with <hl> the onset of the Great Depression <hl> in 1929."}
{"question": "In what year did The wall Street crash occur?", "paragraph": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "answer": "1929", "sentence": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929 . <hl> The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "paragraph_answer": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in <hl> 1929 <hl>. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "sentence_answer": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in <hl> 1929 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the great Depression end?", "paragraph": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "answer": "1930s or early 1940s", "sentence": "The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. <hl> The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. <hl> It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "paragraph_answer": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the <hl> 1930s or early 1940s <hl> for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "sentence_answer": "The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the <hl> 1930s or early 1940s <hl> for different countries."}
{"question": "What is the Great Depression?", "paragraph": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "answer": "a worldwide economic downturn", "sentence": "The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. <hl> The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. <hl> It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "paragraph_answer": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was <hl> a worldwide economic downturn <hl> starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "sentence_answer": "The Great Depression was <hl> a worldwide economic downturn <hl> starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries."}
{"question": "The great depression is the worst economic downturn of what century?", "paragraph": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "answer": "20th century", "sentence": "It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century , and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "paragraph_sentence": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. <hl> It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century , and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the <hl> 20th century <hl>, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.", "sentence_answer": "It was the largest and most important economic depression in the <hl> 20th century <hl> , and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall."}
{"question": "Where did the depression cause negative effects?", "paragraph": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "answer": "virtually every country", "sentence": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country , rich or poor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country , rich or poor. <hl> International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "paragraph_answer": "The depression had devastating effects in <hl> virtually every country <hl>, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "sentence_answer": "The depression had devastating effects in <hl> virtually every country <hl> , rich or poor."}
{"question": "How much did international trade fall?", "paragraph": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "answer": "by half to two-thirds,", "sentence": "International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits.", "paragraph_sentence": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. <hl> International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. <hl> Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "paragraph_answer": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged <hl> by half to two-thirds, <hl> as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "sentence_answer": "International trade plunged <hl> by half to two-thirds, <hl> as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits."}
{"question": "What happened to construction during the Depression?", "paragraph": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "answer": "virtually halted in many countries", "sentence": "Construction was virtually halted in many countries .", "paragraph_sentence": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. <hl> Construction was virtually halted in many countries . <hl> Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "paragraph_answer": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was <hl> virtually halted in many countries <hl>. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "sentence_answer": "Construction was <hl> virtually halted in many countries <hl> ."}
{"question": "How far did crop prices fall?", "paragraph": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "answer": "60 percent", "sentence": "Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent .", "paragraph_sentence": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. <hl> Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent . <hl> Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "paragraph_answer": "The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly <hl> 60 percent <hl>. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.", "sentence_answer": "Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly <hl> 60 percent <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Americas Great Depression end?", "paragraph": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "answer": "1941", "sentence": "America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. <hl> America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. <hl> The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "paragraph_answer": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in <hl> 1941 <hl> with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "sentence_answer": "America's Great Depression ended in <hl> 1941 <hl> with America's entry into World War II."}
{"question": "Who was the most notable Nationalist Demagogue the people turned to?", "paragraph": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "answer": "Adolf Hitler", "sentence": "In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler \u2014setting the stage for the next era of war.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. <hl> In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler \u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. <hl> The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "paragraph_answer": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being <hl> Adolf Hitler <hl>\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "sentence_answer": "In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being <hl> Adolf Hitler <hl> \u2014setting the stage for the next era of war."}
{"question": "In some world states who did the people turn to?", "paragraph": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "answer": "nationalist demagogues", "sentence": "In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues \u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. <hl> In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues \u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. <hl> The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "paragraph_answer": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward <hl> nationalist demagogues <hl>\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "sentence_answer": "In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward <hl> nationalist demagogues <hl> \u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war."}
{"question": "What did the Convulsion caused by the global depression resul in?", "paragraph": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "answer": "the rise of Nazism", "sentence": "The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. <hl> The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism . <hl> In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "paragraph_answer": "The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues\u2014the most infamous being Adolf Hitler\u2014setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in <hl> the rise of Nazism <hl>. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.", "sentence_answer": "The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in <hl> the rise of Nazism <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was The League of Nations created?", "paragraph": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "answer": "after the First World War", "sentence": "One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. <hl> One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. <hl> The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "paragraph_answer": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created <hl> after the First World War <hl> with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "sentence_answer": "One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created <hl> after the First World War <hl> with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries."}
{"question": "What was the Interwar period marked by?", "paragraph": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "answer": "radical change in the international order", "sentence": "a radical change in the international order , away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe.", "paragraph_sentence": "The interwar period was also marked by <hl> a radical change in the international order , away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. <hl> One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "paragraph_answer": "The interwar period was also marked by a <hl> radical change in the international order <hl>, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> radical change in the international order <hl> , away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe."}
{"question": "What institution was meant to bring stability?", "paragraph": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "answer": "the League of Nations", "sentence": "One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations , which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. <hl> One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations , which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. <hl> The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "paragraph_answer": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was <hl> the League of Nations <hl>, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "sentence_answer": "One main institution that was meant to bring stability was <hl> the League of Nations <hl> , which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries."}
{"question": "What effect did the undermining of The league of Nations have on the people?", "paragraph": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "answer": "leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "sentence": "The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "paragraph_sentence": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. <hl> The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, <hl> leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, <hl> leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy. <hl>"}
{"question": "Who undermined The League Of Nations?", "paragraph": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "answer": "bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States", "sentence": "The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States , leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "paragraph_sentence": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. <hl> The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States , leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre\u2013World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the <hl> bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States <hl>, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.", "sentence_answer": "The League was undermined by the <hl> bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States <hl> , leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy."}
{"question": "Who was first to invade Manchuria?", "paragraph": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "answer": "Japan", "sentence": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. <hl> The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "paragraph_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by <hl> Japan <hl> and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "sentence_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by <hl> Japan <hl> and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time."}
{"question": "What is the Abyssinian crisis?", "paragraph": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "answer": "Italy invaded Abyssinia", "sentence": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia , one of the only free African nations at that time.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia , one of the only free African nations at that time. <hl> The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "paragraph_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which <hl> Italy invaded Abyssinia <hl>, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "sentence_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which <hl> Italy invaded Abyssinia <hl> , one of the only free African nations at that time."}
{"question": "What is Abyssinia?", "paragraph": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "answer": "one of the only free African nations at that time", "sentence": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time . <hl> The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "paragraph_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, <hl> one of the only free African nations at that time <hl>. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "sentence_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, <hl> one of the only free African nations at that time <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the Abyssinian crisis occur?", "paragraph": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "answer": "1935/36", "sentence": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. <hl> The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "paragraph_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of <hl> 1935/36 <hl> in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "sentence_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of <hl> 1935/36 <hl> in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time."}
{"question": "Who did The League try to force economic sanctions on?", "paragraph": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "answer": "Italy", "sentence": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. <hl> The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "paragraph_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which <hl> Italy <hl> invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.", "sentence_answer": "A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which <hl> Italy <hl> invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time."}
{"question": "When did the seizure of Manchuria occur?", "paragraph": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "answer": "September 1931", "sentence": "Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932.", "paragraph_sentence": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. <hl> Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. <hl> During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "paragraph_answer": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in <hl> September 1931 <hl> and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "sentence_answer": "Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in <hl> September 1931 <hl> and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932."}
{"question": "Who was named the head of the puppet state after the seizure of Manchuria?", "paragraph": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "answer": "ex-Qing emperor Puyi", "sentence": "Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932.", "paragraph_sentence": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. <hl> Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. <hl> During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "paragraph_answer": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established <hl> ex-Qing emperor Puyi <hl> as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "sentence_answer": "Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established <hl> ex-Qing emperor Puyi <hl> as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932."}
{"question": "What dealt a blow to the Kuomintang economy?", "paragraph": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "answer": "loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries,", "sentence": "During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy.", "paragraph_sentence": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. <hl> During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. <hl> The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "paragraph_answer": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the <hl> loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, <hl> was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "sentence_answer": "During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the <hl> loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, <hl> was a blow to the Kuomintang economy."}
{"question": "In what year did conflict between the Kuomintang and Communist intensify?", "paragraph": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "answer": "1940", "sentence": "After 1940 , conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control.", "paragraph_sentence": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. <hl> After 1940 , conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. <hl> The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "paragraph_answer": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After <hl> 1940 <hl>, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "sentence_answer": "After <hl> 1940 <hl> , conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control."}
{"question": "What was Kuomintang's main goal pertaining to Communist?", "paragraph": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "answer": "neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "sentence": "The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.", "paragraph_sentence": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. <hl> The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937\u20131945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to <hl> neutralize the spread of Communist influence. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants\u2014while the Kuomintang attempted to <hl> neutralize the spread of Communist influence. <hl>"}
{"question": "What did the United States place on Japans war efforts?", "paragraph": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "answer": "embargoes", "sentence": "With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. <hl> With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. <hl> The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "paragraph_answer": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed <hl> embargoes <hl> on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "sentence_answer": "With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed <hl> embargoes <hl> on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort."}
{"question": "What war saw tensions arise between between Imperial Japan and the United States?", "paragraph": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "answer": "The Second Sino-Japanese War", "sentence": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. <hl> With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Second Sino-Japanese War <hl> had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Second Sino-Japanese War <hl> had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan."}
{"question": "Who did Imperial Japan sign a Tripartite pact with?", "paragraph": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "answer": "Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "sentence": "In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). <hl> In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with <hl> Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with <hl> Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy. <hl>"}
{"question": "What did the American Embargoes prevent Japan from aquiring?", "paragraph": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "answer": "strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil", "sentence": "With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil , which were vitally needed for the war effort.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. <hl> With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil , which were vitally needed for the war effort. <hl> The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "paragraph_answer": "The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of <hl> strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil <hl>, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia\u2014specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.", "sentence_answer": "With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940\u201341, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of <hl> strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil <hl> , which were vitally needed for the war effort."}
{"question": "Where did Japan attack the United States?", "paragraph": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "answer": "Pearl Harbor", "sentence": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor , bringing it too into the war on the Allied side.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor , bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. <hl> China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "paragraph_answer": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at <hl> Pearl Harbor <hl>, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "sentence_answer": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at <hl> Pearl Harbor <hl> , bringing it too into the war on the Allied side."}
{"question": "What countries were referred to as \"The Trusteeship Of The Powerful\"?", "paragraph": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "answer": "The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China", "sentence": "The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations", "paragraph_sentence": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. <hl> The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations <hl> These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "paragraph_answer": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. <hl> The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China <hl> were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China <hl> were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations"}
{"question": "When did the attack on Pearl Harbor occur?", "paragraph": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "answer": "December 7, 1941", "sentence": "On December 7, 1941 , Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On December 7, 1941 , Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. <hl> China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "paragraph_answer": "On <hl> December 7, 1941 <hl>, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> December 7, 1941 <hl> , Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side."}
{"question": "What did The United Nations name \"The Trusteeship Of The Powerful\"", "paragraph": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "answer": "\"Four Policemen\"", "sentence": "These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II.", "paragraph_sentence": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations <hl> These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. <hl> From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "paragraph_answer": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the <hl> \"Four Policemen\" <hl> or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "sentence_answer": "These four countries were considered as the <hl> \"Four Policemen\" <hl> or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II."}
{"question": "Who were the victors of World War II?", "paragraph": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "answer": "The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China", "sentence": "The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations", "paragraph_sentence": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. <hl> The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations <hl> These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "paragraph_answer": "On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. <hl> The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China <hl> were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the \"Four Policemen\" or \"Four Sheriffs\" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China <hl> were referred as a \"trusteeship of the powerful\" during the World War II and were recognized as the Allied \"Big Four\" in Declaration by United Nations"}
{"question": "What Was estimated amount of deaths during the war?", "paragraph": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "answer": "62 million", "sentence": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. <hl> About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible that around <hl> 62 million <hl> people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "sentence_answer": "It is possible that around <hl> 62 million <hl> people died in the war; estimates vary greatly."}
{"question": "What percent of the deaths during the war were civilians?", "paragraph": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "answer": "About 60%", "sentence": "About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. <hl> About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. <hl> The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. <hl> About 60% <hl> of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> About 60% <hl> of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing."}
{"question": "What countries suffered the most casualties in the war?", "paragraph": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "answer": "The former Soviet Union and China", "sentence": "The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. <hl> The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. <hl> Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. <hl> The former Soviet Union and China <hl> suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The former Soviet Union and China <hl> suffered the most casualties."}
{"question": "What percentage of it's population did Poland lose in the war?", "paragraph": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "answer": "16%,", "sentence": "No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. <hl> No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or <hl> 16%, <hl> of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "sentence_answer": "No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or <hl> 16%, <hl> of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died."}
{"question": "How many deaths did the Soviet Union suffer in the war?", "paragraph": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "answer": "23 million", "sentence": "Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million , while China suffered about 10 million.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. <hl> Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million , while China suffered about 10 million. <hl> No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around <hl> 23 million <hl>, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.", "sentence_answer": "Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around <hl> 23 million <hl> , while China suffered about 10 million."}
{"question": "What is the Holocaust?", "paragraph": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "answer": "was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\"", "sentence": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. <hl> Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "paragraph_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") <hl> was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" <hl> during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "sentence_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") <hl> was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" <hl> during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany."}
{"question": "During what word event did the Holocaust happen?", "paragraph": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "answer": "during World War II", "sentence": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. <hl> Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "paragraph_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" <hl> during World War II <hl> by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "sentence_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" <hl> during World War II <hl> by the Nazi regime in Germany."}
{"question": "Who is responsible for the Holocaust?", "paragraph": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "answer": "Nazi regime in Germany.", "sentence": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. <hl> Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "paragraph_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the <hl> Nazi regime in Germany. <hl> Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "sentence_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the <hl> Nazi regime in Germany. <hl> Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later."}
{"question": "How did the Nazis conjure up anti-Semitic feelings in civilians?", "paragraph": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "answer": "propaganda", "sentence": "The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). <hl> The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used <hl> propaganda <hl> to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "sentence_answer": "The Nazis used <hl> propaganda <hl> to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans."}
{"question": "When did the suffering of the Jews begin?", "paragraph": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "answer": "before the war even started", "sentence": "Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started , such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass)", "paragraph_sentence": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. <hl> Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started , such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass) <hl> . The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "paragraph_answer": "The Holocaust (which roughly means \"burnt whole\") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other \"unwanted\" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well <hl> before the war even started <hl>, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.", "sentence_answer": "Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well <hl> before the war even started <hl> , such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass)"}
{"question": "What was Europe split into after World War II?", "paragraph": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "answer": "Western and Soviet spheres of influence.", "sentence": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. <hl> There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "paragraph_answer": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into <hl> Western and Soviet spheres of influence. <hl> Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "sentence_answer": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into <hl> Western and Soviet spheres of influence. <hl> Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact."}
{"question": "Who battled in the cold war?", "paragraph": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "answer": "United States and the Soviet Union.", "sentence": "There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War.", "paragraph_sentence": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. <hl> There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. <hl> In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "paragraph_answer": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the <hl> United States and the Soviet Union. <hl> These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "sentence_answer": "There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the <hl> United States and the Soviet Union. <hl> These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War."}
{"question": "What does the term NATO represent?", "paragraph": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "answer": "North Atlantic Treaty Organization", "sentence": "Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact.", "paragraph_sentence": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. <hl> Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. <hl> There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "paragraph_answer": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the <hl> North Atlantic Treaty Organization <hl> (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "sentence_answer": "Western Europe later aligned as the <hl> North Atlantic Treaty Organization <hl> (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact."}
{"question": "What did the defeat of Japan mean for Asia?", "paragraph": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "answer": "led to its democratization.", "sentence": "In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China.", "paragraph_sentence": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. <hl> In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. <hl> The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "paragraph_answer": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan <hl> led to its democratization. <hl> China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "sentence_answer": "In Asia, the defeat of Japan <hl> led to its democratization. <hl> China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China."}
{"question": "What did China name themselves after the war?", "paragraph": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "answer": "the People's Republic of China.", "sentence": "China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "paragraph_sentence": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. <hl> China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of <hl> the People's Republic of China. <hl> The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.", "sentence_answer": "China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of <hl> the People's Republic of China. <hl> The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence."}
{"question": "By what percentage did the world's per-capita gross domestic product grow by during the 20th century?", "paragraph": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "answer": "a factor of five", "sentence": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five , much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five , much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). <hl> Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "paragraph_answer": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by <hl> a factor of five <hl>, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "sentence_answer": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by <hl> a factor of five <hl> , much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution)."}
{"question": "What has Modern medicine increased the average life expectancy by?", "paragraph": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "answer": "two decades", "sentence": "Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades )", "paragraph_sentence": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). <hl> Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades ) <hl> and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "paragraph_answer": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than <hl> two decades <hl>) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "sentence_answer": "Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than <hl> two decades <hl> )"}
{"question": "What happened to the income gap between the rich and the poor?", "paragraph": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "answer": "the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider", "sentence": "However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider , and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "paragraph_sentence": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. <hl> However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider , and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, <hl> the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider <hl>, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.", "sentence_answer": "However, <hl> the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider <hl> , and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide."}
{"question": "What did the media industry make possible in the middle of the century?", "paragraph": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "answer": "brutal dictatorships", "sentence": "Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented.", "paragraph_sentence": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. <hl> Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. <hl> However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "paragraph_answer": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made <hl> brutal dictatorships <hl> possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "sentence_answer": "Large-scale industry and more centralized media made <hl> brutal dictatorships <hl> possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented."}
{"question": "What did the brutal dictatorships caused by the media lead to?", "paragraph": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "answer": "wars", "sentence": "Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented.", "paragraph_sentence": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. <hl> Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. <hl> However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "paragraph_answer": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to <hl> wars <hl> that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "sentence_answer": "Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to <hl> wars <hl> that were also unprecedented."}
{"question": "What did increased communications lead contribute to?", "paragraph": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "answer": "democratization", "sentence": "However, the increased communications contributed to democratization .", "paragraph_sentence": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. <hl> However, the increased communications contributed to democratization . <hl> Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "paragraph_answer": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to <hl> democratization <hl>. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "sentence_answer": "However, the increased communications contributed to <hl> democratization <hl> ."}
{"question": "What time period did technological advances lead to?", "paragraph": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.", "answer": "the Information Age", "sentence": "Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age .", "paragraph_sentence": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. <hl> Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of <hl> the Information Age <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of <hl> the Information Age <hl> ."}
{"question": "what did the Soviet Union annex some of it's territory as?", "paragraph": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "answer": "Soviet Socialist Republics", "sentence": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. <hl> The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "paragraph_answer": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as <hl> Soviet Socialist Republics <hl> and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "sentence_answer": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as <hl> Soviet Socialist Republics <hl> and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact."}
{"question": "What did the territory the Soviet Union maintained as satellite states, later became known as?", "paragraph": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "answer": "the Warsaw Pact", "sentence": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact . <hl> The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "paragraph_answer": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form <hl> the Warsaw Pact <hl>. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "sentence_answer": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form <hl> the Warsaw Pact <hl> ."}
{"question": "The United States and many Western countries began what policy to fight communism?", "paragraph": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "answer": "\"containment\"", "sentence": "The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. <hl> The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. <hl> Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "paragraph_answer": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of <hl> \"containment\" <hl> of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "sentence_answer": "The United States and various western European countries began a policy of <hl> \"containment\" <hl> of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO."}
{"question": "What did the soviets opposed rebuilding?", "paragraph": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "answer": "rebuilding of western Europe", "sentence": "Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe , including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. <hl> Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe , including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. <hl> In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "paragraph_answer": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the <hl> rebuilding of western Europe <hl>, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "sentence_answer": "Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the <hl> rebuilding of western Europe <hl> , including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed."}
{"question": "What actions of the Soviet Union did The United States oppose?", "paragraph": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "answer": "the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements,", "sentence": "In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\".", "paragraph_sentence": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. <hl> In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". <hl> Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "paragraph_answer": "The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of \"containment\" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, <hl> the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, <hl> which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.", "sentence_answer": "In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, <hl> the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, <hl> which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to \"roll back\"."}
{"question": "Through what time period did the Berlin Blockade last?", "paragraph": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "answer": "1948\u20131949", "sentence": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade ( 1948\u20131949 ), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. <hl> International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade ( 1948\u20131949 ), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. <hl> There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (<hl> 1948\u20131949 <hl>), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "sentence_answer": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade ( <hl> 1948\u20131949 <hl> ), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983."}
{"question": "What types of periods did the cold war see?", "paragraph": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "answer": "heightened tension and relative calm.", "sentence": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. <hl> There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War saw periods of both <hl> heightened tension and relative calm. <hl> International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "sentence_answer": "The Cold War saw periods of both <hl> heightened tension and relative calm. <hl> International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983."}
{"question": "Through what time period did the Korean War last?", "paragraph": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "answer": "1950\u20131953)", "sentence": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War ( 1950\u20131953) , the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. <hl> International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War ( 1950\u20131953) , the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. <hl> There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (<hl> 1950\u20131953) <hl>, the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "sentence_answer": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War ( <hl> 1950\u20131953) <hl> , the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983."}
{"question": "Through what time period did the Vietnam war last?", "paragraph": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "answer": "1959\u20131975", "sentence": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War ( 1959\u20131975 ), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. <hl> International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War ( 1959\u20131975 ), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. <hl> There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (<hl> 1959\u20131975 <hl>), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "sentence_answer": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War ( <hl> 1959\u20131975 <hl> ), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983."}
{"question": "When did the Cuban Missile crisis happen?", "paragraph": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "answer": "1962", "sentence": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis ( 1962 ), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. <hl> International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis ( 1962 ), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. <hl> There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (<hl> 1962 <hl>), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought d\u00e9tente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.", "sentence_answer": "International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948\u20131949), the Korean War (1950\u20131953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959\u20131975), the Cuban Missile Crisis ( <hl> 1962 <hl> ), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979\u20131989) and NATO exercises in November 1983."}
{"question": "During what time was the cold war close to happening?", "paragraph": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "answer": "1980s and the early 1990s", "sentence": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s . <hl> The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late <hl> 1980s and the early 1990s <hl>. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "sentence_answer": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late <hl> 1980s and the early 1990s <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did the Reagan administration increase on the Soviet Union?", "paragraph": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "answer": "diplomatic, military, and economic pressure", "sentence": "The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. <hl> The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. <hl> In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased <hl> diplomatic, military, and economic pressure <hl> on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "sentence_answer": "The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased <hl> diplomatic, military, and economic pressure <hl> on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation."}
{"question": "What was the Soviet Union suffering from in the 1980's?", "paragraph": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "answer": "severe economic stagnation", "sentence": "The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. <hl> The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation . <hl> In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from <hl> severe economic stagnation <hl>. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "sentence_answer": "The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from <hl> severe economic stagnation <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Mikhail Gorbachev introduce?", "paragraph": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "answer": "introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms.", "sentence": "In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. <hl> In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev <hl> introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. <hl> The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "sentence_answer": "In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev <hl> introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. <hl> The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal."}
{"question": "In what year did the Soviet Union collapse?", "paragraph": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "answer": "1991", "sentence": "The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991 , leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. <hl> The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991 , leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in <hl> 1991 <hl>, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.", "sentence_answer": "The Soviet Union collapsed in <hl> 1991 <hl> , leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal."}
{"question": "What caused Latin America's right-wing authorities to support coup o'etats?", "paragraph": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "answer": "in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence", "sentence": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. <hl> This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "paragraph_answer": "In Latin America <hl> in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence <hl> which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "sentence_answer": "In Latin America <hl> in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence <hl> which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat."}
{"question": "Why did the Latin Americas Upper class support coup o'etats?", "paragraph": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "answer": "to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat.", "sentence": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. <hl> Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "paragraph_answer": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats <hl> to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. <hl> This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "sentence_answer": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats <hl> to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. <hl> This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization."}
{"question": "The regimes in the southern cone collaborated in killing of who?", "paragraph": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "answer": "leftist dissidents", "sentence": "In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents , including some urban guerrillas.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. <hl> In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents , including some urban guerrillas. <hl> However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "paragraph_answer": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many <hl> leftist dissidents <hl>, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "sentence_answer": "In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many <hl> leftist dissidents <hl> , including some urban guerrillas."}
{"question": "What did all countries restore in the 1990's", "paragraph": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "answer": "their democracies.", "sentence": "However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. <hl> However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored <hl> their democracies. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored <hl> their democracies. <hl>"}
{"question": "Where did the United States support dictatorships in the 1970\"s?", "paragraph": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "answer": "South American countries", "sentence": "Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. <hl> Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. <hl> In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "paragraph_answer": "In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'\u00e9tats to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most <hl> South American countries <hl> were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.", "sentence_answer": "Most <hl> South American countries <hl> were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America."}
{"question": "What is the space age?", "paragraph": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "answer": "a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events.", "sentence": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. <hl> This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "paragraph_answer": "The Space Age is <hl> a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. <hl> The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "sentence_answer": "The Space Age is <hl> a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. <hl> The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union."}
{"question": "Who launched Sputnik 1?", "paragraph": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "answer": "the Soviet Union.", "sentence": "The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. <hl> The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. <hl> The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "paragraph_answer": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by <hl> the Soviet Union. <hl> This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "sentence_answer": "The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by <hl> the Soviet Union. <hl> This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg."}
{"question": "How long does did it take for the Sputnik 1 to orbit the earth?", "paragraph": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "answer": "98.1 minutes", "sentence": "This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. <hl> This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. <hl> The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "paragraph_answer": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in <hl> 98.1 minutes <hl> and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "sentence_answer": "This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in <hl> 98.1 minutes <hl> and weighing in at 83 kg."}
{"question": "What did Sputnik 1 usher in?", "paragraph": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "answer": "The Space Age", "sentence": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. <hl> The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Space Age <hl> is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Space Age <hl> is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events."}
{"question": "How many people watched the Apollo 11 landing?", "paragraph": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "answer": "500 million", "sentence": "The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. <hl> The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. <hl> Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "paragraph_answer": "The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over <hl> 500 million <hl> people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.", "sentence_answer": "The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over <hl> 500 million <hl> people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century."}
{"question": "What types of control are considered when labeling a country with the perjorative \"51st state\" label?", "paragraph": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "answer": "excessive American cultural or military influence or control", "sentence": "It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control .", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. <hl> It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control . <hl> In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under <hl> excessive American cultural or military influence or control <hl>. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "sentence_answer": "It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under <hl> excessive American cultural or military influence or control <hl> ."}
{"question": "Sometimes, when a country refers to themselves as the 51st state, what has happened to their culture?", "paragraph": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "answer": "their local or national culture has become too Americanized", "sentence": "In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. <hl> In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe <hl> their local or national culture has become too Americanized <hl> sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "sentence_answer": "In various countries around the world, people who believe <hl> their local or national culture has become too Americanized <hl> sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries."}
{"question": "What reasoning would cause a country to be referred to as the \"51st state\" in a positive way?", "paragraph": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "answer": "a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state", "sentence": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state . <hl> It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that <hl> a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state <hl>. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "sentence_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that <hl> a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a positive connotation of the label \"51st state\"?", "paragraph": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "answer": "a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States", "sentence": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States , that it is like a U.S. state.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States , that it is like a U.S. state. <hl> It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that <hl> a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States <hl>, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "sentence_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that <hl> a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States <hl> , that it is like a U.S. state."}
{"question": "What is a reason for one negative connotation of the term?", "paragraph": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "answer": "an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control", "sentence": "It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control .", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. <hl> It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control . <hl> In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning <hl> an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control <hl>. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "sentence_answer": "It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning <hl> an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control <hl> ."}
{"question": "If a country refers to themselves as the \"51st state\" after cultural changes, what can we assume has changed?", "paragraph": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "answer": "their local or national culture has become too Americanized", "sentence": "In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. <hl> In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase \"51st state\" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe <hl> their local or national culture has become too Americanized <hl> sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries.", "sentence_answer": "In various countries around the world, people who believe <hl> their local or national culture has become too Americanized <hl> sometimes use the term \"51st state\" in reference to their own countries."}
{"question": "What does Article IV, Section three of the US Constitution outline?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "the relationship among the states", "sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states , Congress has the power to admit new states to the union.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states , Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. <hl> The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines <hl> the relationship among the states <hl>, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines <hl> the relationship among the states <hl> , Congress has the power to admit new states to the union."}
{"question": "Article IV, Section Three of th United States Constitution gives Congress the power to do what?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "the power to admit new states to the union", "sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union . <hl> The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has <hl> the power to admit new states to the union <hl>. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has <hl> the power to admit new states to the union <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does the states' requirement to give \"full faith and credit\" help recognize?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments", "sentence": "The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments .", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. <hl> The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments . <hl> The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of <hl> legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments <hl>. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of <hl> legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are all states guaranteed by the federal government?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "military and civil defense", "sentence": "The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. <hl> The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed <hl> military and civil defense <hl> by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "The states are guaranteed <hl> military and civil defense <hl> by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\"."}
{"question": "What does Article 4, Section 4 guarantee?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government", "sentence": "The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \" guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government \".", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. <hl> The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \" guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government \". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"<hl> guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government <hl>\".", "sentence_answer": "The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \" <hl> guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What part of the US Constitution outlines the relationship among the states?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "Article IV, Section Three", "sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. <hl> The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_answer": "Under <hl> Article IV, Section Three <hl> of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "Under <hl> Article IV, Section Three <hl> of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union."}
{"question": "What does the concept of \"full faith and credit\" protect?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments", "sentence": "The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments .", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. <hl> The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments . <hl> The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include <hl> the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments <hl>. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include <hl> the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments <hl> ."}
{"question": "Article IV, Section Three allows Congress to do what?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "admit new states to the union", "sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union . <hl> The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to <hl> admit new states to the union <hl>. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to <hl> admit new states to the union <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is guaranteed to the states by the federal government?", "paragraph": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "answer": "military and civil defense", "sentence": "The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "paragraph_sentence": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. <hl> The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give \"full faith and credit\" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed <hl> military and civil defense <hl> by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\".", "sentence_answer": "The states are guaranteed <hl> military and civil defense <hl> by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to \"guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government\"."}
{"question": "What country has been regarded as a potential new addition to the United States?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States", "sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States . <hl> In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States <hl>. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States <hl> ."}
{"question": "What percentage of voters expressed dissatisfaction with their current political relationship?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "54%", "sentence": "In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54% , expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. <hl> In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54% , expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. <hl> In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, <hl> 54% <hl>, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "sentence_answer": "In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, <hl> 54% <hl> , expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship."}
{"question": "What percentage of voters supported statehood?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "61%", "sentence": "In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank).", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. <hl> In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). <hl> On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, <hl> 61% <hl> of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "sentence_answer": "In a separate question, <hl> 61% <hl> of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank)."}
{"question": "When did Puerto Rico resolve to request that the United States act on these results?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "December 11, 2012", "sentence": "On December 11, 2012 , Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). <hl> On December 11, 2012 , Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On <hl> December 11, 2012 <hl>, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> December 11, 2012 <hl> , Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state."}
{"question": "What would be an ideal reaction from the United States, according to Puerto Rico?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state", "sentence": "On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state .", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). <hl> On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, <hl> end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, <hl> end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state <hl> ."}
{"question": "What territory has been suggested as a new addition to the United States?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "Puerto Rico", "sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. <hl> In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Puerto Rico <hl> has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Puerto Rico <hl> has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States."}
{"question": "What percentages of voters expressed unhappiness with the current political relationship between the U.S. and Puerto Rico?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "54%", "sentence": "In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54% , expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. <hl> In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54% , expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. <hl> In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, <hl> 54% <hl>, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "sentence_answer": "In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, <hl> 54% <hl> , expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship."}
{"question": "When did the legislature of Puerto Rico request that they be considered for statehood?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "answer": "December 11, 2012", "sentence": "On December 11, 2012 , Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). <hl> On December 11, 2012 , Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On <hl> December 11, 2012 <hl>, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> December 11, 2012 <hl> , Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state."}
{"question": "How long has Puerto Rico had representation in Congress?", "paragraph": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "answer": "Since 1898", "sentence": "Since 1898 , Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Since 1898 , Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. <hl> The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Since 1898 <hl>, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Since 1898 <hl> , Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate."}
{"question": "Who represents Puerto Rico in Congress?", "paragraph": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "answer": "a Resident Commissioner", "sentence": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner , a nonvoting delegate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner , a nonvoting delegate. <hl> The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "paragraph_answer": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of <hl> a Resident Commissioner <hl>, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "sentence_answer": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of <hl> a Resident Commissioner <hl> , a nonvoting delegate."}
{"question": "Which Congress gave the commissioner the power to vote?", "paragraph": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "answer": "The 110th Congress", "sentence": "The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. <hl> The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. <hl> Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "paragraph_answer": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. <hl> The 110th Congress <hl> returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The 110th Congress <hl> returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation."}
{"question": "What is the commissioner not allowed to vote on?", "paragraph": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "answer": "on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation", "sentence": "The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation .", "paragraph_sentence": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. <hl> The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation . <hl> Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "paragraph_answer": "Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not <hl> on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation <hl>. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.", "sentence_answer": "The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not <hl> on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation <hl> ."}
{"question": "What types of taxes do Puerto Ricans pay?", "paragraph": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "answer": "U.S. federal taxes", "sentence": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes : import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes : import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. <hl> Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "paragraph_answer": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay <hl> U.S. federal taxes <hl>: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "sentence_answer": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay <hl> U.S. federal taxes <hl> : import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government."}
{"question": "What makes up the federal taxes Puerto Rican citizens pay?", "paragraph": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "answer": "import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes", "sentence": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes , therefore contributing to the American Government.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes , therefore contributing to the American Government. <hl> Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "paragraph_answer": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: <hl> import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes <hl>, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "sentence_answer": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: <hl> import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes <hl> , therefore contributing to the American Government."}
{"question": "How else can they serve the U.S.?", "paragraph": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "answer": "Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military.", "sentence": "Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "paragraph_sentence": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. <hl> Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. <hl> Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. <hl> Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. <hl> Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012."}
{"question": "How many Puerto Ricans have died in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan?", "paragraph": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "answer": "52", "sentence": "Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "paragraph_sentence": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. <hl> Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico\u2013based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; <hl> 52 <hl> Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.", "sentence_answer": "Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; <hl> 52 <hl> Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012."}
{"question": "In the aftermath of which war was the U.S. granted Puerto Rico?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "answer": "Spanish\u2013American War", "sentence": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War , and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War , and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. <hl> The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the <hl> Spanish\u2013American War <hl>, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "sentence_answer": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the <hl> Spanish\u2013American War <hl> , and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917."}
{"question": "What country handed over Puerto Rico to the US?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "answer": "Spain", "sentence": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. <hl> The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by <hl> Spain <hl> following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "sentence_answer": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by <hl> Spain <hl> following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917."}
{"question": "How long have Puerto Ricans been U.S. citizens?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "answer": "since 1917", "sentence": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917 . <hl> The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens <hl> since 1917 <hl>. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "sentence_answer": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens <hl> since 1917 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What form of government do the Puerto Ricans have?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "answer": "republican", "sentence": "Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. <hl> Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish\u2013American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a <hl> republican <hl> form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.", "sentence_answer": "Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a <hl> republican <hl> form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights."}
{"question": "How was the Puerto Rican constitution brought about?", "paragraph": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "answer": "the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution", "sentence": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. <hl> The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "paragraph_answer": "This constitution was created when <hl> the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution <hl> in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "sentence_answer": "This constitution was created when <hl> the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution <hl> in 1951."}
{"question": "When was the Puerto Rican constitution written?", "paragraph": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "answer": "1951", "sentence": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951 . <hl> The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "paragraph_answer": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in <hl> 1951 <hl>. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "sentence_answer": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in <hl> 1951 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the constitution accepted by the electorate, U.S. Congress, and U.S. President?", "paragraph": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "answer": "1952", "sentence": "The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952 .", "paragraph_sentence": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. <hl> The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952 . <hl> In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "paragraph_answer": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in <hl> 1952 <hl>. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "sentence_answer": "The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in <hl> 1952 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What clause gives Puerto Rican citizens the same rights as US citizens?", "paragraph": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "answer": "Privileges and Immunities Clause", "sentence": "In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "paragraph_sentence": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. <hl> In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the <hl> Privileges and Immunities Clause <hl> of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.", "sentence_answer": "In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are \"respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union\" through the express extension of the <hl> Privileges and Immunities Clause <hl> of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948."}
{"question": "How is Puerto Rico designated in its constitution?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "answer": "Commonwealth of Puerto Rico", "sentence": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \" Commonwealth of Puerto Rico \".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \" Commonwealth of Puerto Rico \". <hl> The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"<hl> Commonwealth of Puerto Rico <hl>\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "sentence_answer": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \" <hl> Commonwealth of Puerto Rico <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What title does the country have?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "answer": "Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\")", "sentence": "The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\") , officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". <hl> The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\") , officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. <hl> The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of <hl> Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\") <hl>, officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "sentence_answer": "The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of <hl> Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\") <hl> , officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic."}
{"question": "What act was approved on April 29th, 2010?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "answer": "The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499)", "sentence": "The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. <hl> The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. <hl> It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. <hl> The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) <hl> was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) <hl> was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress."}
{"question": "What is the island under jurisdiction of?", "paragraph": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "answer": "Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution", "sentence": "The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution , which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico.", "paragraph_sentence": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. <hl> The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution , which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. <hl> In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "paragraph_answer": "Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the \"Commonwealth of Puerto Rico\". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as \"Free Associated State\"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the <hl> Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution <hl>, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones\u2013Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223\u2013169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.", "sentence_answer": "The island is under the jurisdiction of the <hl> Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution <hl> , which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico."}
{"question": "What percentage of voters rejected the status of territory?", "paragraph": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "answer": "54 percent", "sentence": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. <hl> The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "paragraph_answer": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in <hl> 54 percent <hl> of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "sentence_answer": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in <hl> 54 percent <hl> of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status."}
{"question": "What percentage of voters preferred statehood?", "paragraph": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "answer": "61 percent", "sentence": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. <hl> The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "paragraph_answer": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in <hl> 61 percent <hl> of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "sentence_answer": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in <hl> 61 percent <hl> of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status."}
{"question": "What percentage of voters abstained from voting on a preferred alternative status?", "paragraph": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "answer": "one in four voters", "sentence": "However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status.", "paragraph_sentence": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. <hl> However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. <hl> Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "paragraph_answer": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than <hl> one in four voters <hl> abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "sentence_answer": "However, more than <hl> one in four voters <hl> abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status."}
{"question": "What argument do those opposing statehood use?", "paragraph": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "answer": "the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included", "sentence": "Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included .", "paragraph_sentence": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. <hl> Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included . <hl> If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "paragraph_answer": "In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that <hl> the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included <hl>. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.", "sentence_answer": "Statehood opponents have argued that <hl> the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included <hl> ."}
{"question": "What newspaper suggested that Congress would ignore Puerto Rico's referendum?", "paragraph": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "answer": "The Hill", "sentence": "On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. <hl> On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. <hl> and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper <hl> The Hill <hl> published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "sentence_answer": "On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper <hl> The Hill <hl> published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes."}
{"question": "What newspapers have published opinion pieces expressing support for Puerto Rico's statehood?", "paragraph": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "answer": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald", "sentence": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. <hl> On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald <hl> have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald <hl> have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico."}
{"question": "When was that article published?", "paragraph": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "answer": "November 8, 2012", "sentence": "On November 8, 2012 , Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. <hl> On November 8, 2012 , Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. <hl> and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On <hl> November 8, 2012 <hl>, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> November 8, 2012 <hl> , Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes."}
{"question": "What Congress members agreed with the Hill's assesment?", "paragraph": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "answer": "U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez", "sentence": "and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez , both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. <hl> and U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez , both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. <hl> Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and <hl> U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez <hl>, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman Jos\u00e9 Enrique Serrano commented \"I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward.\"", "sentence_answer": "and <hl> U.S. Congressman Luis Guti\u00e9rrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Vel\u00e1zquez <hl> , both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements."}
{"question": "What politicians pushed for statehood for Puerto Rico?", "paragraph": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "answer": "Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o", "sentence": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o , and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o , and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. <hl> Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Several days after the referendum, the <hl> Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o <hl>, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "sentence_answer": "Several days after the referendum, the <hl> Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o <hl> , and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting."}
{"question": "What politician fought against statehood for Puerto Rico?", "paragraph": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "answer": "Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla", "sentence": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. <hl> Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and <hl> Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla <hl> wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "sentence_answer": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and <hl> Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla <hl> wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting."}
{"question": "How did these politicians voice their concerns?", "paragraph": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "answer": "wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama", "sentence": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. <hl> Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla <hl> wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama <hl> addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "sentence_answer": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla <hl> wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama <hl> addressing the results of the voting."}
{"question": "What was the White House stance?", "paragraph": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "answer": "the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved", "sentence": "The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved , and a majority chose statehood in the second question.", "paragraph_sentence": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. <hl> The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved , and a majority chose statehood in the second question. <hl> Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortu\u00f1o, and Governor-elect Alejandro Garc\u00eda Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortu\u00f1o urged him to move the process forward. Garc\u00eda Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that <hl> the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved <hl>, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, \"Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future.\"", "sentence_answer": "The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that <hl> the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved <hl> , and a majority chose statehood in the second question."}
{"question": "When was H.R. 2000 introduced?", "paragraph": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "answer": "On May 15, 2013", "sentence": "On May 15, 2013 , Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On May 15, 2013 , Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. <hl> On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> On May 15, 2013 <hl>, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> On May 15, 2013 <hl> , Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state."}
{"question": "What did Senator Heinrich's bill require?", "paragraph": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "answer": "a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state.", "sentence": "The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "paragraph_sentence": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. <hl> The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require <hl> a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. <hl> In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "sentence_answer": "The bill would require <hl> a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. <hl> In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state."}
{"question": "What would happen in the event of a yes vote in this referendum?", "paragraph": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "answer": "the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state", "sentence": "In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state .", "paragraph_sentence": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. <hl> In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, <hl> the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In the event of a yes vote, <hl> the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state <hl> ."}
{"question": "What would H.R. 2000 do?", "paragraph": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "answer": "set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union", "sentence": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \" set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union ,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \" set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union ,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. <hl> On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "paragraph_answer": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \"<hl> set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union <hl>,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.", "sentence_answer": "On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to \" <hl> set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union <hl> ,\" asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state."}
{"question": "Who considered the implications of the definition of the seat of government in the Constitution?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "answer": "James Madison", "sentence": "In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. <hl> In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. <hl> Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, <hl> James Madison <hl> considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "sentence_answer": "In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, <hl> James Madison <hl> considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution."}
{"question": "Where are these ideas located in the Federalist Papers?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "answer": "Federalist No. 43", "sentence": "In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. <hl> In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. <hl> Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In <hl> Federalist No. 43 <hl> of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> Federalist No. 43 <hl> of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution."}
{"question": "What limits does the constitution have for the size of Washington, D.C.?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "answer": "the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District", "sentence": "However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. <hl> However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District . <hl> Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, <hl> the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District <hl>. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "sentence_answer": "However, <hl> the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District <hl> ."}
{"question": "What caused the size of Washington, D.C. to change?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "answer": "Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac", "sentence": "Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. <hl> Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac . <hl> So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the \"seat of government\" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a \"municipal legislature for local purposes,\" Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when <hl> Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac <hl>. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.", "sentence_answer": "Its size has already changed once before, when <hl> Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac <hl> ."}
{"question": "What Revolutionary War motto have Washington, D.C. statehood supporters modified and used?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "answer": "\"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\"", "sentence": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\" , denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\" , denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). <hl> President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto <hl> \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\" <hl>, denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "sentence_answer": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto <hl> \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\" <hl> , denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead)."}
{"question": "What does the phrase protest?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "answer": "their lack of Congressional representation", "sentence": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation ; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation ; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). <hl> President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting <hl> their lack of Congressional representation <hl>; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "sentence_answer": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting <hl> their lack of Congressional representation <hl> ; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead)."}
{"question": "In what way has the phrase been spread wide?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "answer": "the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates", "sentence": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). <hl> President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; <hl> the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates <hl> (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "sentence_answer": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; <hl> the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates <hl> (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead)."}
{"question": "When did Obama have the protest plates put on his Presidential limousine?", "paragraph": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.", "answer": "at the beginning of his second term", "sentence": "President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. <hl> President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto \"No taxation without representation\", omitting the initial \"No\", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the \"Taxation without representation\" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style <hl> at the beginning of his second term <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style <hl> at the beginning of his second term <hl> ."}
{"question": "What party carried the position of D.C. Statehood?", "paragraph": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "answer": "D.C. Statehood Party", "sentence": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party , a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party , a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. <hl> The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "paragraph_answer": "This position was carried by the <hl> D.C. Statehood Party <hl>, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "sentence_answer": "This position was carried by the <hl> D.C. Statehood Party <hl> , a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party."}
{"question": "What party did the D.C. Statehood Party merge when?", "paragraph": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "answer": "the local Green Party affiliate", "sentence": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. <hl> The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "paragraph_answer": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with <hl> the local Green Party affiliate <hl> to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "sentence_answer": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with <hl> the local Green Party affiliate <hl> to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party."}
{"question": "When did the movement get closest to success?", "paragraph": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "answer": "1978", "sentence": "The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978 , when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment.", "paragraph_sentence": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. <hl> The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978 , when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. <hl> Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "paragraph_answer": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in <hl> 1978 <hl>, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "sentence_answer": "The nearest this movement ever came to success was in <hl> 1978 <hl> , when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment."}
{"question": "What would be the new name of the D.C. State?", "paragraph": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "answer": "New Columbia", "sentence": "In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia .", "paragraph_sentence": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. <hl> In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia . <hl> The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "paragraph_answer": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called <hl> New Columbia <hl>. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "sentence_answer": "In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called <hl> New Columbia <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the drive for statehood falter?", "paragraph": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "answer": "1985", "sentence": "The drive for statehood stalled in 1985 , however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "paragraph_sentence": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. <hl> The drive for statehood stalled in 1985 , however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in <hl> 1985 <hl>, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.", "sentence_answer": "The drive for statehood stalled in <hl> 1985 <hl> , however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified."}
{"question": "What is another likely country for statehood?", "paragraph": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "answer": "Guam", "sentence": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. <hl> Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "paragraph_answer": "Other less likely contenders are <hl> Guam <hl> and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "sentence_answer": "Other less likely contenders are <hl> Guam <hl> and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States."}
{"question": "What is another likely country for statehood?", "paragraph": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "answer": "United States Virgin Islands", "sentence": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands , both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands , both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. <hl> Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "paragraph_answer": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the <hl> United States Virgin Islands <hl>, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "sentence_answer": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the <hl> United States Virgin Islands <hl> , both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States."}
{"question": "What entity reported on Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again?", "paragraph": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "answer": "Radio Australia", "sentence": "Radio Australia , in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "paragraph_sentence": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). <hl> Radio Australia , in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed \"Commonwealth of Prusvi\", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as \"Puerto Virgo\"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the \"Greater Hawaii\" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). <hl> Radio Australia <hl>, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Radio Australia <hl> , in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state."}
{"question": "What country had small grassroots movement for US Statehood?", "paragraph": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "answer": "The Philippines", "sentence": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. <hl> Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Philippines <hl> has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Philippines <hl> has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood."}
{"question": "What party used to be known as the Federalista Party?", "paragraph": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "answer": "Federalista Party", "sentence": "Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party , the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. <hl> Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party , the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. <hl> As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "paragraph_answer": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the <hl> Federalista Party <hl>, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "sentence_answer": "Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the <hl> Federalista Party <hl> , the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change."}
{"question": "What was the most recent year of the Phillipines pushing for statehood?", "paragraph": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "answer": "2004", "sentence": "As recently as 2004 , the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. <hl> As recently as 2004 , the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. <hl> Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "paragraph_answer": "The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as <hl> 2004 <hl>, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.", "sentence_answer": "As recently as <hl> 2004 <hl> , the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines."}
{"question": "What is another connotation for the 51st state label?", "paragraph": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "answer": "if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States", "sentence": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States . <hl> Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "paragraph_answer": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that <hl> if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States <hl>. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "sentence_answer": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that <hl> if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the Canada-US Free Trade Agreement enacted?", "paragraph": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "answer": "1988", "sentence": "Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988 , the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. <hl> Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988 , the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in <hl> 1988 <hl>, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "sentence_answer": "Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in <hl> 1988 <hl> , the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999."}
{"question": "When was the Charlottetown Accord signed?", "paragraph": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "answer": "1992", "sentence": "Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. <hl> Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in <hl> 1992 <hl> and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "sentence_answer": "Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in <hl> 1992 <hl> and the Clarity Act in 1999."}
{"question": "When did the Clarity Act go into effect?", "paragraph": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.", "answer": "1999", "sentence": "Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999 .", "paragraph_sentence": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. <hl> Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In Canada, \"the 51st state\" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in <hl> 1999 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in <hl> 1999 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who suggested that the Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada?", "paragraph": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "answer": "Liberals", "sentence": "In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America.", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. <hl> In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. <hl> Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the <hl> Liberals <hl> asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "sentence_answer": "In the 1988 federal election, the <hl> Liberals <hl> asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America."}
{"question": "When was this campaign ran?", "paragraph": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "answer": "In the 1988 federal election", "sentence": "In the 1988 federal election , the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America.", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. <hl> In the 1988 federal election , the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. <hl> Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. <hl> In the 1988 federal election <hl>, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In the 1988 federal election <hl> , the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America."}
{"question": "Who erased the border in the ad?", "paragraph": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "answer": "Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists", "sentence": "In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists , upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America.", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. <hl> In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists , upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. <hl> Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which <hl> Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists <hl>, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "sentence_answer": "In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which <hl> Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists <hl> , upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America."}
{"question": "What was the slogan of this ad?", "paragraph": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "answer": "\"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "sentence": "Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. <hl> Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned \"Here's where we draw the line.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada\u2014notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned <hl> \"Here's where we draw the line.\" <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned <hl> \"Here's where we draw the line.\" <hl>"}
{"question": "When did Quebec land in British hands?", "paragraph": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "answer": "1763", "sentence": "The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763 ) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory.", "paragraph_sentence": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. <hl> The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763 ) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. <hl> The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "paragraph_answer": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since <hl> 1763 <hl>) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "sentence_answer": "The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since <hl> 1763 <hl> ) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory."}
{"question": "When did Ontario land in British hands?", "paragraph": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "answer": "1763", "sentence": "The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763 ) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory.", "paragraph_sentence": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. <hl> The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763 ) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. <hl> The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "paragraph_answer": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since <hl> 1763 <hl>) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "sentence_answer": "The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since <hl> 1763 <hl> ) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory."}
{"question": "During which the US invade Canada?", "paragraph": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "answer": "the War of 1812", "sentence": "The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812 , but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. <hl> The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812 , but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. <hl> The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "paragraph_answer": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during <hl> the War of 1812 <hl>, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "sentence_answer": "The United States again invaded Canada during <hl> the War of 1812 <hl> , but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic."}
{"question": "What did several US politicians suggest doing in the 19th century?", "paragraph": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.", "answer": "annexing Canada", "sentence": "The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada .", "paragraph_sentence": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. <hl> The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of <hl> annexing Canada <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of <hl> annexing Canada <hl> ."}
{"question": "When were the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland?", "paragraph": "In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "answer": "In the late 1940s", "sentence": "In the late 1940s , during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the late 1940s , during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. <hl> The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> In the late 1940s <hl>, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In the late 1940s <hl> , during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II."}
{"question": "What did the Economic Union Party support?", "paragraph": "In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "answer": "an independent \"responsible government\"", "sentence": "The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "paragraph_sentence": "In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. <hl> The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported <hl> an independent \"responsible government\" <hl> that they would then push toward their goals).", "sentence_answer": "The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported <hl> an independent \"responsible government\" <hl> that they would then push toward their goals)."}
{"question": "What was the result of the 1948 referendum?", "paragraph": "In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "answer": "The movement ultimately failed", "sentence": "The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "paragraph_sentence": "In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. <hl> The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. <hl> The movement ultimately failed <hl> when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The movement ultimately failed <hl> when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent \"responsible government\" that they would then push toward their goals)."}
{"question": "What does Canada being referred to as the 51st state in a positive way mean in the US, generally?", "paragraph": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "answer": "can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada", "sentence": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada . <hl> Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "paragraph_answer": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada <hl> can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada <hl>. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "sentence_answer": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada <hl> can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a negative connotation of the term?", "paragraph": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "answer": "to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor", "sentence": "Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. <hl> Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor . <hl> In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "paragraph_answer": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended <hl> to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor <hl>. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "sentence_answer": "Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended <hl> to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor <hl> ."}
{"question": "How man votes did Parti 51 attract in 1989?", "paragraph": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "answer": "just 3,846 votes", "sentence": "The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). <hl> The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. <hl> In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "paragraph_answer": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted <hl> just 3,846 votes <hl> across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "sentence_answer": "The party attracted <hl> just 3,846 votes <hl> across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast."}
{"question": "What did the other parties receive that year?", "paragraph": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).", "answer": "40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ)", "sentence": "In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ) .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. <hl> In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ) . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the United States, the term \"the 51st state\" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, Andr\u00e9 Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got <hl> 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ) <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got <hl> 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ) <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Panama have the US-ruled Canal Zone Territory?", "paragraph": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "answer": "from 1903 to 1979", "sentence": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979 , and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981)", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979 , and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981) <hl> . However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory <hl> from 1903 to 1979 <hl>, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "sentence_answer": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory <hl> from 1903 to 1979 <hl> , and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981)"}
{"question": "When did El Salvador adopt the US Dollar as its currency?", "paragraph": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "answer": "2001", "sentence": "In 2001 , El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. <hl> In 2001 , El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In <hl> 2001 <hl>, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 2001 <hl> , El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone."}
{"question": "When did the British Honduras become Belize?", "paragraph": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "answer": "since 1981", "sentence": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981 ).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981 ). <hl> However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize <hl> since 1981 <hl>). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.", "sentence_answer": "Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize <hl> since 1981 <hl> )."}
{"question": "What country was Cuba a territory of?", "paragraph": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "answer": "Spain", "sentence": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain . <hl> A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "paragraph_answer": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from <hl> Spain <hl>. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "sentence_answer": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from <hl> Spain <hl> ."}
{"question": "What battleship sunk in the Havana Harbor?", "paragraph": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "answer": "Maine", "sentence": "When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. <hl> When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. <hl> After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "paragraph_answer": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship <hl> Maine <hl> sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "sentence_answer": "When the U.S. battleship <hl> Maine <hl> sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898."}
{"question": "When did Fidel Castro overthrow the Cuban government?", "paragraph": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "answer": "1959", "sentence": "Several decades later in 1959 , the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. <hl> Several decades later in 1959 , the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. <hl> Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "paragraph_answer": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in <hl> 1959 <hl>, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "sentence_answer": "Several decades later in <hl> 1959 <hl> , the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro."}
{"question": "What government did Castro install?", "paragraph": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "answer": "Marxist\u2013Leninist government", "sentence": "Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. <hl> Castro installed a Marxist\u2013Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader Jos\u00e9 Mart\u00ed called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish\u2013American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a <hl> Marxist\u2013Leninist government <hl> allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.", "sentence_answer": "Castro installed a <hl> Marxist\u2013Leninist government <hl> allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since."}
{"question": "Why is Israel referred to as the 51st state?", "paragraph": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "answer": "the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States", "sentence": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States . <hl> An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "paragraph_answer": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to <hl> the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States <hl>. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "sentence_answer": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to <hl> the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States <hl> ."}
{"question": "What book did Martine Rothblatt publish?", "paragraph": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "answer": "Two Stars for Peace", "sentence": "An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union.", "paragraph_sentence": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. <hl> An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. <hl> The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "paragraph_answer": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called <hl> Two Stars for Peace <hl> that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "sentence_answer": "An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called <hl> Two Stars for Peace <hl> that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union."}
{"question": "When was Two Stars for Peace published?", "paragraph": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "answer": "2003", "sentence": "An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union.", "paragraph_sentence": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. <hl> An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. <hl> The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "paragraph_answer": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in <hl> 2003 <hl> when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "sentence_answer": "An example of this concept can be found in <hl> 2003 <hl> when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union."}
{"question": "Who wrote the book The American State of Canaan?", "paragraph": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "answer": "Alfred de Grazia", "sentence": "Alfred de Grazia , political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "paragraph_sentence": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. <hl> Alfred de Grazia , political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. <hl> Alfred de Grazia <hl>, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Alfred de Grazia <hl> , political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories."}
{"question": "When did Artcle 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco come into effect?", "paragraph": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "answer": "April 1952", "sentence": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952 , the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952 , the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. <hl> All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "paragraph_answer": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in <hl> April 1952 <hl>, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "sentence_answer": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in <hl> April 1952 <hl> , the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship."}
{"question": "How many people lived on the island of Okinawa?", "paragraph": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "answer": "over 1 million", "sentence": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. <hl> All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "paragraph_answer": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to <hl> over 1 million <hl> Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "sentence_answer": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to <hl> over 1 million <hl> Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship."}
{"question": "When was Okinawa finally returned?", "paragraph": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "answer": "May 15, 1972", "sentence": "Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972 , but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. <hl> Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972 , but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on <hl> May 15, 1972 <hl>, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "sentence_answer": "Okinawa was returned on <hl> May 15, 1972 <hl> , but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan."}
{"question": "Why did the US have troops on Okinawa?", "paragraph": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "answer": "as a defense for Japan.", "sentence": "Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.", "paragraph_sentence": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. <hl> Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa\u2014home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese\u2014and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases <hl> as a defense for Japan. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases <hl> as a defense for Japan. <hl>"}
{"question": "When did the 51st State Party attempt to register in New Zealand?", "paragraph": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "answer": "2010", "sentence": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. <hl> The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 2010 <hl> there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 2010 <hl> there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission."}
{"question": "Who is the secretary of the 51st State Party?", "paragraph": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "answer": "Paulus Telfer", "sentence": "The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer , a former Christchurch mayoral candidate.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. <hl> The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer , a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. <hl> On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is <hl> Paulus Telfer <hl>, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "sentence_answer": "The party's secretary is <hl> Paulus Telfer <hl> , a former Christchurch mayoral candidate."}
{"question": "What does the 51st State Party advocate?", "paragraph": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "answer": "The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America", "sentence": "The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. <hl> The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America . <hl> The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. <hl> The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America <hl>. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America <hl> ."}
{"question": "Can people in New Zealand vote for the 51st State Party?", "paragraph": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "answer": "the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "sentence": "As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. <hl> As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo \u2013 a US flag with 51 stars \u2013 was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], <hl> the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "As of 2014[update], <hl> the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot. <hl>"}
{"question": "Who is the mayor of Tirana?", "paragraph": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "answer": "Edi Rama,", "sentence": "In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ...", "paragraph_sentence": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. <hl> In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... <hl> Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "paragraph_answer": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, <hl> Edi Rama, <hl> Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "sentence_answer": "In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, <hl> Edi Rama, <hl> Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ..."}
{"question": "Who said that Albania is the most pro-American country in Europe?", "paragraph": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "answer": "Edi Rama", "sentence": "In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama , Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ...", "paragraph_sentence": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. <hl> In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama , Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... <hl> Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "paragraph_answer": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, <hl> Edi Rama <hl>, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "sentence_answer": "In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, <hl> Edi Rama <hl> , Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ..."}
{"question": "When did James Baker visit Albania as Secretary of State?", "paragraph": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "answer": "1992", "sentence": "At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992 , there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state.", "paragraph_sentence": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" <hl> At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992 , there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. <hl> In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "paragraph_answer": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in <hl> 1992 <hl>, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "sentence_answer": "At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in <hl> 1992 <hl> , there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state."}
{"question": "What is the name of the largest US military base outside of US territory?", "paragraph": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "answer": "Camp Bondsteel", "sentence": "The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.", "paragraph_sentence": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. <hl> The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: \"Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome.\" At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, <hl> Camp Bondsteel <hl> in the territory since 1999.", "sentence_answer": "The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, <hl> Camp Bondsteel <hl> in the territory since 1999."}
{"question": "When did the US control Greenland?", "paragraph": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "answer": "when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany", "sentence": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany , the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany , the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. <hl> In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, <hl> when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany <hl>, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "sentence_answer": "During World War II, <hl> when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany <hl> , the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection."}
{"question": "How much did the US offer to pay for Greenland?", "paragraph": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "answer": "$100 million", "sentence": "In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today)", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. <hl> In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) <hl> but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for <hl> $100 million <hl> ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "sentence_answer": "In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for <hl> $100 million <hl> ($1.2 billion today)"}
{"question": "What university is professor Gudmundur Alfredssson from?", "paragraph": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "answer": "University of Akureyri", "sentence": "Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014.", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. <hl> Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. <hl> One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at <hl> University of Akureyri <hl> in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "sentence_answer": "Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at <hl> University of Akureyri <hl> in 2014."}
{"question": "What is one reason the US would be interested in Greenland?", "paragraph": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "answer": "the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "sentence": "According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. <hl> According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping <hl> the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping <hl> the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast. <hl>"}
{"question": "What had been Poland's stance towards the US, historically?", "paragraph": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "answer": "staunchly pro-American", "sentence": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American , dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American , dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. <hl> This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "paragraph_answer": "Poland has historically been <hl> staunchly pro-American <hl>, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "sentence_answer": "Poland has historically been <hl> staunchly pro-American <hl> , dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution."}
{"question": "What led to the creation of an independent Poland?", "paragraph": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "answer": "favorable American intervention in World War I", "sentence": "This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence).", "paragraph_sentence": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. <hl> This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). <hl> Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "paragraph_answer": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following <hl> favorable American intervention in World War I <hl> (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "sentence_answer": "This pro-American stance was reinforced following <hl> favorable American intervention in World War I <hl> (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence)."}
{"question": "What did Poland contribute to the \"Coalition of the Willing\"?", "paragraph": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "answer": "a large force", "sentence": "Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq.", "paragraph_sentence": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). <hl> Poland contributed a large force to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. <hl> A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "paragraph_answer": "Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Ko\u015bciuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed <hl> a large force <hl> to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as \"the 51st state\" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.", "sentence_answer": "Poland contributed <hl> a large force <hl> to the \"Coalition of the Willing\" in Iraq."}
{"question": "How many members did the Party of Reconstruction in Sicily have in 1944?", "paragraph": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "answer": "40,000 members", "sentence": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. <hl> This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "paragraph_answer": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed <hl> 40,000 members <hl> in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "sentence_answer": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed <hl> 40,000 members <hl> in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state."}
{"question": "What did the Party of Reconstruction in Sicily campaign for?", "paragraph": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "answer": "for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state", "sentence": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state . <hl> This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "paragraph_answer": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned <hl> for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state <hl>. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "sentence_answer": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned <hl> for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the annexation of Sicily by Italy happen?", "paragraph": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "answer": "1861", "sentence": "Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. <hl> Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. <hl> The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "paragraph_answer": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of <hl> 1861 <hl> that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "sentence_answer": "Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of <hl> 1861 <hl> that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples."}
{"question": "When did the Allied invasion of Sicily occur?", "paragraph": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "answer": "July\u2013August 1943", "sentence": "The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. <hl> The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July\u2013August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in <hl> July\u2013August 1943 <hl> may have contributed to the sentiment.", "sentence_answer": "The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in <hl> July\u2013August 1943 <hl> may have contributed to the sentiment."}
{"question": "What are the four categories of terra nullius?", "paragraph": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "answer": "the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies", "sentence": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. <hl> In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "paragraph_answer": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: <hl> the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies <hl> such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "sentence_answer": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: <hl> the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies <hl> such as the Moon or Mars."}
{"question": "What three treaties exist for unclaimed lands?", "paragraph": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "answer": "the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty", "sentence": "In the last three of these, international treaties ( the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. <hl> In the last three of these, international treaties ( the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (<hl> the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty <hl> respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "sentence_answer": "In the last three of these, international treaties ( <hl> the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty <hl> respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories."}
{"question": "What do the treaties defend against?", "paragraph": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "answer": "prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "sentence": "In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. <hl> In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) <hl> prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) <hl> prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories. <hl>"}
{"question": "Where is Bir Tawil located?", "paragraph": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "answer": "between Egypt and Sudan", "sentence": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan , Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan , Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. <hl> In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "paragraph_answer": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil <hl> between Egypt and Sudan <hl>, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.", "sentence_answer": "There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil <hl> between Egypt and Sudan <hl> , Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars."}
{"question": "What device is able to change electric powerinto radio waves and also do the reverse?", "paragraph": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "answer": "An antenna", "sentence": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. <hl> It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> An antenna <hl> (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> An antenna <hl> (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa."}
{"question": "What device is often used in conjuntion with the antenna?", "paragraph": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "answer": "radio transmitter or radio receiver", "sentence": "It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver .", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. <hl> It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver . <hl> In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a <hl> radio transmitter or radio receiver <hl>. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "sentence_answer": "It is usually used with a <hl> radio transmitter or radio receiver <hl> ."}
{"question": "What process associated with antennas produces a high frequency alternating current?", "paragraph": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "answer": "transmission", "sentence": "In transmission , a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves).", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. <hl> In transmission , a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). <hl> In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In <hl> transmission <hl>, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> transmission <hl> , a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves)."}
{"question": "What else can radio waves be called?", "paragraph": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "answer": "electromagnetic waves", "sentence": "In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves).", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. <hl> In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). <hl> In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as <hl> electromagnetic waves <hl> (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "sentence_answer": "In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as <hl> electromagnetic waves <hl> (radio waves)."}
{"question": "When does an antenna catch electromagnetic waves?", "paragraph": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "answer": "reception", "sentence": "In reception , an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). <hl> In reception , an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In <hl> reception <hl>, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> reception <hl> , an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified."}
{"question": "What is frequently used to connect elements to the receiver?", "paragraph": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "answer": "transmission line", "sentence": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line ) to the receiver or transmitter.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line ) to the receiver or transmitter. <hl> An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "paragraph_answer": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a <hl> transmission line <hl>) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "sentence_answer": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a <hl> transmission line <hl> ) to the receiver or transmitter."}
{"question": "During transmission does the electric field wave move closer to the antenna?", "paragraph": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "answer": "radiate away", "sentence": "These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave.", "paragraph_sentence": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. <hl> These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. <hl> Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "paragraph_answer": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields <hl> radiate away <hl> from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "sentence_answer": "These time-varying fields <hl> radiate away <hl> from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave."}
{"question": "What particles are pushed through the antenna by a transmitter?", "paragraph": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "answer": "electrons", "sentence": "An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements.", "paragraph_sentence": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. <hl> An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. <hl> These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "paragraph_answer": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of <hl> electrons <hl> forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "sentence_answer": "An oscillating current of <hl> electrons <hl> forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements."}
{"question": "During what process would electrons be vacillating in the antenna?", "paragraph": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "answer": "reception", "sentence": "Conversely, during reception , the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "paragraph_sentence": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. <hl> Conversely, during reception , the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during <hl> reception <hl>, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.", "sentence_answer": "Conversely, during <hl> reception <hl> , the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna."}
{"question": "What is an acceptable synonym for antenna?", "paragraph": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "answer": "aerial", "sentence": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. <hl> Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "paragraph_answer": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and <hl> aerial <hl> are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "sentence_answer": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and <hl> aerial <hl> are used interchangeably."}
{"question": "What can sometimes be meant by the term aerial specifically?", "paragraph": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "answer": "wire antenna", "sentence": "Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna .", "paragraph_sentence": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. <hl> Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna . <hl> However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "paragraph_answer": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a <hl> wire antenna <hl>. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "sentence_answer": "Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a <hl> wire antenna <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is one way of referring to more than one antenna?", "paragraph": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "answer": "antennae", "sentence": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \" antennae \" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \" antennae \" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. <hl> Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "paragraph_answer": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"<hl> antennae <hl>\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "sentence_answer": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \" <hl> antennae <hl> \" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably."}
{"question": "What is the most widely accepted term for an electrical device that converts electric power into radio waves?", "paragraph": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "answer": "antenna", "sentence": "The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. <hl> Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "paragraph_answer": "The words <hl> antenna <hl> (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term \"aerial\" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.", "sentence_answer": "The words <hl> antenna <hl> (plural: antennas in US English, although both \"antennas\" and \"antennae\" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably."}
{"question": "Who is most associated with the emergence of the word antenna?", "paragraph": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "answer": "Guglielmo Marconi", "sentence": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi . <hl> In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "paragraph_answer": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer <hl> Guglielmo Marconi <hl>. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "sentence_answer": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer <hl> Guglielmo Marconi <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did experimentation with electromagnetic waves begin?", "paragraph": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "answer": "1895", "sentence": "In the summer of 1895 , Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\".", "paragraph_sentence": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. <hl> In the summer of 1895 , Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". <hl> Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "paragraph_answer": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of <hl> 1895 <hl>, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "sentence_answer": "In the summer of <hl> 1895 <hl> , Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\"."}
{"question": "What is a way to increase the strength of a radio transmission?", "paragraph": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "answer": "raising the \"aerial\" wire", "sentence": "Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased.", "paragraph_sentence": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". <hl> Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. <hl> Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "paragraph_answer": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by <hl> raising the \"aerial\" wire <hl> above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "sentence_answer": "Marconi discovered that by <hl> raising the \"aerial\" wire <hl> above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased."}
{"question": "How far was Marconi able to get his signal to go using this technique?", "paragraph": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "answer": "1.5 mi", "sentence": "Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres ( 1.5 mi ).", "paragraph_sentence": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. <hl> Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres ( 1.5 mi ). <hl> In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "paragraph_answer": "The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire \"aerials\". Marconi discovered that by raising the \"aerial\" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (<hl> 1.5 mi <hl>). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.", "sentence_answer": "Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres ( <hl> 1.5 mi <hl> )."}
{"question": "What is essential for the mating of the elements that create radio waves?", "paragraph": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "answer": "Antennas", "sentence": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. <hl> Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Antennas <hl> are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Antennas <hl> are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field."}
{"question": "How fast are signals produced by antenna transmitted?", "paragraph": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "answer": "speed of light", "sentence": "Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. <hl> Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. <hl> Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the <hl> speed of light <hl> with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "sentence_answer": "Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the <hl> speed of light <hl> with almost no transmission loss."}
{"question": "What is one system that uses electromagnetic waves?", "paragraph": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "answer": "mobile telephones", "sentence": "Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones , Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. <hl> Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones , Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. <hl> Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, <hl> mobile telephones <hl>, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "sentence_answer": "Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, <hl> mobile telephones <hl> , Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others."}
{"question": "What mobile locator and direction finder technology takes advantage of radio waves?", "paragraph": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "answer": "GPS", "sentence": "Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS , and radio astronomy.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. <hl> Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS , and radio astronomy. <hl> In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, <hl> GPS <hl>, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "sentence_answer": "Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, <hl> GPS <hl> , and radio astronomy."}
{"question": "What often inconspicuous part of a laptop computer allows for internet usage?", "paragraph": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "answer": "antennas", "sentence": "In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas , although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. <hl> In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas , although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require <hl> antennas <hl>, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).", "sentence_answer": "In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require <hl> antennas <hl> , although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi)."}
{"question": "What is the main element of an omnidirectional antenna?", "paragraph": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "answer": "metal rod", "sentence": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). <hl> A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "paragraph_answer": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a <hl> metal rod <hl> (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "sentence_answer": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a <hl> metal rod <hl> (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long)."}
{"question": "What type of antenna would most likely be a half a wavelength long?", "paragraph": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "answer": "dipole", "sentence": "A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long.", "paragraph_sentence": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). <hl> A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. <hl> Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "paragraph_answer": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A <hl> dipole <hl> antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> dipole <hl> antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long."}
{"question": "In which direction would you expect to find a dipole?", "paragraph": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "answer": "horizontally", "sentence": "Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "paragraph_sentence": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. <hl> Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented <hl> horizontally <hl> in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "sentence_answer": "Dipoles are typically oriented <hl> horizontally <hl> in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null."}
{"question": "What is meant by the area where signals cannot be accepted well along the conductor?", "paragraph": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.", "answer": "null", "sentence": "Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null .", "paragraph_sentence": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. <hl> Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or <hl> null <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or <hl> null <hl> ."}
{"question": "Are basic antennas expensive?", "paragraph": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "answer": "relatively inexpensive", "sentence": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive . <hl> The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "paragraph_answer": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and <hl> relatively inexpensive <hl>. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "sentence_answer": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and <hl> relatively inexpensive <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the foundation most often used when creating new antenna models?", "paragraph": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "answer": "dipole antenna", "sentence": "Both the vertical and dipole antenna s are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Both the vertical and dipole antenna s are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. <hl> The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "paragraph_answer": "Both the vertical and <hl> dipole antenna <hl>s are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "sentence_answer": "Both the vertical and <hl> dipole antenna <hl> s are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive."}
{"question": "What category do vertical antennas fall under?", "paragraph": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "answer": "monopole antenna", "sentence": "The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna .", "paragraph_sentence": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). <hl> The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna . <hl> It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "paragraph_answer": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a <hl> monopole antenna <hl>. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "sentence_answer": "The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a <hl> monopole antenna <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is used to close the circuit of a dipole antenna?", "paragraph": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "answer": "large conductive surface", "sentence": "In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface ) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit.", "paragraph_sentence": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. <hl> In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface ) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. <hl> Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "paragraph_answer": "Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any <hl> large conductive surface <hl>) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.", "sentence_answer": "In this way, the ground (or any <hl> large conductive surface <hl> ) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit."}
{"question": "What are different designs aimed at increasing?", "paragraph": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "answer": "gain of the antenna", "sentence": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna . <hl> This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the <hl> gain of the antenna <hl>. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "sentence_answer": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the <hl> gain of the antenna <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is different from a monopole antenna with most other antenna types?", "paragraph": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "answer": "balanced line", "sentence": "The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. <hl> The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. <hl> Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a <hl> balanced line <hl> (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "sentence_answer": "The vast majority of designs are fed with a <hl> balanced line <hl> (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality."}
{"question": "Gain when referring to an antenna refers to what about radiated power?", "paragraph": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "answer": "concentration", "sentence": "Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. <hl> Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. <hl> The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the <hl> concentration <hl> of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "sentence_answer": "Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the <hl> concentration <hl> of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator."}
{"question": "Where is the power that is distributed originating from?", "paragraph": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)", "answer": "the transmitter", "sentence": "Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source ( the transmitter .)", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. <hl> Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source ( the transmitter .) <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna \"gain\" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (<hl> the transmitter <hl>.)", "sentence_answer": "Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source ( <hl> the transmitter <hl> .)"}
{"question": "How many antenna would make up a phased array?", "paragraph": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "answer": "two or more", "sentence": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. <hl> This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a phased array consists of <hl> two or more <hl> simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "sentence_answer": "For instance, a phased array consists of <hl> two or more <hl> simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network."}
{"question": "What determines if the antenna creates a broadside array or an end fire array?", "paragraph": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "answer": "relative phase", "sentence": "Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements).", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. <hl> Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). <hl> Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the <hl> relative phase <hl> introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "sentence_answer": "Depending on the <hl> relative phase <hl> introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements)."}
{"question": "What are the two standard antenna types?", "paragraph": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "answer": "omnidirectional or weakly directional", "sentence": "Antenna arrays may employ any basic ( omnidirectional or weakly directional ) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas.", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). <hl> Antenna arrays may employ any basic ( omnidirectional or weakly directional ) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. <hl> These elements are often identical.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (<hl> omnidirectional or weakly directional <hl>) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "sentence_answer": "Antenna arrays may employ any basic ( <hl> omnidirectional or weakly directional <hl> ) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas."}
{"question": "How are antennas oriented when arranged with specific spacing?", "paragraph": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "answer": "parallel", "sentence": "This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing.", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. <hl> This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. <hl> Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of <hl> parallel <hl> dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a \"broadside array\" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an \"end-fire array\" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.", "sentence_answer": "This often involves a number of <hl> parallel <hl> dipole antennas with a certain spacing."}
{"question": "What type of antenna formation is made up of multiple dipole elements of varying lengths?", "paragraph": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "answer": "log-periodic dipole array", "sentence": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. <hl> The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "paragraph_answer": "However a <hl> log-periodic dipole array <hl> consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "sentence_answer": "However a <hl> log-periodic dipole array <hl> consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas."}
{"question": "What is the benefit of this formation type?", "paragraph": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "answer": "extremely wide bandwidth", "sentence": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth : these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth : these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. <hl> The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "paragraph_answer": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an <hl> extremely wide bandwidth <hl>: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "sentence_answer": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an <hl> extremely wide bandwidth <hl> : these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas."}
{"question": "What is a variation of this antenna type?", "paragraph": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "answer": "Yagi-Uda Antenna", "sentence": "On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth.", "paragraph_sentence": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). <hl> On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. <hl> The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "paragraph_answer": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the <hl> Yagi-Uda Antenna <hl> (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "sentence_answer": "On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the <hl> Yagi-Uda Antenna <hl> (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth."}
{"question": "What is the main application of these set ups?", "paragraph": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "answer": "television reception", "sentence": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. <hl> The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "paragraph_answer": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for <hl> television reception <hl> in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered \"active elements\" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply \"Yagi\"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called \"directors\" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) \"reflector\" on the opposite side of the active element.", "sentence_answer": "However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for <hl> television reception <hl> in fringe areas."}
{"question": "For radio broadcast that one would hear in their car what type of towers are used?", "paragraph": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "answer": "vertical", "sentence": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. <hl> For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "paragraph_answer": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of <hl> vertical <hl> towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "sentence_answer": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of <hl> vertical <hl> towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land."}
{"question": "If one wished to take an antenna to different locations, which type would be best?", "paragraph": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "answer": "short vertical antenna", "sentence": "For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching.", "paragraph_sentence": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. <hl> For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. <hl> With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "paragraph_answer": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a <hl> short vertical antenna <hl> or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "sentence_answer": "For non directional portable use, a <hl> short vertical antenna <hl> or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching."}
{"question": "Why is this specific antenna type used?", "paragraph": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "answer": "achieve directionality", "sentence": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. <hl> For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "paragraph_answer": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to <hl> achieve directionality <hl> and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "sentence_answer": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to <hl> achieve directionality <hl> and they will occupy large areas of land."}
{"question": "What is a problem one might encounter when using a portable antenna?", "paragraph": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "answer": "impedance matching", "sentence": "For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching .", "paragraph_sentence": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. <hl> For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching . <hl> With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "paragraph_answer": "At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of <hl> impedance matching <hl>. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.", "sentence_answer": "For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of <hl> impedance matching <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is mainly responsible for the connection of the antenna to its end destinations?", "paragraph": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "answer": "antenna lead-in", "sentence": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. <hl> The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "paragraph_answer": "An <hl> antenna lead-in <hl> is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "sentence_answer": "An <hl> antenna lead-in <hl> is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver."}
{"question": "What is the group of elements used to join the elements of an antenna?", "paragraph": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "answer": "antenna feed", "sentence": "The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line.", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. <hl> The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. <hl> In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The <hl> antenna feed <hl> may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> antenna feed <hl> may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line."}
{"question": "What are the type of antennas used with satellite television called?", "paragraph": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "answer": "aperture antenna", "sentence": "In a so-called aperture antenna , such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system.", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. <hl> In a so-called aperture antenna , such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. <hl> A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called <hl> aperture antenna <hl>, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "sentence_answer": "In a so-called <hl> aperture antenna <hl> , such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system."}
{"question": "What can be used in place of a standard transmission line?", "paragraph": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "answer": "microwave antenna", "sentence": "A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. <hl> A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the \"feed\" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A <hl> microwave antenna <hl> may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> microwave antenna <hl> may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line."}
{"question": "Monopole antennas consist of what element?", "paragraph": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "answer": "metal rod", "sentence": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod , often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod , often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. <hl> One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "paragraph_answer": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a <hl> metal rod <hl>, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "sentence_answer": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a <hl> metal rod <hl> , often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane."}
{"question": "What are small monopoles used as?", "paragraph": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "answer": "nondirectional antennas", "sentence": "Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "paragraph_sentence": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. <hl> Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as <hl> nondirectional antennas <hl> on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "sentence_answer": "Small monopoles are used as <hl> nondirectional antennas <hl> on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands."}
{"question": "What the most common form?", "paragraph": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "answer": "quarter-wave monopole", "sentence": "The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane.", "paragraph_sentence": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. <hl> The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. <hl> Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "paragraph_answer": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the <hl> quarter-wave monopole <hl> which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "sentence_answer": "The most common form is the <hl> quarter-wave monopole <hl> which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane."}
{"question": "What has vertical polarization?", "paragraph": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "answer": "Monopoles", "sentence": "Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. <hl> Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. <hl> The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "paragraph_answer": "Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. <hl> Monopoles <hl> have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Monopoles <hl> have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization."}
{"question": "What is the most widley used antenna class?", "paragraph": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "answer": "dipole antenna", "sentence": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. <hl> A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "The most widely used class of antenna, a <hl> dipole antenna <hl> consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "sentence_answer": "The most widely used class of antenna, a <hl> dipole antenna <hl> consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each."}
{"question": "What radiates two lobes perpendicular to the antennas axis?", "paragraph": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "answer": "horizontal dipole", "sentence": "A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. <hl> A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. <hl> A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A <hl> horizontal dipole <hl> radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> horizontal dipole <hl> radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis."}
{"question": "Besides low gain antennas, what is also used as driven elements in complicated higher gain types of antennas?", "paragraph": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "answer": "dipoles", "sentence": "Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. <hl> Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, <hl> dipoles <hl> are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "sentence_answer": "Used individually as low gain antennas, <hl> dipoles <hl> are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas."}
{"question": "How much gain does a half-wave dipole have?", "paragraph": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "answer": "2.15 dBi", "sentence": "A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi .", "paragraph_sentence": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. <hl> A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi . <hl> Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of <hl> 2.15 dBi <hl>. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.", "sentence_answer": "A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of <hl> 2.15 dBi <hl> ."}
{"question": "What must be true of the antenna and transmission medium for the repiprocity rule to apply ?", "paragraph": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "answer": "linear and reciprocal", "sentence": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal . <hl> Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "paragraph_answer": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are <hl> linear and reciprocal <hl>. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "sentence_answer": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are <hl> linear and reciprocal <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is one material that does not have this quality?", "paragraph": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "answer": "ferrite", "sentence": "Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite .", "paragraph_sentence": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. <hl> Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite . <hl> These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "paragraph_answer": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as <hl> ferrite <hl>. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "sentence_answer": "Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as <hl> ferrite <hl> ."}
{"question": "How can the lack of this quality be used in an everyday way?", "paragraph": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "answer": "radar", "sentence": "These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar .", "paragraph_sentence": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. <hl> These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like <hl> radar <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like <hl> radar <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is called when the direction of the elctrical current does not make a difference to the current?", "paragraph": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "answer": "Reciprocal", "sentence": "Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction.", "paragraph_sentence": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. <hl> Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. <hl> Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "paragraph_answer": "A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. <hl> Reciprocal <hl> (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Reciprocal <hl> (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction."}
{"question": "How could one deide what type of antenna is nedded for a project?", "paragraph": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "answer": "performance measures", "sentence": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. <hl> Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are characterized by a number of <hl> performance measures <hl> which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "sentence_answer": "Antennas are characterized by a number of <hl> performance measures <hl> which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application."}
{"question": "What would most likely be the main concern in making this decision?", "paragraph": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "answer": "directional characteristics", "sentence": "Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. <hl> Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. <hl> Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the <hl> directional characteristics <hl> (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "sentence_answer": "Chief among these relate to the <hl> directional characteristics <hl> (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain."}
{"question": "How would you distribute power to allow for a greater gain?", "paragraph": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "answer": "horizontal directions", "sentence": "Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions , sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. <hl> Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions , sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. <hl> The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the <hl> horizontal directions <hl>, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "sentence_answer": "Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the <hl> horizontal directions <hl> , sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground."}
{"question": "What is often the most imprtant crediting factor of antennas?", "paragraph": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "answer": "efficiency", "sentence": "The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency , and is often the primary figure of merit.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. <hl> The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency , and is often the primary figure of merit. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's <hl> efficiency <hl>, and is often the primary figure of merit.", "sentence_answer": "The antenna's power gain (or simply \"gain\") also takes into account the antenna's <hl> efficiency <hl> , and is often the primary figure of merit."}
{"question": "Which antenna type would be best for a project requiring a specific frequency?", "paragraph": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "answer": "Resonant antennas", "sentence": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. <hl> A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Resonant antennas <hl> are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Resonant antennas <hl> are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application."}
{"question": "How could an antenna be made to coordinate with the needed frequency?", "paragraph": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "answer": "built or ordered", "sentence": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. <hl> A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "paragraph_answer": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be <hl> built or ordered <hl> to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "sentence_answer": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be <hl> built or ordered <hl> to match the frequency range of the intended application."}
{"question": "What factor would result in a desired feedback independence?", "paragraph": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "answer": "particular antenna design", "sentence": "A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance.", "paragraph_sentence": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. <hl> A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. <hl> While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "paragraph_answer": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A <hl> particular antenna design <hl> will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> particular antenna design <hl> will present a particular feedpoint impedance."}
{"question": "If you were unable to choose the antenna you wanted how could you still achieve this result?", "paragraph": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "answer": "matching network", "sentence": "While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "paragraph_sentence": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. <hl> While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a <hl> matching network <hl> while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).", "sentence_answer": "While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a <hl> matching network <hl> while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency)."}
{"question": "What is the essential difference in radio waves transmitted by an antenna?", "paragraph": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "answer": "polarization", "sentence": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. <hl> The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular <hl> polarization <hl> which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "sentence_answer": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular <hl> polarization <hl> which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases."}
{"question": "How can this be adjusted more easily than changing antenna types?", "paragraph": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "answer": "tilting the axis", "sentence": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. <hl> The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by <hl> tilting the axis <hl> of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "sentence_answer": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by <hl> tilting the axis <hl> of the antenna in many (but not all) cases."}
{"question": "When might the size of an antenna cause an issue?", "paragraph": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "answer": "at lower frequencies", "sentence": "The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths).", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. <hl> The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). <hl> Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly <hl> at lower frequencies <hl> (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "sentence_answer": "The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly <hl> at lower frequencies <hl> (longer wavelengths)."}
{"question": "What size antenna would not be good when the antenna needs to be directional?", "paragraph": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "answer": "small", "sentence": "Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional.", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). <hl> Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. <hl> Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be <hl> small <hl> compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "sentence_answer": "Antennas that are required to be <hl> small <hl> compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional."}
{"question": "There is a relationship between the size of the antenna and the size of the wavelength with what antenna type?", "paragraph": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "answer": "Highly directional", "sentence": "Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength.", "paragraph_sentence": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). <hl> Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. <hl> Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "paragraph_answer": "An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). <hl> Highly directional <hl> antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Highly directional <hl> antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength."}
{"question": "What particle's migration does the resonance principle rely on?", "paragraph": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "answer": "electrons", "sentence": "This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons , which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change.", "paragraph_sentence": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. <hl> This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons , which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. <hl> In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "paragraph_answer": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving <hl> electrons <hl>, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "sentence_answer": "This relies on the behaviour of moving <hl> electrons <hl> , which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change."}
{"question": "What is the basis for the way most antennas are developed?", "paragraph": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "answer": "resonance principle", "sentence": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle . <hl> This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "paragraph_answer": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the <hl> resonance principle <hl>. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "sentence_answer": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the <hl> resonance principle <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of surface is formed by the tip of a conductor?", "paragraph": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "answer": "reflective", "sentence": "In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line.", "paragraph_sentence": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. <hl> In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. <hl> The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "paragraph_answer": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the <hl> reflective <hl> surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "sentence_answer": "In these designs, the <hl> reflective <hl> surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line."}
{"question": "How would you place the conductor in relation to the signal you wished to obtain?", "paragraph": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "answer": "perpendicular", "sentence": "The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "paragraph_sentence": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. <hl> The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is <hl> perpendicular <hl> to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).", "sentence_answer": "The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is <hl> perpendicular <hl> to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna)."}
{"question": "What part of the radio signal creates voltage?", "paragraph": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "answer": "electrical component", "sentence": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. <hl> This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "paragraph_answer": "The radio signal's <hl> electrical component <hl> induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "sentence_answer": "The radio signal's <hl> electrical component <hl> induces a voltage in the conductor."}
{"question": "What would the electric current always gravitate to?", "paragraph": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "answer": "instantaneous field", "sentence": "This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field .", "paragraph_sentence": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. <hl> This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field . <hl> When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "paragraph_answer": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's <hl> instantaneous field <hl>. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "sentence_answer": "This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's <hl> instantaneous field <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the outcome when a curren is reflected>", "paragraph": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "answer": "180 degree change in phase", "sentence": "a 180 degree change in phase .", "paragraph_sentence": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to <hl> a 180 degree change in phase . <hl> If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "paragraph_answer": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a <hl> 180 degree change in phase <hl>. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> 180 degree change in phase <hl> ."}
{"question": "What amount of phase change would return a signal to its originial state?", "paragraph": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "answer": "360 degree", "sentence": "That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. <hl> That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. <hl> The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "paragraph_answer": "The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1\u20444 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total <hl> 360 degree <hl> phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.", "sentence_answer": "That means it has undergone a total <hl> 360 degree <hl> phase change, returning it to the original signal."}
{"question": "What is the most popular antenna type?", "paragraph": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "answer": "half-wave dipole", "sentence": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. <hl> This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "paragraph_answer": "The ordinary <hl> half-wave dipole <hl> is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "sentence_answer": "The ordinary <hl> half-wave dipole <hl> is probably the most widely used antenna design."}
{"question": "What is the current usually beng put into it or pulled out of?", "paragraph": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "answer": "transmission line", "sentence": "The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. <hl> The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. <hl> The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "paragraph_answer": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the <hl> transmission line <hl> while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "sentence_answer": "The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the <hl> transmission line <hl> while the other is pulling it out."}
{"question": "Elements in a half wave dipole and on an identical axis are said to be what?", "paragraph": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "answer": "collinear", "sentence": "This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear ), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. <hl> This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear ), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. <hl> The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "paragraph_answer": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or <hl> collinear <hl>), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "sentence_answer": "This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or <hl> collinear <hl> ), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire."}
{"question": "What antenna type is a portion of the half wave dipole?", "paragraph": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "answer": "Monopoles", "sentence": "Monopoles , which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). <hl> Monopoles , which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. <hl> Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "paragraph_answer": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). <hl> Monopoles <hl>, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Monopoles <hl> , which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large."}
{"question": "What popular type combines more that one antenna?", "paragraph": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "answer": "folded dipole", "sentence": "Another common design is the folded dipole , which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. <hl> Another common design is the folded dipole , which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1\u20444-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1\u20444-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the <hl> folded dipole <hl>, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.", "sentence_answer": "Another common design is the <hl> folded dipole <hl> , which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna."}
{"question": "What frequency are antennas normally designed to be?", "paragraph": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "answer": "f0", "sentence": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0 , and antennas are normally designed to be this size.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0 , and antennas are normally designed to be this size. <hl> However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "paragraph_answer": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, <hl> f0 <hl>, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "sentence_answer": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, <hl> f0 <hl> , and antennas are normally designed to be this size."}
{"question": "What can be added to f0 to create a standing wave pattern?", "paragraph": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "answer": "3f0", "sentence": "However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern.", "paragraph_sentence": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. <hl> However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. <hl> Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "paragraph_answer": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with <hl> 3f0 <hl> (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "sentence_answer": "However, feeding that element with <hl> 3f0 <hl> (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern."}
{"question": "What multiple is essential for wavelengths?", "paragraph": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "answer": "1\u20444", "sentence": "This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength.", "paragraph_sentence": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. <hl> This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. <hl> This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "paragraph_answer": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of <hl> 1\u20444 <hl> wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "sentence_answer": "This is true for all odd multiples of <hl> 1\u20444 <hl> wavelength."}
{"question": "How are waves which are used in the ways discussed controlled?", "paragraph": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "answer": "harmonically", "sentence": "Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.", "paragraph_sentence": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. <hl> Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1\u20443 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3\u20444 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1\u20444 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be <hl> harmonically <hl> operated.", "sentence_answer": "Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be <hl> harmonically <hl> operated."}
{"question": "How do quarter wave elements act in relation to a series relevant electrical element?", "paragraph": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "answer": "imitate", "sentence": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. <hl> At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "paragraph_answer": "The quarter-wave elements <hl> imitate <hl> a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "sentence_answer": "The quarter-wave elements <hl> imitate <hl> a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor."}
{"question": "What frequency develops a current peak?", "paragraph": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "answer": "resonant frequency", "sentence": "At the resonant frequency , the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed.", "paragraph_sentence": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. <hl> At the resonant frequency , the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. <hl> In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "paragraph_answer": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the <hl> resonant frequency <hl>, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "sentence_answer": "At the <hl> resonant frequency <hl> , the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed."}
{"question": "How would you describe a current that has maximum efficiency?", "paragraph": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "answer": "minimum reactance", "sentence": "In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance , generating the maximum current for minimum voltage.", "paragraph_sentence": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. <hl> In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance , generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. <hl> This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "paragraph_answer": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has <hl> minimum reactance <hl>, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "sentence_answer": "In electrical terms, this means the element has <hl> minimum reactance <hl> , generating the maximum current for minimum voltage."}
{"question": "What could be the best possible output versus input ratio?", "paragraph": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "answer": "lossless", "sentence": "Contrary to an ideal ( lossless ) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "paragraph_sentence": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. <hl> Contrary to an ideal ( lossless ) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (<hl> lossless <hl>) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.", "sentence_answer": "Contrary to an ideal ( <hl> lossless <hl> ) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses."}
{"question": "For use with more than one channel changes are made to increase what property?", "paragraph": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "answer": "impedance matching", "sentence": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. <hl> By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible to use the <hl> impedance matching <hl> concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "sentence_answer": "It is possible to use the <hl> impedance matching <hl> concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant."}
{"question": "What could be coupled with an antenna to form pure resistance?", "paragraph": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "answer": "inductance", "sentence": "By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. <hl> By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. <hl> Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an <hl> inductance <hl> in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "sentence_answer": "By adding an <hl> inductance <hl> in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line."}
{"question": "What element would this pure resistance be coupled with?", "paragraph": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "answer": "transmission line", "sentence": "By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line .", "paragraph_sentence": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. <hl> By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line . <hl> Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the <hl> transmission line <hl>. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "sentence_answer": "By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the <hl> transmission line <hl> ."}
{"question": "What phrase describes the process of purposely using a lower standing antenna at a less than peak frequency?", "paragraph": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.", "answer": "electrical lengthening", "sentence": "Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening .", "paragraph_sentence": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. <hl> Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1\u20444 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed <hl> electrical lengthening <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed <hl> electrical lengthening <hl> ."}
{"question": "If your were unable to match the source frequency with the design frequency of the antenna what could you use?", "paragraph": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "answer": "resonant multiples", "sentence": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples . <hl> This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "paragraph_answer": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the <hl> resonant multiples <hl>. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "sentence_answer": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the <hl> resonant multiples <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the most common application of resonant antennas?", "paragraph": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "answer": "single target signal", "sentence": "This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal .", "paragraph_sentence": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. <hl> This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal . <hl> They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "paragraph_answer": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a <hl> single target signal <hl>. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "sentence_answer": "This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a <hl> single target signal <hl> ."}
{"question": "What antenna setup type is generally used for TV viewing?", "paragraph": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "answer": "resonant", "sentence": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. <hl> This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "paragraph_answer": "The end result is that the <hl> resonant <hl> antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "sentence_answer": "The end result is that the <hl> resonant <hl> antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples."}
{"question": "For use with more than one channel changes are made to increase what property?", "paragraph": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "answer": "bandwidth", "sentence": "They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth , or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "paragraph_sentence": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. <hl> They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth , or entirely different antenna designs are used. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the <hl> bandwidth <hl>, or entirely different antenna designs are used.", "sentence_answer": "They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the <hl> bandwidth <hl> , or entirely different antenna designs are used."}
{"question": "What accounts for the geometry involved in the use of an antenna?", "paragraph": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "answer": "inverse square law", "sentence": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law , and this leads to the concept of effective area.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law , and this leads to the concept of effective area. <hl> This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "paragraph_answer": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the <hl> inverse square law <hl>, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "sentence_answer": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the <hl> inverse square law <hl> , and this leads to the concept of effective area."}
{"question": "How is the compactness of the signal measured?", "paragraph": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "answer": "Watts per square metre", "sentence": "This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre .", "paragraph_sentence": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. <hl> This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre . <hl> A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "paragraph_answer": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in <hl> Watts per square metre <hl>. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "sentence_answer": "This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in <hl> Watts per square metre <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of project would call for more than one element used together?", "paragraph": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "answer": "higher performance", "sentence": "In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "paragraph_sentence": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. <hl> In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where <hl> higher performance <hl> is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.", "sentence_answer": "In roles where <hl> higher performance <hl> is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together."}
{"question": "What is a half wave dipole need to be coupled with in most instances?", "paragraph": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "answer": "feed point", "sentence": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point , but instead shorted out.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point , but instead shorted out. <hl> Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "paragraph_answer": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a <hl> feed point <hl>, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "sentence_answer": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a <hl> feed point <hl> , but instead shorted out."}
{"question": "What part of the current is usually strongest?", "paragraph": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "answer": "center", "sentence": "But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center .", "paragraph_sentence": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. <hl> But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center . <hl> Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "paragraph_answer": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the <hl> center <hl>. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "sentence_answer": "But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the <hl> center <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does this result in?", "paragraph": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "answer": "standing wave pattern", "sentence": "a standing wave pattern .", "paragraph_sentence": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create <hl> a standing wave pattern . <hl> Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "paragraph_answer": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a <hl> standing wave pattern <hl>. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> standing wave pattern <hl> ."}
{"question": "Element used to provide support to the original signal are called?", "paragraph": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.", "answer": "passive elements", "sentence": "Elements used in this way are known as passive elements .", "paragraph_sentence": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. <hl> Elements used in this way are known as passive elements . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1\u20442-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as <hl> passive elements <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Elements used in this way are known as <hl> passive elements <hl> ."}
{"question": "What can take advantage of these elements to add more gain?", "paragraph": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "answer": "Yagi-Uda array", "sentence": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. <hl> It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "paragraph_answer": "A <hl> Yagi-Uda array <hl> uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> Yagi-Uda array <hl> uses passive elements to greatly increase gain."}
{"question": "Does this device improve the operation of the antenna?", "paragraph": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "answer": "does not contribute", "sentence": "It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation.", "paragraph_sentence": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. <hl> It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. <hl> The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "paragraph_answer": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and <hl> does not contribute <hl> to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "sentence_answer": "It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and <hl> does not contribute <hl> to the antenna's operation."}
{"question": "What is the name for passive elements nearer to the source of the signal?", "paragraph": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "answer": "directors", "sentence": "Passive elements are arranged in front ( directors ) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom.", "paragraph_sentence": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. <hl> Passive elements are arranged in front ( directors ) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. <hl> The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "paragraph_answer": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (<hl> directors <hl>) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "sentence_answer": "Passive elements are arranged in front ( <hl> directors <hl> ) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom."}
{"question": "Adding more elements to a Yagi-Uda would have what effect?", "paragraph": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "answer": "increasingly directional", "sentence": "The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional , and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases.", "paragraph_sentence": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. <hl> The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional , and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. <hl> However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "paragraph_answer": "A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes <hl> increasingly directional <hl>, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.", "sentence_answer": "The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes <hl> increasingly directional <hl> , and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases."}
{"question": "What can be paired with transmission lines to create phases that would support output?", "paragraph": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "answer": "active elements", "sentence": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. <hl> The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "paragraph_answer": "It is also possible to use multiple <hl> active elements <hl> and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "sentence_answer": "It is also possible to use multiple <hl> active elements <hl> and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output."}
{"question": "What is the most common element used to create a single in phase signal?", "paragraph": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "answer": "half-wave dipoles", "sentence": "The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles , spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. <hl> The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles , spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. <hl> The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "paragraph_answer": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often <hl> half-wave dipoles <hl>, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "sentence_answer": "The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often <hl> half-wave dipoles <hl> , spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output."}
{"question": "What must be precise in order to create this signal at output?", "paragraph": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "answer": "phase lengths", "sentence": "The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. <hl> The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. <hl> The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "paragraph_answer": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific <hl> phase lengths <hl> to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "sentence_answer": "The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific <hl> phase lengths <hl> to produce a single in-phase signal at the output."}
{"question": "What is a more complicated occurrence of the single in-phase producing antenna?", "paragraph": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "answer": "log-periodic", "sentence": "The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. <hl> The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The <hl> log-periodic <hl> antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> log-periodic <hl> antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output."}
{"question": "If you wanted to somehow clone the original signal you could use?", "paragraph": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "answer": "extended conductive surface", "sentence": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface , in a fashion similar to a mirror.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface , in a fashion similar to a mirror. <hl> This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "paragraph_answer": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an <hl> extended conductive surface <hl>, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "sentence_answer": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an <hl> extended conductive surface <hl> , in a fashion similar to a mirror."}
{"question": "What effect would the use of a reflector have on a signal?", "paragraph": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "answer": "increase", "sentence": "This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase.", "paragraph_sentence": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. <hl> This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. <hl> Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "paragraph_answer": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to <hl> increase <hl> signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "sentence_answer": "This effect can also be used to <hl> increase <hl> signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase."}
{"question": "What allowance can be made for gaps without loss of performance?", "paragraph": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "answer": "less than 1\u204410", "sentence": "Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome.", "paragraph_sentence": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. <hl> Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. <hl> For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "paragraph_answer": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps <hl> less than 1\u204410 <hl> generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "sentence_answer": "Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps <hl> less than 1\u204410 <hl> generally have little effect on the outcome."}
{"question": "What is the most recognized type of an antenna that has its basis in reflection?", "paragraph": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "answer": "parabolic reflector", "sentence": "The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "paragraph_sentence": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. <hl> The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1\u204410 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The <hl> parabolic reflector <hl> is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> parabolic reflector <hl> is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone."}
{"question": "What magnifies the small radiation resistance of a loop?", "paragraph": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "answer": "a capacitor at the frequency of operation", "sentence": "Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. <hl> Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] <hl> This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "paragraph_answer": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with <hl> a capacitor at the frequency of operation <hl> not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "sentence_answer": "Resonating such an inductor with <hl> a capacitor at the frequency of operation <hl> not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed]"}
{"question": "What is resonated by a capacitor along with the receiver tuning that maintains resonance over the AM broadcast band?", "paragraph": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "answer": "small ferrite loop antenna", "sentence": "Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "paragraph_sentence": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. <hl> Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a <hl> small ferrite loop antenna <hl> resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "sentence_answer": "Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a <hl> small ferrite loop antenna <hl> resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band"}
{"question": "What is used in most AM broadcaster receivers?", "paragraph": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "answer": "loop", "sentence": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. <hl> Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "paragraph_answer": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small <hl> loop <hl> antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "sentence_answer": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small <hl> loop <hl> antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor."}
{"question": "When using a small loop antenna at a low frequency, what may occur?", "paragraph": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "answer": "impedance matching", "sentence": "Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. <hl> Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "paragraph_answer": "Another extreme case of <hl> impedance matching <hl> occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band", "sentence_answer": "Another extreme case of <hl> impedance matching <hl> occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor."}
{"question": "What is left after antenna tuning?", "paragraph": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "answer": "resistive impedance", "sentence": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). <hl> Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "paragraph_answer": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a <hl> resistive impedance <hl> which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a <hl> resistive impedance <hl> which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line)."}
{"question": "Where does cancellation of any reactance seen?", "paragraph": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "answer": "antenna terminals", "sentence": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals , leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals , leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). <hl> Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "paragraph_answer": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the <hl> antenna terminals <hl>, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the <hl> antenna terminals <hl> , leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line)."}
{"question": "What can be used to cancel a inductibe reactance or residual capacitative?", "paragraph": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "answer": "parallel capacitance", "sentence": "On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. <hl> On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or <hl> parallel capacitance <hl> can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or <hl> parallel capacitance <hl> can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively."}
{"question": "What is an antenna designed to have?", "paragraph": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "answer": "purely resistive feedpoint", "sentence": "Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at.", "paragraph_sentence": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). <hl> Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. <hl> In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "paragraph_answer": "Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a <hl> purely resistive feedpoint <hl> impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be \"trimmed\" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "Although an antenna may be designed to have a <hl> purely resistive feedpoint <hl> impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at."}
{"question": "What type of antenna has impedance at a specific frequency?", "paragraph": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "answer": "resonant", "sentence": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. <hl> An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "paragraph_answer": "Although a <hl> resonant <hl> antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "sentence_answer": "Although a <hl> resonant <hl> antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies."}
{"question": "What term can be used to refer to the usable spectrum of an antennas frequency?", "paragraph": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "answer": "bandwidth", "sentence": "An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. <hl> An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. <hl> Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "paragraph_answer": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's <hl> bandwidth <hl> specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "sentence_answer": "An antenna's <hl> bandwidth <hl> specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match."}
{"question": "What causes the frequencies outside of the bandwidth to be unusable?", "paragraph": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "answer": "impedance match", "sentence": "An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match .", "paragraph_sentence": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. <hl> An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match . <hl> Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "paragraph_answer": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor <hl> impedance match <hl>. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "sentence_answer": "An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor <hl> impedance match <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is lessened by the Yagi-Uda design?", "paragraph": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "answer": "directivity", "sentence": "Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity , thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. <hl> Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity , thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's <hl> directivity <hl>, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.", "sentence_answer": "Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's <hl> directivity <hl> , thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching."}
{"question": "What characteristic of the conductor changes the amount of reactance?", "paragraph": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "answer": "diameter", "sentence": "It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used.", "paragraph_sentence": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. <hl> It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. <hl> A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "paragraph_answer": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the <hl> diameter <hl> of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "sentence_answer": "It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the <hl> diameter <hl> of the conductor used."}
{"question": "What characteristic would be better if it were steady?", "paragraph": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "answer": "reactance", "sentence": "It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used.", "paragraph_sentence": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. <hl> It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. <hl> A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "paragraph_answer": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of <hl> reactance <hl> seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "sentence_answer": "It turns out that the amount of <hl> reactance <hl> seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used."}
{"question": "What would be used to create a half wave or quarter wave dipole?", "paragraph": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "answer": "A long thin wire", "sentence": "A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance.", "paragraph_sentence": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. <hl> A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. <hl> Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "paragraph_answer": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. <hl> A long thin wire <hl> used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> A long thin wire <hl> used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance."}
{"question": "What type of tubes are generally used for sturdier always of antennas?", "paragraph": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "answer": "thick tubes", "sentence": "Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "paragraph_sentence": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. <hl> Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather <hl> thick tubes <hl> are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.", "sentence_answer": "Thus rather <hl> thick tubes <hl> are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays."}
{"question": "What effect do cages have on the spectrum of usable frequencies?", "paragraph": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "answer": "widens", "sentence": "This widens the bandwidth of the resonance.", "paragraph_sentence": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. <hl> This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. <hl> On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This <hl> widens <hl> the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "sentence_answer": "This <hl> widens <hl> the bandwidth of the resonance."}
{"question": "What type of tubes are generally used for sturdier always of antennas?", "paragraph": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "answer": "cages", "sentence": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. <hl> This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with <hl> cages <hl> to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "sentence_answer": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with <hl> cages <hl> to simulate a thicker element."}
{"question": "How could one achieve the task of creating an antenna that can be Used over various bands?", "paragraph": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "answer": "connecting resonant elements", "sentence": "This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel.", "paragraph_sentence": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. <hl> This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. <hl> Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by <hl> connecting resonant elements <hl> for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "sentence_answer": "This can often be accomplished simply by <hl> connecting resonant elements <hl> for the different bands in parallel."}
{"question": "What is an essential for dealing with directing the flow of power?", "paragraph": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "answer": "trap's", "sentence": "At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.", "paragraph_sentence": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. <hl> At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the <hl> trap's <hl> net reactance at that lower frequency.", "sentence_answer": "At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the <hl> trap's <hl> net reactance at that lower frequency."}
{"question": "What is an acknowledgement of the range of possible direction for and antenna?", "paragraph": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "answer": "gain", "sentence": "A high- gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. <hl> A high- gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. <hl> The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "paragraph_answer": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-<hl> gain <hl> antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "sentence_answer": "A high- <hl> gain <hl> antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle."}
{"question": "What is another way to refer to an antennas gain?", "paragraph": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "answer": "power gain", "sentence": "The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. <hl> The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. <hl> This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "paragraph_answer": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or <hl> power gain <hl> of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "sentence_answer": "The antenna gain, or <hl> power gain <hl> of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions."}
{"question": "What is the meaning of intensity?", "paragraph": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "answer": "power per unit surface area", "sentence": "The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity ( power per unit surface area ) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. <hl> The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity ( power per unit surface area ) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. <hl> This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "paragraph_answer": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (<hl> power per unit surface area <hl>) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "sentence_answer": "The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity ( <hl> power per unit surface area <hl> ) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions."}
{"question": "What type of an antenna would offer the same level of power to each possible destination?", "paragraph": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "answer": "isotropic", "sentence": "The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. <hl> The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. <hl> This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "paragraph_answer": "Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical <hl> isotropic <hl> antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called \"decibels-isotropic\" (dBi)", "sentence_answer": "The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area) radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical <hl> isotropic <hl> antenna which radiates equal power in all directions."}
{"question": "Antennas with higher gain have what positive feature?", "paragraph": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "answer": "longer range", "sentence": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. <hl> An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "paragraph_answer": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of <hl> longer range <hl> and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "sentence_answer": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of <hl> longer range <hl> and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna."}
{"question": "What is a measure of how much efficient is improved by adding a device designed to make something stronger?", "paragraph": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "answer": "amplifier gain", "sentence": "Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain , a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "paragraph_sentence": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. <hl> Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain , a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with <hl> amplifier gain <hl>, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "sentence_answer": "Antenna gain should not be confused with <hl> amplifier gain <hl> , a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device."}
{"question": "Dish network Tv takes example of what type of antenna?", "paragraph": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "answer": "parabolic dish", "sentence": "An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna.", "paragraph_sentence": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. <hl> An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. <hl> Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "paragraph_answer": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a <hl> parabolic dish <hl> such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "sentence_answer": "An example of a high-gain antenna is a <hl> parabolic dish <hl> such as a satellite television antenna."}
{"question": "What type of antenna would be best if placement was tricky?", "paragraph": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "answer": "Low-gain", "sentence": "Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant.", "paragraph_sentence": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. <hl> Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. <hl> An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "paragraph_answer": "High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. <hl> Low-gain <hl> antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Low-gain <hl> antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant."}
{"question": "What must the relationship of an antenna and the receiving area be due to reciprocity?", "paragraph": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "answer": "proportional", "sentence": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. <hl> Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "paragraph_answer": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be <hl> proportional <hl> to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "sentence_answer": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be <hl> proportional <hl> to its effective area when used for receiving."}
{"question": "what could an antenna with complete electrical efficiency be said to have?", "paragraph": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "answer": "no loss", "sentence": "Consider an antenna with no loss , that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. <hl> Consider an antenna with no loss , that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. <hl> It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "paragraph_answer": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with <hl> no loss <hl>, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "sentence_answer": "Consider an antenna with <hl> no loss <hl> , that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%."}
{"question": "Another term for the effective area is?", "paragraph": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "answer": "Aeff", "sentence": "Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. <hl> Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by: <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area <hl> Aeff <hl> in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "sentence_answer": "Therefore, the effective area <hl> Aeff <hl> in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:"}
{"question": "hat could an antenna with complete electrical efficiency be said to have?", "paragraph": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "answer": "1", "sentence": "Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 1 00%.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. <hl> Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 1 00%. <hl> It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "paragraph_answer": "Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is <hl> 1 <hl>00%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to \u03bb2/4\u03c0, the wavelength squared divided by 4\u03c0. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:", "sentence_answer": "Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is <hl> 1 <hl> 00%."}
{"question": "A plot of the radiation behaviors of an antenna would show what?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "answer": "relative field strength", "sentence": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. <hl> It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the <hl> relative field strength <hl> of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "sentence_answer": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the <hl> relative field strength <hl> of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles."}
{"question": "What type of pictoral aid is often used to show this?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "answer": "three-dimensional graph", "sentence": "a three-dimensional graph , or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by <hl> a three-dimensional graph , or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. <hl> The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a <hl> three-dimensional graph <hl>, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> three-dimensional graph <hl> , or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections."}
{"question": "A sphere shows what type of antennas radiation?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "answer": "isotropic", "sentence": "The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. <hl> The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. <hl> Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal <hl> isotropic <hl> antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "sentence_answer": "The pattern of an ideal <hl> isotropic <hl> antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere."}
{"question": "Dipoles are considered to be what antenna type?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "answer": "nondirectional", "sentence": "Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. <hl> Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many <hl> nondirectional <hl> antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "sentence_answer": "Many <hl> nondirectional <hl> antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut."}
{"question": "What would an omnidirectional antenna look like if plotted?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.", "answer": "donut", "sentence": "Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut .", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. <hl> Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or <hl> donut <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or <hl> donut <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the term that refers to areas where an antennas radiation is zero?", "paragraph": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "answer": "nulls", "sentence": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \" nulls \", angles where the radiation falls to zero.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \" nulls \", angles where the radiation falls to zero. <hl> This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"<hl> nulls <hl>\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "sentence_answer": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \" <hl> nulls <hl> \", angles where the radiation falls to zero."}
{"question": "What do radio waves do that account for maxima or nulls in an antenna pattern?", "paragraph": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "answer": "interfere", "sentence": "This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere , causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. <hl> This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere , causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. <hl> In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically <hl> interfere <hl>, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "sentence_answer": "This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically <hl> interfere <hl> , causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase."}
{"question": "If you desired to project radio waves to the south, what part of the antenna would you build larger in that direction?", "paragraph": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "answer": "lobe", "sentence": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \" lobe s\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \" lobe s\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. <hl> This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"<hl> lobe <hl>s\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "sentence_answer": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \" <hl> lobe <hl> s\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero."}
{"question": "What is the main distinction of side lobes?", "paragraph": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "answer": "represent unwanted radiation", "sentence": "The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\".", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". <hl> The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called \"sidelobes\". <hl> The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or \"lobes\" at various angles, separated by \"nulls\", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the \"main lobe\". The other lobes usually <hl> represent unwanted radiation <hl> and are called \"sidelobes\". The axis through the main lobe is called the \"principal axis\" or \"boresight axis\".", "sentence_answer": "The other lobes usually <hl> represent unwanted radiation <hl> and are called \"sidelobes\"."}
{"question": "What is one piece that makes up an antenna system?", "paragraph": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "answer": "radio", "sentence": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system ( radio , feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system ( radio , feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). <hl> At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "paragraph_answer": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (<hl> radio <hl>, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "sentence_answer": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system ( <hl> radio <hl> , feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.)."}
{"question": "What is created by a portion of a radio waves energy reversing?", "paragraph": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "answer": "standing wave", "sentence": "At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line.", "paragraph_sentence": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). <hl> At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. <hl> The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "paragraph_answer": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a <hl> standing wave <hl> in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "sentence_answer": "At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a <hl> standing wave <hl> in the feed line."}
{"question": "A term that refers to the highs and lows of power in electro magnetic waves is?", "paragraph": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "answer": "standing wave ratio", "sentence": "The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR).", "paragraph_sentence": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. <hl> The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). <hl> A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "paragraph_answer": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the <hl> standing wave ratio <hl> (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "sentence_answer": "The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the <hl> standing wave ratio <hl> (SWR)."}
{"question": "Impedance matching makes an important difference in what antenna function?", "paragraph": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "answer": "power transfer", "sentence": "Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.", "paragraph_sentence": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. <hl> Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize <hl> power transfer <hl> through each part of the antenna system.", "sentence_answer": "Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize <hl> power transfer <hl> through each part of the antenna system."}
{"question": "A measure of the power that is useable and the power absorbed by the terminals?", "paragraph": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "answer": "Efficiency", "sentence": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. <hl> The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Efficiency <hl> of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Efficiency <hl> of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals."}
{"question": "What happens to the power that is not absorbed by the antenna?", "paragraph": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "answer": "heat", "sentence": "The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat .", "paragraph_sentence": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. <hl> The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat . <hl> This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "paragraph_answer": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into <hl> heat <hl>. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "sentence_answer": "The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into <hl> heat <hl> ."}
{"question": "What can cause that reaction?", "paragraph": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "answer": "magnetic core losses", "sentence": "This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components.", "paragraph_sentence": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. <hl> This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. <hl> Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "paragraph_answer": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or <hl> magnetic core losses <hl> in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "sentence_answer": "This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or <hl> magnetic core losses <hl> in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components."}
{"question": "What can cause that reaction?", "paragraph": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "answer": "transmitter", "sentence": "Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter , requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "paragraph_sentence": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. <hl> Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter , requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the <hl> transmitter <hl>, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.", "sentence_answer": "Such loss effectively robs power from the <hl> transmitter <hl> , requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength."}
{"question": "What would need to be placed into the transmitter to create ten W oh warmth?", "paragraph": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "answer": "100 W", "sentence": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. <hl> In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers <hl> 100 W <hl> into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "sentence_answer": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers <hl> 100 W <hl> into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat."}
{"question": "What would need to be investigated to determine how much power was radiated?", "paragraph": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "answer": "electrical measurements", "sentence": "How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength.", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). <hl> How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. <hl> Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through <hl> electrical measurements <hl> at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "sentence_answer": "How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through <hl> electrical measurements <hl> at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength."}
{"question": "What factor may play a hand in lessened power from a transmitter?", "paragraph": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "answer": "impedance matching", "sentence": "Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching , which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter.", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. <hl> Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching , which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. <hl> If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from <hl> impedance matching <hl>, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.", "sentence_answer": "Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from <hl> impedance matching <hl> , which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter."}
{"question": "What can increase the feedpoint impedance of a component?", "paragraph": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "answer": "loss resistance", "sentence": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. <hl> That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "paragraph_answer": "However <hl> loss resistance <hl> will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "sentence_answer": "However <hl> loss resistance <hl> will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component."}
{"question": "The addition of Rr and Rloss equals what?", "paragraph": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "answer": "resistance", "sentence": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. <hl> That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "paragraph_answer": "However loss <hl> resistance <hl> will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "sentence_answer": "However loss <hl> resistance <hl> will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component."}
{"question": "What equation an determine an antennas effectiveness?", "paragraph": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "answer": "Rr / (Rr + Rloss)", "sentence": "Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss) .", "paragraph_sentence": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. <hl> Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss) . <hl> Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "paragraph_answer": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to <hl> Rr / (Rr + Rloss) <hl>. Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "sentence_answer": "Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to <hl> Rr / (Rr + Rloss) <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the single factor that can be precisely measured?", "paragraph": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "answer": "total resistance", "sentence": "Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "paragraph_sentence": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). <hl> Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the <hl> total resistance <hl> Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.", "sentence_answer": "Of course only the <hl> total resistance <hl> Rr + Rloss can be directly measured."}
{"question": "What is the median level for measuring atmospheric noise?", "paragraph": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "answer": "thermal noise floor", "sentence": "For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor .", "paragraph_sentence": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. <hl> For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor . <hl> Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "paragraph_answer": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the <hl> thermal noise floor <hl>. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "sentence_answer": "For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the <hl> thermal noise floor <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what type of programs would low efficiency antennas not make a difference in effectiveness?", "paragraph": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "answer": "receiving", "sentence": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. <hl> The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "paragraph_answer": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a <hl> receiving <hl> antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "sentence_answer": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a <hl> receiving <hl> antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above."}
{"question": "At lesser frequencies what can account for incorrect assumptions about efficiency?", "paragraph": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "answer": "man-made noise", "sentence": "At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency.", "paragraph_sentence": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. <hl> At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. <hl> For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "paragraph_answer": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or <hl> man-made noise <hl> can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "sentence_answer": "At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or <hl> man-made noise <hl> can mask antenna inefficiency."}
{"question": "What is SNR?", "paragraph": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "answer": "signal to noise ratio", "sentence": "The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).", "paragraph_sentence": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. <hl> The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in <hl> signal to noise ratio <hl> (SNR).", "sentence_answer": "The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in <hl> signal to noise ratio <hl> (SNR)."}
{"question": "What else is also known as power gain?", "paragraph": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "answer": "antenna gain", "sentence": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. <hl> Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "paragraph_answer": "The definition of <hl> antenna gain <hl> or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "sentence_answer": "The definition of <hl> antenna gain <hl> or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency."}
{"question": "What is used to signal toward a reciever?", "paragraph": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "answer": "transmitter", "sentence": "Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well.", "paragraph_sentence": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. <hl> Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. <hl> This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "paragraph_answer": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a <hl> transmitter <hl> of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "sentence_answer": "Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a <hl> transmitter <hl> of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well."}
{"question": "Which gain does not iclude the effect of an antenna?", "paragraph": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "answer": "directive gain", "sentence": "In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency.", "paragraph_sentence": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. <hl> In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. <hl> The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "paragraph_answer": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the <hl> directive gain <hl> which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "sentence_answer": "In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the <hl> directive gain <hl> which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency."}
{"question": "Wats divided by the antennas efficiency?", "paragraph": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "answer": "published gain", "sentence": "The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "paragraph_sentence": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. <hl> The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the <hl> published gain <hl> divided by the antenna's efficiency.", "sentence_answer": "The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the <hl> published gain <hl> divided by the antenna's efficiency."}
{"question": "Small and minimal frequency antennas are know to be what?", "paragraph": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "answer": "inefficient", "sentence": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). <hl> Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "paragraph_answer": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably <hl> inefficient <hl> (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "sentence_answer": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably <hl> inefficient <hl> (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas)."}
{"question": "What is added to to increase ability for reception?", "paragraph": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "answer": "small loop antenna", "sentence": "a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency.", "paragraph_sentence": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including <hl> a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. <hl> Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "paragraph_answer": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a <hl> small loop antenna <hl> for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> small loop antenna <hl> for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency."}
{"question": "How would this antenna rate in the greater scheme of things?", "paragraph": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "answer": "little effect", "sentence": "Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics.", "paragraph_sentence": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. <hl> Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. <hl> Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "paragraph_answer": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has <hl> little effect <hl> on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "sentence_answer": "Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has <hl> little effect <hl> on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics."}
{"question": "When talking about much larger network what effect can reduced antenna effectiveness have?", "paragraph": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.", "answer": "substantial cost", "sentence": "a substantial cost .", "paragraph_sentence": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails <hl> a substantial cost . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530\u20131650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a <hl> substantial cost <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> substantial cost <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many polarizations will a antenna have when mounted vertically?", "paragraph": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "answer": "one", "sentence": "Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.", "paragraph_sentence": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. <hl> Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. <hl> As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "paragraph_answer": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have <hl> one <hl> polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "sentence_answer": "Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have <hl> one <hl> polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally."}
{"question": "What is another name for electric-field?", "paragraph": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "answer": "E-plane", "sentence": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field ( E-plane ) of the radio wave", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field ( E-plane ) of the radio wave <hl> with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "paragraph_answer": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (<hl> E-plane <hl>) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "sentence_answer": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field ( <hl> E-plane <hl> ) of the radio wave"}
{"question": "When is a magnetic fields right angles to a electrical field?", "paragraph": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "answer": "transverse wave", "sentence": "As a transverse wave , the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "paragraph_sentence": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. <hl> As a transverse wave , the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a <hl> transverse wave <hl>, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "sentence_answer": "As a <hl> transverse wave <hl> , the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field."}
{"question": "Whats understood in reference of direction of an E-plane?", "paragraph": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "answer": "polarization", "sentence": "The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. <hl> Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> polarization <hl> of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's \"polarization\" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> polarization <hl> of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality."}
{"question": "What mostly affects polarization?", "paragraph": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "answer": "Reflections", "sentence": "Reflections generally affect polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Reflections generally affect polarization. <hl> For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Reflections <hl> generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Reflections <hl> generally affect polarization."}
{"question": "What reflector can change the waves polarization?", "paragraph": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "answer": "ionosphere", "sentence": "For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "Reflections generally affect polarization. <hl> For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. <hl> Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "paragraph_answer": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the <hl> ionosphere <hl> which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "sentence_answer": "For radio waves, one important reflector is the <hl> ionosphere <hl> which can change the wave's polarization."}
{"question": "What will you be matching with the receiving antenna's polarization?", "paragraph": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "answer": "transmitter", "sentence": "Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "paragraph_sentence": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. <hl> Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the <hl> transmitter <hl> can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "sentence_answer": "Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the <hl> transmitter <hl> can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength."}
{"question": "What stays the same regarding polarization state at the recieving location?", "paragraph": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "answer": "polarized transmissions", "sentence": "For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location.", "paragraph_sentence": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. <hl> For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. <hl> Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "paragraph_answer": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically <hl> polarized transmissions <hl> generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "sentence_answer": "For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically <hl> polarized transmissions <hl> generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location."}
{"question": "What is the name used for signals recieved following reflection by the ionosphere?", "paragraph": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "answer": "a skywave", "sentence": "Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere ( a skywave ), a consistent polarization cannot be expected.", "paragraph_sentence": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. <hl> Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere ( a skywave ), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. <hl> For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "paragraph_answer": "Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (<hl> a skywave <hl>), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.", "sentence_answer": "Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere ( <hl> a skywave <hl> ), a consistent polarization cannot be expected."}
{"question": "Whats predictable about an antenna's geometry?", "paragraph": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "answer": "Polarization", "sentence": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). <hl> An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Polarization <hl> is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Polarization <hl> is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna)."}
{"question": "The polarization of what antenna is essential specification?", "paragraph": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "answer": "commercial antenna", "sentence": "The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "paragraph_sentence": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. <hl> The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a <hl> commercial antenna <hl> is an essential specification.", "sentence_answer": "The polarization of a <hl> commercial antenna <hl> is an essential specification."}
{"question": "Most rooftop antenna's are polarized in which direction?", "paragraph": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "answer": "horizontal", "sentence": "Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization).", "paragraph_sentence": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. <hl> Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). <hl> Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "paragraph_answer": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with <hl> horizontal <hl> elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "sentence_answer": "Antennas with <hl> horizontal <hl> elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization)."}
{"question": "What is a more complicated type of polarization from an antenna's geometry?", "paragraph": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "answer": "quad antenna", "sentence": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna ).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna ). <hl> An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "paragraph_answer": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the <hl> quad antenna <hl>). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.", "sentence_answer": "Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the <hl> quad antenna <hl> )."}
{"question": "What are electrical fields projected on to?", "paragraph": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "answer": "imaginary plane", "sentence": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. <hl> In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "paragraph_answer": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an <hl> imaginary plane <hl> perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "sentence_answer": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an <hl> imaginary plane <hl> perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave."}
{"question": "What is the imagenary plane perpindicular to?", "paragraph": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "answer": "radio wave", "sentence": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave . <hl> In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "paragraph_answer": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the <hl> radio wave <hl>. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "sentence_answer": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the <hl> radio wave <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the name to describe polarization of radio waves varies over times?", "paragraph": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "answer": "elliptical", "sentence": "In the most general case, polarization is elliptical , meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time.", "paragraph_sentence": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. <hl> In the most general case, polarization is elliptical , meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. <hl> Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "paragraph_answer": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is <hl> elliptical <hl>, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "sentence_answer": "In the most general case, polarization is <hl> elliptical <hl> , meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time."}
{"question": "How many directions does the E-plane of the radio waves oscillates back and forth?", "paragraph": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "answer": "one direction", "sentence": "In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction ; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). <hl> In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction ; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. <hl> In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "paragraph_answer": "Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along <hl> one direction <hl>; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the \"thumb in the direction of the propagation\" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.", "sentence_answer": "In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along <hl> one direction <hl> ; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization."}
{"question": "What is the best for an recieving antenna for optimum reception?", "paragraph": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "answer": "match the polarization", "sentence": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. <hl> Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "paragraph_answer": "It is best for the receiving antenna to <hl> match the polarization <hl> of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "sentence_answer": "It is best for the receiving antenna to <hl> match the polarization <hl> of the transmitted wave for optimum reception."}
{"question": "What loses signal strength?", "paragraph": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "answer": "Intermediate matchings", "sentence": "Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. <hl> Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. <hl> A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "paragraph_answer": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. <hl> Intermediate matchings <hl> will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Intermediate matchings <hl> will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch."}
{"question": "What is used to match vertical and horizontal linear polarizations?", "paragraph": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "answer": "circularly polarized", "sentence": "A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. <hl> A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. <hl> Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "paragraph_answer": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A <hl> circularly polarized <hl> antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> circularly polarized <hl> antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations."}
{"question": "A transmission can cause reduction in what?", "paragraph": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "answer": "signal-to-noise ratio", "sentence": "Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. <hl> Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in <hl> signal-to-noise ratio <hl> as the received power has thereby been cut in half.", "sentence_answer": "Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in <hl> signal-to-noise ratio <hl> as the received power has thereby been cut in half."}
{"question": "What requires matching of the empedance to an antenna system?", "paragraph": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "answer": "Maximum power transfer", "sentence": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. <hl> In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Maximum power transfer <hl> requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Maximum power transfer <hl> requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter."}
{"question": "Why would a transmitter have additional adjustments?", "paragraph": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "answer": "\"tweak\" the match", "sentence": "The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match .", "paragraph_sentence": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. <hl> The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match . <hl> When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "paragraph_answer": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to <hl> \"tweak\" the match <hl>. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "sentence_answer": "The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to <hl> \"tweak\" the match <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is SWR?", "paragraph": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "answer": "standing wave ratio", "sentence": "When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "paragraph_sentence": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. <hl> When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the <hl> standing wave ratio <hl> (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "sentence_answer": "When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the <hl> standing wave ratio <hl> (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself."}
{"question": "What is the desired design value for transmmiting circuitry?", "paragraph": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "answer": "50 ohms", "sentence": "In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms ) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry.", "paragraph_sentence": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. <hl> In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms ) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. <hl> The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "paragraph_answer": "Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically <hl> 50 ohms <hl>) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to \"tweak\" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.", "sentence_answer": "In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically <hl> 50 ohms <hl> ) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry."}
{"question": "What can be shorter than 1/4 wavelength long?", "paragraph": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "answer": "whip antenna", "sentence": "For instance, a \" whip antenna \" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil.", "paragraph_sentence": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. <hl> For instance, a \" whip antenna \" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. <hl> This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"<hl> whip antenna <hl>\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "For instance, a \" <hl> whip antenna <hl> \" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil."}
{"question": "What is the opposite of inductive reactance?", "paragraph": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "answer": "capacitative reactance", "sentence": "This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency.", "paragraph_sentence": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. <hl> This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. <hl> The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the <hl> capacitative reactance <hl> that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the <hl> capacitative reactance <hl> that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency."}
{"question": "What is at the base of the antenna?", "paragraph": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "answer": "loading coil", "sentence": "For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil .", "paragraph_sentence": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. <hl> For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil . <hl> This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called <hl> loading coil <hl>. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called <hl> loading coil <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the resistance seen on the loading foil?", "paragraph": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "answer": "feedpoint", "sentence": "The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. <hl> The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a \"whip antenna\" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at <hl> feedpoint <hl> of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The result is a pure resistance seen at <hl> feedpoint <hl> of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]"}
{"question": "What is not adjustable when it comes to a transformer?", "paragraph": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "answer": "turns ratio", "sentence": "In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable.", "paragraph_sentence": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. <hl> In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. <hl> A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "paragraph_answer": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the <hl> turns ratio <hl> of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "sentence_answer": "In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the <hl> turns ratio <hl> of a transformer is not adjustable."}
{"question": "How many ohms are in are in a standard coax?", "paragraph": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "answer": "50 or 75", "sentence": "Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms.", "paragraph_sentence": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. <hl> Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. <hl> Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "paragraph_answer": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as <hl> 50 or 75 <hl> Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "sentence_answer": "Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as <hl> 50 or 75 <hl> Ohms."}
{"question": "A general matching network needs a minimum of how many adjustments to correct all components of impedance?", "paragraph": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "answer": "two adjustments", "sentence": "A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance.", "paragraph_sentence": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. <hl> A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. <hl> Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "paragraph_answer": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least <hl> two adjustments <hl> can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "sentence_answer": "A general matching network with at least <hl> two adjustments <hl> can be made to correct both components of impedance."}
{"question": "What is included between the transmission line and the antenna element?", "paragraph": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "answer": "balun", "sentence": "Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "paragraph_sentence": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. <hl> Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a <hl> balun <hl> in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "sentence_answer": "Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a <hl> balun <hl> in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network."}
{"question": "A balun should be integrated into what?", "paragraph": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "answer": "matching network", "sentence": "A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance.", "paragraph_sentence": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. <hl> A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. <hl> Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "paragraph_answer": "So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general <hl> matching network <hl> with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.", "sentence_answer": "A general <hl> matching network <hl> with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance."}
{"question": "What antenna's are nonresonant?", "paragraph": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "answer": "traveling wave antennas", "sentence": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. <hl> They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the above antennas, <hl> traveling wave antennas <hl> are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "sentence_answer": "Unlike the above antennas, <hl> traveling wave antennas <hl> are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth."}
{"question": "How long are the wire antenna's that the voltage and current waves travel in the same direction?", "paragraph": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "answer": "one direction", "sentence": "They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction , instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. <hl> They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction , instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. <hl> They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in <hl> one direction <hl>, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "sentence_answer": "They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in <hl> one direction <hl> , instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas."}
{"question": "What are undirectional traveling wave directions terminated by?", "paragraph": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "answer": "resistor", "sentence": "a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by <hl> a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. <hl> This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a <hl> resistor <hl> at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> resistor <hl> at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction."}
{"question": "What antenna does not have linear polarization?", "paragraph": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "answer": "helical antenna", "sentence": "They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna ).", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. <hl> They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna ). <hl> Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the <hl> helical antenna <hl>). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "sentence_answer": "They have linear polarization (except for the <hl> helical antenna <hl> )."}
{"question": "What is the resistor equal to?", "paragraph": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "answer": "antenna's characteristic resistance", "sentence": "Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance , to absorb the waves from one direction.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). <hl> Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance , to absorb the waves from one direction. <hl> This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the <hl> antenna's characteristic resistance <hl>, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.", "sentence_answer": "Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the <hl> antenna's characteristic resistance <hl> , to absorb the waves from one direction."}
{"question": "What is the radiation patter influenced by?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "answer": "dielectric constant", "sentence": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. <hl> For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the <hl> dielectric constant <hl> and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "sentence_answer": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the <hl> dielectric constant <hl> and especially conductivity of nearby objects."}
{"question": "The ground is important for what antenna?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "answer": "terrestrial antenna", "sentence": "For a terrestrial antenna , the ground is usually one such object of importance.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. <hl> For a terrestrial antenna , the ground is usually one such object of importance. <hl> The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a <hl> terrestrial antenna <hl>, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "sentence_answer": "For a <hl> terrestrial antenna <hl> , the ground is usually one such object of importance."}
{"question": "Whats another name for the ground?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "answer": "artificial ground plane", "sentence": "Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane ) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. <hl> Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane ) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an <hl> artificial ground plane <hl>) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "sentence_answer": "Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an <hl> artificial ground plane <hl> ) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line."}
{"question": "What does the artificial ground plane do for the antenna current?", "paragraph": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "answer": "return connection", "sentence": "Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "paragraph_sentence": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. <hl> Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the <hl> return connection <hl> for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.", "sentence_answer": "Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the <hl> return connection <hl> for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line."}
{"question": "What is the net quality of the ground dependent of?", "paragraph": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "answer": "topography", "sentence": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. <hl> When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "paragraph_answer": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the <hl> topography <hl> of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "sentence_answer": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the <hl> topography <hl> of the surface."}
{"question": "What is the reason for the receiver seeing both the ral antenna and image of the antenna?", "paragraph": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "answer": "reflection", "sentence": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. <hl> When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "paragraph_answer": "The net quality of a ground <hl> reflection <hl> depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "sentence_answer": "The net quality of a ground <hl> reflection <hl> depends on the topography of the surface."}
{"question": "What frequencies is associated with shorter wavelengths?", "paragraph": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "answer": "higher frequencies", "sentence": "With shorter wavelengths ( higher frequencies ), this is generally the case.", "paragraph_sentence": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. <hl> With shorter wavelengths ( higher frequencies ), this is generally the case. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (<hl> higher frequencies <hl>), this is generally the case.", "sentence_answer": "With shorter wavelengths ( <hl> higher frequencies <hl> ), this is generally the case."}
{"question": "When will reflections not be coherent?", "paragraph": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "answer": "ground has irregularities", "sentence": "But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases.", "paragraph_sentence": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. <hl> But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. <hl> With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "paragraph_answer": "The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the <hl> ground has irregularities <hl> not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.", "sentence_answer": "But if the <hl> ground has irregularities <hl> not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases."}
{"question": "What is the refractive index of the ground?", "paragraph": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "answer": "n=2", "sentence": "Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2 ) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0).", "paragraph_sentence": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. <hl> Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2 ) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). <hl> On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "paragraph_answer": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically <hl> n=2 <hl>) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "sentence_answer": "Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically <hl> n=2 <hl> ) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0)."}
{"question": "When is polarized radiation reversed?", "paragraph": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "answer": "reflection", "sentence": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. <hl> Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "paragraph_answer": "The phase of <hl> reflection <hl> of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "sentence_answer": "The phase of <hl> reflection <hl> of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave."}
{"question": "What is the refractive index of air?", "paragraph": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "answer": "n=1", "sentence": "Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air ( n=1 ), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0).", "paragraph_sentence": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. <hl> Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air ( n=1 ), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). <hl> On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "paragraph_answer": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (<hl> n=1 <hl>), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "sentence_answer": "Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air ( <hl> n=1 <hl> ), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0)."}
{"question": "Besides a ground, what has these phases apply well to?", "paragraph": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.", "answer": "electrical conductor", "sentence": "These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor .", "paragraph_sentence": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. <hl> These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of radians or 180\u00b0). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good <hl> electrical conductor <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good <hl> electrical conductor <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who proposed this theory?", "paragraph": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "answer": "Fresnel coefficients", "sentence": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients . <hl> If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the <hl> Fresnel coefficients <hl>. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "sentence_answer": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the <hl> Fresnel coefficients <hl> ."}
{"question": "Is the ground has a great conductor, how much of the wave will be reflected?", "paragraph": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "answer": "180\u00b0 out of phase", "sentence": "If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected ( 180\u00b0 out of phase ), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power.", "paragraph_sentence": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. <hl> If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected ( 180\u00b0 out of phase ), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. <hl> The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (<hl> 180\u00b0 out of phase <hl>), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "sentence_answer": "If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected ( <hl> 180\u00b0 out of phase <hl> ), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power."}
{"question": "what is reflected and transmitted into the ground when a plane surface is struck?", "paragraph": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "answer": "electromagnetic wave", "sentence": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. <hl> If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "When an <hl> electromagnetic wave <hl> strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "sentence_answer": "When an <hl> electromagnetic wave <hl> strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients."}
{"question": "What depends on the polarization and waves angle?", "paragraph": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "answer": "power remaining", "sentence": "The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. <hl> The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. <hl> The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180\u00b0 out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The <hl> power remaining <hl> in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> power remaining <hl> in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization."}
{"question": "What is the portion of something that is reached by the radio transmission called?", "paragraph": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "answer": "aperture", "sentence": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. <hl> For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "paragraph_answer": "The effective area or effective <hl> aperture <hl> of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "sentence_answer": "The effective area or effective <hl> aperture <hl> of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area."}
{"question": "What effects the function of signals received by an antenna?", "paragraph": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "answer": "direction", "sentence": "Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all direction s, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "paragraph_sentence": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). <hl> Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all direction s, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all <hl> direction <hl>s, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "sentence_answer": "Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all <hl> direction <hl> s, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source."}
{"question": "What is a measure of the power of an antenna?", "paragraph": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "answer": "microvolts", "sentence": "For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms).", "paragraph_sentence": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. <hl> For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). <hl> Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "paragraph_answer": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 <hl> microvolts <hl> rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "sentence_answer": "For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 <hl> microvolts <hl> rms at 75 ohms)."}
{"question": "How much power will be delivered to the reciever if the antenna has an effective area of 12 m/2?", "paragraph": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "answer": "12 pW of RF power", "sentence": "For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms)", "paragraph_sentence": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. <hl> For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms) <hl> . Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "paragraph_answer": "The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver <hl> 12 pW of RF power <hl> to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.", "sentence_answer": "For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10\u221212 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver <hl> 12 pW of RF power <hl> to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms)"}
{"question": "The properties of a usable radio frequency can be called its?", "paragraph": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "answer": "Q", "sentence": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q , just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q , just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. <hl> However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "paragraph_answer": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its <hl> Q <hl>, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "sentence_answer": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its <hl> Q <hl> , just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit."}
{"question": "What is a measure of the comparison between reactance and resistance?", "paragraph": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "answer": "Q", "sentence": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q , just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q , just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. <hl> However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "paragraph_answer": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its <hl> Q <hl>, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "sentence_answer": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its <hl> Q <hl> , just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit."}
{"question": "What is the largest Q that could be achieved with a slimmer band antenna?", "paragraph": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "answer": "15", "sentence": "The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. <hl> The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15 . <hl> On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "paragraph_answer": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as <hl> 15 <hl>. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "sentence_answer": "The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as <hl> 15 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of element would be used to encounter less reactance?", "paragraph": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "answer": "thick", "sentence": "On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5.", "paragraph_sentence": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. <hl> On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. <hl> These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "paragraph_answer": "The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for \"quality factor\" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a <hl> thick <hl> element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the \"hi-Q\" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.", "sentence_answer": "On the other hand, a <hl> thick <hl> element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5."}
{"question": "What can be added to allow for an antenna shorter than the needed height to produce desired results?", "paragraph": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "answer": "loading coil", "sentence": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil . <hl> Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "paragraph_answer": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a <hl> loading coil <hl>. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "sentence_answer": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a <hl> loading coil <hl> ."}
{"question": "How would the resistive impedance from this scenario compare to if the antenna was the proper height?", "paragraph": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "answer": "lower", "sentence": "However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching.", "paragraph_sentence": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. <hl> However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. <hl> In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "paragraph_answer": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit <hl> lower <hl> than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "sentence_answer": "However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit <hl> lower <hl> than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching."}
{"question": "The coil has lengthed the antenna to reach how much length electrically?", "paragraph": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "answer": "2.5 meters", "sentence": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. <hl> Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "paragraph_answer": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost <hl> 2.5 meters <hl> long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "sentence_answer": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost <hl> 2.5 meters <hl> long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil."}
{"question": "What is the major thing that sets the size of antennas at lower frequencies?", "paragraph": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "answer": "reactance", "sentence": "In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted.", "paragraph_sentence": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. <hl> In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. <hl> This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "paragraph_answer": "For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1\u20444-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the <hl> reactance <hl> becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.", "sentence_answer": "In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the <hl> reactance <hl> becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted."}
{"question": "How big would an antenna be used to with with one m wavelengths?", "paragraph": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "answer": "50 cm", "sentence": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. <hl> If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately <hl> 50 cm <hl> across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "sentence_answer": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately <hl> 50 cm <hl> across."}
{"question": "How could the rection of output be adressed by?", "paragraph": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "answer": "changing the matching system", "sentence": "This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "paragraph_sentence": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. <hl> This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by <hl> changing the matching system <hl> between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "sentence_answer": "This could be addressed by <hl> changing the matching system <hl> between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency."}
{"question": "What unit is used to measure current?", "paragraph": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "answer": "ampere", "sentence": "Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power.", "paragraph_sentence": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. <hl> Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. <hl> Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 <hl> ampere <hl> will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "sentence_answer": "Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 <hl> ampere <hl> will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power."}
{"question": "What effect occurs when the signal is reflected back into the antenna?", "paragraph": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "answer": "reducing output", "sentence": "The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output .", "paragraph_sentence": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. <hl> The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output . <hl> This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "paragraph_answer": "Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, <hl> reducing output <hl>. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.", "sentence_answer": "The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, <hl> reducing output <hl> ."}
{"question": "What sort of changes in material would a current reflect?", "paragraph": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "answer": "electrical", "sentence": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. <hl> In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "paragraph_answer": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the <hl> electrical <hl> properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "sentence_answer": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the <hl> electrical <hl> properties of the material."}
{"question": "What must match between the transmission line and elements?", "paragraph": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "answer": "impedance", "sentence": "In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna.", "paragraph_sentence": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. <hl> In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. <hl> This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "paragraph_answer": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same <hl> impedance <hl> as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "sentence_answer": "In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same <hl> impedance <hl> as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna."}
{"question": "What technique is used to prevent unintentional decrease in signal?", "paragraph": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "answer": "Impedance matching", "sentence": "Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles.", "paragraph_sentence": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. <hl> Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. <hl> An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "paragraph_answer": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. <hl> Impedance matching <hl> between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Impedance matching <hl> between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles."}
{"question": "How is this process usually used for transmission lines and antennas?", "paragraph": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "answer": "balun", "sentence": "Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun , although other solutions are also used in certain roles.", "paragraph_sentence": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. <hl> Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun , although other solutions are also used in certain roles. <hl> An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "paragraph_answer": "Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a <hl> balun <hl>, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.", "sentence_answer": "Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a <hl> balun <hl> , although other solutions are also used in certain roles."}
{"question": "What is used to allow one to control the function of wave fronts moving through an antenna?", "paragraph": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "answer": "selectively delay", "sentence": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. <hl> The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "paragraph_answer": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to <hl> selectively delay <hl> or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "sentence_answer": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to <hl> selectively delay <hl> or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it."}
{"question": "What changes the structuak traits of a wave on either side?", "paragraph": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "answer": "refractor", "sentence": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. <hl> The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "paragraph_answer": "An electromagnetic wave <hl> refractor <hl> in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "sentence_answer": "An electromagnetic wave <hl> refractor <hl> in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it."}
{"question": "What is the main purpose of a refractor?", "paragraph": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "answer": "spatial characteristics", "sentence": "The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side.", "paragraph_sentence": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. <hl> The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. <hl> It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "paragraph_answer": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the <hl> spatial characteristics <hl> of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "sentence_answer": "The refractor alters the <hl> spatial characteristics <hl> of the wave on one side relative to the other side."}
{"question": "A refractor can be compared to what type of viewing?", "paragraph": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.", "answer": "optical lens", "sentence": "This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens .", "paragraph_sentence": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. <hl> This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an <hl> optical lens <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "This is the radio equivalent of an <hl> optical lens <hl> ."}
{"question": "What can receive a stron signal by transmitting an original wave?", "paragraph": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "answer": "actual antenna", "sentence": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. <hl> This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> actual antenna <hl> which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> actual antenna <hl> which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground."}
{"question": "Where will the additional current be induced?", "paragraph": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "answer": "antenna element", "sentence": "This will induce an additional current in the antenna element , changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage.", "paragraph_sentence": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. <hl> This will induce an additional current in the antenna element , changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. <hl> Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "paragraph_answer": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the <hl> antenna element <hl>, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "sentence_answer": "This will induce an additional current in the <hl> antenna element <hl> , changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage."}
{"question": "What is altered because of the proximity to the ground?", "paragraph": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "answer": "antenna's impedance", "sentence": "Thus the antenna's impedance , given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground.", "paragraph_sentence": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. <hl> Thus the antenna's impedance , given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. <hl> This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "paragraph_answer": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the <hl> antenna's impedance <hl>, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "sentence_answer": "Thus the <hl> antenna's impedance <hl> , given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground."}
{"question": "what happens to the reflected wave which allows the antenna to reach its asympotic feedpoint impedance?", "paragraph": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "answer": "reduced power", "sentence": "But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory.", "paragraph_sentence": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. <hl> But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. <hl> At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "paragraph_answer": "The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the <hl> reduced power <hl> of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180\u00b0, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.", "sentence_answer": "But as the antenna height is increased, the <hl> reduced power <hl> of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory."}
{"question": "What is between recieving and transmitting antenna's?", "paragraph": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "answer": "horizontal propagation", "sentence": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. <hl> There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "paragraph_answer": "For <hl> horizontal propagation <hl> between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "sentence_answer": "For <hl> horizontal propagation <hl> between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same."}
{"question": "When is the emission at maximized recieved signal?", "paragraph": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "answer": "polarized vertically", "sentence": "If the emission is polarized vertically , the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal.", "paragraph_sentence": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. <hl> If the emission is polarized vertically , the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. <hl> If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "paragraph_answer": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is <hl> polarized vertically <hl>, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "sentence_answer": "If the emission is <hl> polarized vertically <hl> , the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal."}
{"question": "Where is the radiation patterns in the vertical plane shown?", "paragraph": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "answer": "image at right", "sentence": "The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right .", "paragraph_sentence": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. <hl> The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right . <hl> With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "paragraph_answer": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the <hl> image at right <hl>. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "sentence_answer": "The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the <hl> image at right <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is also increased along with the antenna's height?", "paragraph": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "answer": "lobes", "sentence": "As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.", "paragraph_sentence": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. <hl> As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for \u03b8=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5\u03bb. As the antenna height is increased, the number of <hl> lobes <hl> increases as well.", "sentence_answer": "As the antenna height is increased, the number of <hl> lobes <hl> increases as well."}
{"question": "What is another name for classical television transmissions?", "paragraph": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "answer": "analog", "sentence": "On the other hand, classical ( analog ) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On the other hand, classical ( analog ) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. <hl> Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "paragraph_answer": "On the other hand, classical (<hl> analog <hl>) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "sentence_answer": "On the other hand, classical ( <hl> analog <hl> ) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation."}
{"question": "Buildings can create ghost images because of what?", "paragraph": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "answer": "multipath propagation", "sentence": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation . <hl> Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "paragraph_answer": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to <hl> multipath propagation <hl>. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "sentence_answer": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to <hl> multipath propagation <hl> ."}
{"question": "When is ghosting reduced?", "paragraph": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "answer": "horizontal polarization", "sentence": "Using horizontal polarization , ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. <hl> Using horizontal polarization , ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. <hl> Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "paragraph_answer": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using <hl> horizontal polarization <hl>, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "sentence_answer": "Using <hl> horizontal polarization <hl> , ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization."}
{"question": "What cause less problems in digital terrestrial television?", "paragraph": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "answer": "Vertically polarized analog television", "sentence": "Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. <hl> Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. <hl> In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "paragraph_answer": "On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. <hl> Vertically polarized analog television <hl> has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Vertically polarized analog television <hl> has nevertheless been used in some rural areas."}
{"question": "Where are the indiviual array elements known?", "paragraph": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "answer": "antenna arrays", "sentence": "The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays , where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known.", "paragraph_sentence": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. <hl> The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays , where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. <hl> If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "paragraph_answer": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of <hl> antenna arrays <hl>, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "sentence_answer": "The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of <hl> antenna arrays <hl> , where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known."}
{"question": "What induces a feedpoint to antennas nearby?", "paragraph": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "answer": "Current circulating", "sentence": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. <hl> The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Current circulating <hl> in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Current circulating <hl> in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements."}
{"question": "What are the mathmatic useful towards?", "paragraph": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "answer": "electrical behaviour", "sentence": "The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known.", "paragraph_sentence": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. <hl> The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. <hl> If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "paragraph_answer": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the <hl> electrical behaviour <hl> of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "sentence_answer": "The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the <hl> electrical behaviour <hl> of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known."}
{"question": "What cause mutual interactions between the elements electric and magnetic fields?", "paragraph": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "answer": "proximity", "sentence": "However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity , the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements.", "paragraph_sentence": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. <hl> However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity , the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. <hl> Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "paragraph_answer": "Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to <hl> proximity <hl>, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.", "sentence_answer": "However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to <hl> proximity <hl> , the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements."}
{"question": "a antenna element not connected to anything is circuited how?", "paragraph": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "answer": "open circuited", "sentence": "For an antenna element not connected to anything ( open circuited ) one can write .", "paragraph_sentence": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. <hl> For an antenna element not connected to anything ( open circuited ) one can write . <hl> But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "paragraph_answer": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (<hl> open circuited <hl>) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "sentence_answer": "For an antenna element not connected to anything ( <hl> open circuited <hl> ) one can write ."}
{"question": "When is the element not allowed voltage?", "paragraph": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "answer": "short circuited", "sentence": "But for an element which is short circuited , a current is generated across that short", "paragraph_sentence": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . <hl> But for an element which is short circuited , a current is generated across that short <hl> but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "paragraph_answer": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is <hl> short circuited <hl>, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "sentence_answer": "But for an element which is <hl> short circuited <hl> , a current is generated across that short"}
{"question": "What element absorbs and reradiate RF-energy?", "paragraph": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "answer": "Parasitic", "sentence": "Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "paragraph_sentence": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. <hl> Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. <hl> Parasitic <hl> elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Parasitic <hl> elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations."}
{"question": "What antenna can the solid rod be viewed as a dipole antenna?", "paragraph": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "answer": "Yagi-Uda", "sentence": "This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint.", "paragraph_sentence": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . <hl> This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. <hl> Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "paragraph_answer": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a <hl> Yagi-Uda <hl> antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "sentence_answer": "This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a <hl> Yagi-Uda <hl> antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint."}
{"question": "Where can this solid rod be viewed?", "paragraph": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "answer": "feedpoint", "sentence": "This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint .", "paragraph_sentence": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . <hl> This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint . <hl> Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "paragraph_answer": "This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its <hl> feedpoint <hl>. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.", "sentence_answer": "This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its <hl> feedpoint <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of programmin relies on vertical polarization?", "paragraph": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "answer": "broadcasting", "sentence": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. <hl> For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "paragraph_answer": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most <hl> broadcasting <hl> (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "sentence_answer": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most <hl> broadcasting <hl> (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization."}
{"question": "If you were to position your receiver closer to the ground what might be a negative of this placement?", "paragraph": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "answer": "cancellation", "sentence": "For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation .", "paragraph_sentence": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. <hl> For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation . <hl> For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "paragraph_answer": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer <hl> cancellation <hl>. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "sentence_answer": "For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer <hl> cancellation <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is one use that would require an antenna to receive signals in various ways at once?", "paragraph": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "answer": "mobile phones", "sentence": "In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones , the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. <hl> In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones , the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in <hl> mobile phones <hl>, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "sentence_answer": "In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in <hl> mobile phones <hl> , the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization."}
{"question": "If you were to develop a signal to be used with mobile phones what would be an effective antenna type?", "paragraph": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "answer": "circular polarization.", "sentence": "In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. <hl> In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or <hl> circular polarization. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or <hl> circular polarization. <hl>"}
{"question": "What would the antenna you are using take advantage of to allow it to work in multiple locations?", "paragraph": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "answer": "mixed polarization", "sentence": "In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization , such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "paragraph_sentence": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. <hl> In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization , such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The difference in the above factors for the case of \u03b8=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use <hl> mixed polarization <hl>, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.", "sentence_answer": "In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use <hl> mixed polarization <hl> , such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization."}
{"question": "What type of antenna can be formed by a circular segment of wire?", "paragraph": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "answer": "Loop antennas", "sentence": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. <hl> Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Loop antennas <hl> consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Loop antennas <hl> consist of a loop or coil of wire."}
{"question": "What is a loop antenna compared with to determine its beahvior?", "paragraph": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "answer": "circumference of a wavelength", "sentence": "Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas.", "paragraph_sentence": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. <hl> Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. <hl> However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with <hl> circumference of a wavelength <hl> or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "sentence_answer": "Loops with <hl> circumference of a wavelength <hl> or larger act similarly to dipole antennas."}
{"question": "If you needed to place an antenna somewhere with a large amount of interference, which type would be best?", "paragraph": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "answer": "loops small", "sentence": "However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently.", "paragraph_sentence": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. <hl> However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. <hl> They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However <hl> loops small <hl> in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "sentence_answer": "However <hl> loops small <hl> in comparison to a wavelength act differently."}
{"question": "Why would this type be good for receiving but not transmtting?", "paragraph": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "answer": "low radiation resistance", "sentence": "However they have low radiation resistance , and so are inefficient for transmitting.", "paragraph_sentence": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. <hl> However they have low radiation resistance , and so are inefficient for transmitting. <hl> They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "paragraph_answer": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have <hl> low radiation resistance <hl>, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "sentence_answer": "However they have <hl> low radiation resistance <hl> , and so are inefficient for transmitting."}
{"question": "What else would be an effective application of this antenna type?", "paragraph": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "answer": "direction finding", "sentence": "They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.", "paragraph_sentence": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. <hl> They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as <hl> direction finding <hl> antennas.", "sentence_answer": "They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as <hl> direction finding <hl> antennas."}
{"question": "Are essential properties of an antenna changed based on what fungtion they are performing", "paragraph": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "answer": "the same", "sentence": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. <hl> For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "paragraph_answer": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are <hl> the same <hl> whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "sentence_answer": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are <hl> the same <hl> whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving."}
{"question": "What proposition explains the equivalency of the recieving pattern of an antenna?", "paragraph": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "answer": "reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics", "sentence": "This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics .", "paragraph_sentence": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. <hl> This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics . <hl> Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "paragraph_answer": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the <hl> reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics <hl>. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "sentence_answer": "This is a consequence of the <hl> reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics <hl> ."}
{"question": "Can the antenna serve more than one fungtion at a time?", "paragraph": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "answer": "either transmitting or receiving", "sentence": "Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving , whichever is more convenient.", "paragraph_sentence": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. <hl> Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving , whichever is more convenient. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as <hl> either transmitting or receiving <hl>, whichever is more convenient.", "sentence_answer": "Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as <hl> either transmitting or receiving <hl> , whichever is more convenient."}
{"question": "What is one electrical trait of an antenna?", "paragraph": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "answer": "radiation pattern", "sentence": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern , impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern , impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. <hl> For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "paragraph_answer": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, <hl> radiation pattern <hl>, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the \"receiving pattern\" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.", "sentence_answer": "It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, <hl> radiation pattern <hl> , impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving."}
{"question": "What are the most diverse group of land plants?", "paragraph": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "answer": "angiosperms", "sentence": "The flowering plants ( angiosperms ), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The flowering plants ( angiosperms ), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. <hl> Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "paragraph_answer": "The flowering plants (<hl> angiosperms <hl>), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "sentence_answer": "The flowering plants ( <hl> angiosperms <hl> ), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species."}
{"question": "How many species of flowering plants are there about?", "paragraph": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "answer": "350,000", "sentence": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. <hl> Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "paragraph_answer": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about <hl> 350,000 <hl> species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "sentence_answer": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about <hl> 350,000 <hl> species."}
{"question": "What does an angiosperm produce its seeds within?", "paragraph": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "answer": "an enclosure", "sentence": "Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure , in other words, a fruiting plant.", "paragraph_sentence": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. <hl> Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure , in other words, a fruiting plant. <hl> The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "paragraph_answer": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within <hl> an enclosure <hl>, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "sentence_answer": "Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within <hl> an enclosure <hl> , in other words, a fruiting plant."}
{"question": "What do angiosperms have in common with gymnosperms?", "paragraph": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "answer": "seed-producing plants", "sentence": "Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants ; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds.", "paragraph_sentence": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. <hl> Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants ; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. <hl> Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "paragraph_answer": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are <hl> seed-producing plants <hl>; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "sentence_answer": "Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are <hl> seed-producing plants <hl> ; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds."}
{"question": "What is the Greek word for \"case\" or \"casing\"?", "paragraph": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "answer": "angeion", "sentence": "The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word ( angeion -, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "paragraph_sentence": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. <hl> The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word ( angeion -, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word (<hl> angeion <hl>-, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.", "sentence_answer": "The term \"angiosperm\" comes from the Greek composite word ( <hl> angeion <hl> -, \"case\" or \"casing\", and sperma, \"seed\") meaning \"enclosed seeds\", after the enclosed condition of the seeds."}
{"question": "How long have higher plants lived on land?", "paragraph": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "answer": "at least 475 million years", "sentence": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years . <hl> Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "paragraph_answer": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for <hl> at least 475 million years <hl>. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "sentence_answer": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for <hl> at least 475 million years <hl> ."}
{"question": "How did early plants reproduce sexually?", "paragraph": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "answer": "with flagellated, swimming sperm", "sentence": "Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm , like the green algae from which they evolved.", "paragraph_sentence": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. <hl> Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm , like the green algae from which they evolved. <hl> An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "paragraph_answer": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually <hl> with flagellated, swimming sperm <hl>, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "sentence_answer": "Early land plants reproduced sexually <hl> with flagellated, swimming sperm <hl> , like the green algae from which they evolved."}
{"question": "Upright meisporangia allowed what to be dispersed to new habitats?", "paragraph": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "answer": "spores", "sentence": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. <hl> Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "paragraph_answer": "Fossilized <hl> spores <hl> suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "sentence_answer": "Fossilized <hl> spores <hl> suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years."}
{"question": "What are the nearest algal relatives existing today?", "paragraph": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "answer": "Charophycean green algae", "sentence": "This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae .", "paragraph_sentence": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. <hl> This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae . <hl> A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "paragraph_answer": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the <hl> Charophycean green algae <hl>. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "sentence_answer": "This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the <hl> Charophycean green algae <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the common name for Selaginella?", "paragraph": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "answer": "the spike-moss", "sentence": "A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss .", "paragraph_sentence": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. <hl> A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss . <hl> The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "paragraph_answer": "Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, <hl> the spike-moss <hl>. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that \"swim\" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.", "sentence_answer": "A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, <hl> the spike-moss <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Charles Darwin call the sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record?", "paragraph": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "answer": "abominable mystery", "sentence": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \" abominable mystery \" by Charles Darwin.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \" abominable mystery \" by Charles Darwin. <hl> However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"<hl> abominable mystery <hl>\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \" <hl> abominable mystery <hl> \" by Charles Darwin."}
{"question": "What type of fossil is the recently discovered Archaefructus?", "paragraph": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "answer": "angiosperm", "sentence": "However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps.", "paragraph_sentence": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. <hl> However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. <hl> Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered <hl> angiosperm <hl> fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered <hl> angiosperm <hl> fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps."}
{"question": "What fossil evidence is lacking when it comes to flowers?", "paragraph": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "answer": "evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved", "sentence": "Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved .", "paragraph_sentence": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. <hl> Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved . <hl> Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil <hl> evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved <hl>. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil <hl> evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved <hl> ."}
{"question": "From what period does fossilized pollen suggest an older date for angiosperm origin?", "paragraph": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "answer": "Middle Triassic", "sentence": "Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin.", "paragraph_sentence": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). <hl> Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. <hl> A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the <hl> Middle Triassic <hl> (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the <hl> Middle Triassic <hl> (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin."}
{"question": "What relationship proposed on the basis of morphological evidence has recently been disputed?", "paragraph": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "answer": "relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes", "sentence": "A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes , proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. <hl> A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes , proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an \"abominable mystery\" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245\u2013202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2\u2013242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close <hl> relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes <hl>, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "A close <hl> relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes <hl> , proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]"}
{"question": "How many distinct rounds of genome duplication events are suspected in the evolution of seed plants?", "paragraph": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "answer": "two", "sentence": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. <hl> These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of <hl> two <hl> distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "sentence_answer": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of <hl> two <hl> distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events."}
{"question": "When did the first whole genome duplication event occur?", "paragraph": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "answer": "319 million years ago", "sentence": "These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago.", "paragraph_sentence": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. <hl> These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. <hl> Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at <hl> 319 million years ago <hl> and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "sentence_answer": "These occurred at <hl> 319 million years ago <hl> and 192 million years ago."}
{"question": "What type of event perhaps created the line which led to modern flowering plants?", "paragraph": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "answer": "whole genome duplication", "sentence": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. <hl> These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "paragraph_answer": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of <hl> whole genome duplication <hl> events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "sentence_answer": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of <hl> whole genome duplication <hl> events."}
{"question": "How are duplication events studied?", "paragraph": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "answer": "by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant", "sentence": "That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant , Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. <hl> That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant , Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied <hl> by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant <hl>, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "sentence_answer": "That event was studied <hl> by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant <hl> , Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\""}
{"question": "Who coined the term \"abominable mystery\"?", "paragraph": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's \"abominable mystery.\"", "answer": "Darwin", "sentence": "That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin 's \"abominable mystery.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. <hl> That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin 's \"abominable mystery.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses <hl> Darwin <hl>'s \"abominable mystery.\"", "sentence_answer": "That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses <hl> Darwin <hl> 's \"abominable mystery.\""}
{"question": "When is the earliest known macrofossil identified as an angiosperm dated?", "paragraph": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "answer": "about 125 million years BP", "sentence": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. <hl> However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to <hl> about 125 million years BP <hl> (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "sentence_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to <hl> about 125 million years BP <hl> (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP."}
{"question": "What is the earliest known angiosperm?", "paragraph": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "answer": "Archaefructus liaoningensis", "sentence": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis , is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis , is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. <hl> However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, <hl> Archaefructus liaoningensis <hl>, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "sentence_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, <hl> Archaefructus liaoningensis <hl> , is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP."}
{"question": "What pushes the age of angiosperm 5 million years further back?", "paragraph": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "answer": "pollen", "sentence": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. <hl> However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas <hl> pollen <hl> considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "sentence_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas <hl> pollen <hl> considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP."}
{"question": "How long ago has circumstantial evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms?", "paragraph": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "answer": "250 million years ago", "sentence": "In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago .", "paragraph_sentence": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. <hl> In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago . <hl> Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as <hl> 250 million years ago <hl>. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "sentence_answer": "In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as <hl> 250 million years ago <hl> ."}
{"question": "What group of now extinct seed plants had many of the traits of what are now flowering plants?", "paragraph": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "answer": "Gigantopterids", "sentence": "Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "paragraph_sentence": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. <hl> Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. <hl> Gigantopterids <hl> are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Gigantopterids <hl> are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves."}
{"question": "When does a great diversity of angiosperms appear in the fossil record?", "paragraph": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "answer": "approximately 100 million years ago", "sentence": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous ( approximately 100 million years ago ).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous ( approximately 100 million years ago ). <hl> However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "paragraph_answer": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (<hl> approximately 100 million years ago <hl>). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "sentence_answer": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous ( <hl> approximately 100 million years ago <hl> )."}
{"question": "What is the appearance of a large amount of angiosperms in the fossil record known as?", "paragraph": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "answer": "great angiosperm radiation,", "sentence": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). <hl> However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> great angiosperm radiation, <hl> when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> great angiosperm radiation, <hl> when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago)."}
{"question": "When did the division of the eight main groups of angiosperms occur?", "paragraph": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "answer": "40 million years ago", "sentence": "However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 1 40 million years ago .", "paragraph_sentence": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). <hl> However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 1 40 million years ago . <hl> By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "paragraph_answer": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 1<hl> 40 million years ago <hl>. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "sentence_answer": "However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 1 <hl> 40 million years ago <hl> ."}
{"question": "What were the angiosperms up to by the late Cretaceous?", "paragraph": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "answer": "dominated environments", "sentence": "By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary.", "paragraph_sentence": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. <hl> By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. <hl> The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "paragraph_answer": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have <hl> dominated environments <hl> formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "sentence_answer": "By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have <hl> dominated environments <hl> formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary."}
{"question": "Beech and maple had already appeared by what period?", "paragraph": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "answer": "Cretaceous", "sentence": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid- Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid- Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). <hl> However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "paragraph_answer": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-<hl> Cretaceous <hl> (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.", "sentence_answer": "The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid- <hl> Cretaceous <hl> (approximately 100 million years ago)."}
{"question": "What is one proposed explanation for the instant appearance of flowering plants?", "paragraph": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "answer": "Island genetics", "sentence": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. <hl> Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Island genetics <hl> provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Island genetics <hl> provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants."}
{"question": "What is island genetics thought to be a default source of?", "paragraph": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "answer": "speciation", "sentence": "Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms.", "paragraph_sentence": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. <hl> Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. <hl> Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "paragraph_answer": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of <hl> speciation <hl> in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "sentence_answer": "Island genetics is believed to be a common source of <hl> speciation <hl> in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms."}
{"question": "What did radical adaptations seem to have required?", "paragraph": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "answer": "inferior transitional forms", "sentence": "Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms .", "paragraph_sentence": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. <hl> Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms . <hl> Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "paragraph_answer": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required <hl> inferior transitional forms <hl>. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "sentence_answer": "Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required <hl> inferior transitional forms <hl> ."}
{"question": "How did an isolated setting like an island help flowering plants evolve?", "paragraph": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "answer": "highly specialized relationship with some specific animal", "sentence": "a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example).", "paragraph_sentence": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop <hl> a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). <hl> Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "paragraph_answer": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a <hl> highly specialized relationship with some specific animal <hl> (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> highly specialized relationship with some specific animal <hl> (a wasp, for example)."}
{"question": "What are bees descended from?", "paragraph": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "answer": "wasps", "sentence": "Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners.", "paragraph_sentence": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). <hl> Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. <hl> Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "paragraph_answer": "Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig <hl> wasps <hl> do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.", "sentence_answer": "Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig <hl> wasps <hl> do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners."}
{"question": "What are animals also a part of?", "paragraph": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "answer": "distribution of seeds", "sentence": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds . <hl> Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "paragraph_answer": "Animals are also involved in the <hl> distribution of seeds <hl>. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "sentence_answer": "Animals are also involved in the <hl> distribution of seeds <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did the enlargement of flower parts evolve to form?", "paragraph": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "answer": "Fruit", "sentence": "Fruit , which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory).", "paragraph_sentence": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. <hl> Fruit , which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). <hl> Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "paragraph_answer": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. <hl> Fruit <hl>, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Fruit <hl> , which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory)."}
{"question": "What does a plant get out of forming fruit?", "paragraph": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "answer": "seed-dispersal", "sentence": "Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory)", "paragraph_sentence": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. <hl> Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory) <hl> . Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "paragraph_answer": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a <hl> seed-dispersal <hl> tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "sentence_answer": "Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a <hl> seed-dispersal <hl> tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory)"}
{"question": "What are many mutualistic relationships, thus failing to survive competition?", "paragraph": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "answer": "fragile", "sentence": "Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "paragraph_sentence": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). <hl> Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too <hl> fragile <hl> to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "sentence_answer": "Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too <hl> fragile <hl> to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life."}
{"question": "What turned out to be unusually effective for plants to reproduce?", "paragraph": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "answer": "flowering", "sentence": "Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "paragraph_sentence": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). <hl> Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, <hl> flowering <hl> proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.", "sentence_answer": "Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, <hl> flowering <hl> proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life."}
{"question": "What uses a combination of genes to form new shoots?", "paragraph": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "answer": "Flower ontogeny", "sentence": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. <hl> The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Flower ontogeny <hl> uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Flower ontogeny <hl> uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots."}
{"question": "What were plant parts like in their primitive days?", "paragraph": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "answer": "separate from (but in contact with) each other", "sentence": "The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other .", "paragraph_sentence": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. <hl> The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other . <hl> The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "paragraph_answer": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often <hl> separate from (but in contact with) each other <hl>. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "sentence_answer": "The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often <hl> separate from (but in contact with) each other <hl> ."}
{"question": "How did flowers become bixsexual?", "paragraph": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "answer": "grow in a spiral pattern", "sentence": "The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern , to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part).", "paragraph_sentence": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. <hl> The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern , to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). <hl> As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "paragraph_answer": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to <hl> grow in a spiral pattern <hl>, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "sentence_answer": "The flowers tended to <hl> grow in a spiral pattern <hl> , to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part)."}
{"question": "What did some plant parts do as they evolved?", "paragraph": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "answer": "fused together", "sentence": "As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together , with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "paragraph_sentence": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). <hl> As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together , with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts <hl> fused together <hl>, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "sentence_answer": "As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts <hl> fused together <hl> , with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\"."}
{"question": "What is a term for a plant with a specific sex per flower?", "paragraph": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\".", "answer": "\"ovary-inferior\"", "sentence": "As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\" .", "paragraph_sentence": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). <hl> As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least \"ovary-inferior\" . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least <hl> \"ovary-inferior\" <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least <hl> \"ovary-inferior\" <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long has flower evolution occurred?", "paragraph": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "answer": "present day", "sentence": "Flower evolution continues to the present day ; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Flower evolution continues to the present day ; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. <hl> Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "paragraph_answer": "Flower evolution continues to the <hl> present day <hl>; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "sentence_answer": "Flower evolution continues to the <hl> present day <hl> ; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature."}
{"question": "What heritage do many modern domesticated flower species have?", "paragraph": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "answer": "formerly simple weeds", "sentence": "Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds , which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed.", "paragraph_sentence": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. <hl> Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds , which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. <hl> Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "paragraph_answer": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were <hl> formerly simple weeds <hl>, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "sentence_answer": "Many modern domesticated flower species were <hl> formerly simple weeds <hl> , which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed."}
{"question": "Humans have effected some flowers so much they can no longer do what in nature?", "paragraph": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "answer": "pollinated", "sentence": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. <hl> Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "paragraph_answer": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be <hl> pollinated <hl> in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "sentence_answer": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be <hl> pollinated <hl> in nature."}
{"question": "Why did weeds grow with human crops?", "paragraph": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "answer": "symbiotic companion plant relationships", "sentence": "Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "paragraph_sentence": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. <hl> Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having <hl> symbiotic companion plant relationships <hl> with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "sentence_answer": "Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having <hl> symbiotic companion plant relationships <hl> with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection."}
{"question": "What feature helped flowers not get plucked?", "paragraph": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "answer": "prettiest", "sentence": "Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "paragraph_sentence": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. <hl> Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the <hl> prettiest <hl> did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.", "sentence_answer": "Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the <hl> prettiest <hl> did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection."}
{"question": "What three groups were the first to diverge from angiosperm?", "paragraph": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "answer": "Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales", "sentence": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales . <hl> The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were <hl> Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales <hl>. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "sentence_answer": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were <hl> Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales <hl> ."}
{"question": "What term refers to the first three groups to diverge from angiosperm?", "paragraph": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "answer": "basal", "sentence": "The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups.", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. <hl> The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. <hl> Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term <hl> basal <hl> angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "sentence_answer": "The term <hl> basal <hl> angiosperms refers to these three groups."}
{"question": "How clear is the relationship between the broadest of the three non-basal angiosperm groups?", "paragraph": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "answer": "unclear", "sentence": "Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear .", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. <hl> Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear . <hl> Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains <hl> unclear <hl>. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "sentence_answer": "Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains <hl> unclear <hl> ."}
{"question": "What group do some analyses seem to indicate diverged first?", "paragraph": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "answer": "magnoliids", "sentence": "Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups ( magnoliids , monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear.", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. <hl> Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups ( magnoliids , monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. <hl> Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (<hl> magnoliids <hl>, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.", "sentence_answer": "Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups ( <hl> magnoliids <hl> , monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear."}
{"question": "What term did Paul Hermann come up with in 1690?", "paragraph": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "answer": "Angiosperm", "sentence": "The botanical term \" Angiosperm \", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The botanical term \" Angiosperm \", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. <hl> This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "paragraph_answer": "The botanical term \"<hl> Angiosperm <hl>\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "sentence_answer": "The botanical term \" <hl> Angiosperm <hl> \", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom."}
{"question": "What did Hermann use the term angiosperm a primary division of in the plant kingdom?", "paragraph": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "answer": "primary", "sentence": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. <hl> This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "paragraph_answer": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his <hl> primary <hl> divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "sentence_answer": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his <hl> primary <hl> divisions of the plant kingdom."}
{"question": "Who restricted the application of the angiosperm term?", "paragraph": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "answer": "Carl Linnaeus", "sentence": "The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia.", "paragraph_sentence": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. <hl> The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. <hl> Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "paragraph_answer": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by <hl> Carl Linnaeus <hl> with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "sentence_answer": "The term and its antonym were maintained by <hl> Carl Linnaeus <hl> with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia."}
{"question": "What did Robert Brown establish the existence of in Cycadeae and Coniferae?", "paragraph": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "answer": "naked ovules", "sentence": "Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "paragraph_sentence": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. <hl> Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly <hl> naked ovules <hl> in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "sentence_answer": "Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly <hl> naked ovules <hl> in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants."}
{"question": "What is the group-name angiosperm has been used for by botanical writers?", "paragraph": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.", "answer": "other dicotyledonous plants", "sentence": "Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants .", "paragraph_sentence": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. <hl> Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The botanical term \"Angiosperm\", from the Ancient Greek \u03b1\u03b3\u03b3\u03b5\u03af\u03bf\u03bd, ange\u00edon (bottle, vessel) and \u03c3\u03c0\u03ad\u03c1\u03bc\u03b1, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for <hl> other dicotyledonous plants <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for <hl> other dicotyledonous plants <hl> ."}
{"question": "In taxonomies, what type of group are flowering plants treated?", "paragraph": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "answer": "coherent", "sentence": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. <hl> The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "paragraph_answer": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a <hl> coherent <hl> group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "sentence_answer": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a <hl> coherent <hl> group."}
{"question": "What does anthophyta mean?", "paragraph": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "answer": "flowering plants", "sentence": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. <hl> The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "paragraph_answer": "In most taxonomies, the <hl> flowering plants <hl> are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "sentence_answer": "In most taxonomies, the <hl> flowering plants <hl> are treated as a coherent group."}
{"question": "What do the Wettstein and Engler systems use at the assigned rank of subdivision?", "paragraph": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "answer": "Angiospermae", "sentence": "The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice.", "paragraph_sentence": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. <hl> The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. <hl> These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "paragraph_answer": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been <hl> Angiospermae <hl> (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "sentence_answer": "The most popular descriptive name has been <hl> Angiospermae <hl> (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice."}
{"question": "How does the APG system of 1998, with its 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat flowering plants?", "paragraph": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "answer": "a clade called angiosperms", "sentence": "The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name.", "paragraph_sentence": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. <hl> The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. <hl> However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "paragraph_answer": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as <hl> a clade called angiosperms <hl> without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "sentence_answer": "The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as <hl> a clade called angiosperms <hl> without a formal botanical name."}
{"question": "What formal subclass classification were flowering plants given in 2009?", "paragraph": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.", "answer": "Magnoliidae", "sentence": "However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae .", "paragraph_sentence": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. <hl> However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta (\"flowering plants\") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass <hl> Magnoliidae <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass <hl> Magnoliidae <hl> ."}
{"question": "What consensus is the AGP trying to reach?", "paragraph": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "answer": "how the flowering plants should be arranged", "sentence": "A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998.", "paragraph_sentence": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. <hl> A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. <hl> Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "paragraph_answer": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about <hl> how the flowering plants should be arranged <hl> has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "sentence_answer": "A consensus about <hl> how the flowering plants should be arranged <hl> has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998."}
{"question": "What internal component has undergone considerable revision?", "paragraph": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "answer": "classification", "sentence": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. <hl> The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "paragraph_answer": "The internal <hl> classification <hl> of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "sentence_answer": "The internal <hl> classification <hl> of this group has undergone considerable revision."}
{"question": "What system did Arthur Cronquist put forth in 1968, but not publish in full form until 1981?", "paragraph": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "answer": "The Cronquist system", "sentence": "The Cronquist system , proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny.", "paragraph_sentence": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. <hl> The Cronquist system , proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. <hl> A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "paragraph_answer": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. <hl> The Cronquist system <hl>, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Cronquist system <hl> , proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny."}
{"question": "Who published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998?", "paragraph": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "answer": "APG", "sentence": "A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group ( APG ), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998.", "paragraph_sentence": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. <hl> A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group ( APG ), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. <hl> Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "paragraph_answer": "The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (<hl> APG <hl>), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.", "sentence_answer": "A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group ( <hl> APG <hl> ), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998."}
{"question": "What type of groups do monocots form, based on a recent APG studies?", "paragraph": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "answer": "monophyletic", "sentence": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). <hl> Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "paragraph_answer": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a <hl> monophyletic <hl> group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "sentence_answer": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a <hl> monophyletic <hl> group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic)."}
{"question": "Eudicots or tricolpates are part of a monophyletic group formed by what species?", "paragraph": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "answer": "dicot", "sentence": "that the dicot s do not (they are paraphyletic).", "paragraph_sentence": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but <hl> that the dicot s do not (they are paraphyletic). <hl> Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "paragraph_answer": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the <hl> dicot <hl>s do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "sentence_answer": "that the <hl> dicot <hl> s do not (they are paraphyletic)."}
{"question": "What third major clade can many dicot species be found in?", "paragraph": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "answer": "magnoliids", "sentence": "Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids , containing about 9,000 species.", "paragraph_sentence": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. <hl> Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids , containing about 9,000 species. <hl> The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "paragraph_answer": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the <hl> magnoliids <hl>, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "sentence_answer": "Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the <hl> magnoliids <hl> , containing about 9,000 species."}
{"question": "How many species dicot species are magnoliids?", "paragraph": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "answer": "about 9,000", "sentence": "Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species.", "paragraph_sentence": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. <hl> Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. <hl> The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "paragraph_answer": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing <hl> about 9,000 <hl> species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "sentence_answer": "Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing <hl> about 9,000 <hl> species."}
{"question": "Basal angiosperms are what type of grouping of primitive species?", "paragraph": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "answer": "paraphyletic", "sentence": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic ).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic ). <hl> Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "paragraph_answer": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are <hl> paraphyletic <hl>). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.", "sentence_answer": "Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are <hl> paraphyletic <hl> )."}
{"question": "What is the estimated range for the number of flowering plants?", "paragraph": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "answer": "250,000 to 400,000", "sentence": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000 . <hl> This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "paragraph_answer": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of <hl> 250,000 to 400,000 <hl>. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "sentence_answer": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of <hl> 250,000 to 400,000 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many species of moss is there?", "paragraph": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "answer": "12,000", "sentence": "This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse.", "paragraph_sentence": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. <hl> This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. <hl> The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "paragraph_answer": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around <hl> 12,000 <hl> species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "sentence_answer": "This compares to around <hl> 12,000 <hl> species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse."}
{"question": "What does the large number of flowering plant species indicate is true of them in general?", "paragraph": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "answer": "diverse", "sentence": "This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse .", "paragraph_sentence": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. <hl> This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse . <hl> The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "paragraph_answer": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more <hl> diverse <hl>. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "sentence_answer": "This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more <hl> diverse <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the minimum number of families in the APG system?", "paragraph": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "answer": "402", "sentence": "In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. <hl> In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402 . <hl> In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "paragraph_answer": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is <hl> 402 <hl>. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "sentence_answer": "In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is <hl> 402 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many families are in AGP III?", "paragraph": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "answer": "415", "sentence": "In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.", "paragraph_sentence": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. <hl> In APG III (2009) there are 415 families. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are <hl> 415 <hl> families.", "sentence_answer": "In APG III (2009) there are <hl> 415 <hl> families."}
{"question": "What shape are the bundles in the young stem of dicotyledons arranged in?", "paragraph": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "answer": "an open ring", "sentence": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring , separating a central pith from an outer cortex.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring , separating a central pith from an outer cortex. <hl> In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "paragraph_answer": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in <hl> an open ring <hl>, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "sentence_answer": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in <hl> an open ring <hl> , separating a central pith from an outer cortex."}
{"question": "What does the cambium separate?", "paragraph": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "answer": "xylem and phloem", "sentence": "In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem , is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. <hl> In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem , is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. <hl> By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "paragraph_answer": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the <hl> xylem and phloem <hl>, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "sentence_answer": "In each bundle, separating the <hl> xylem and phloem <hl> , is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium."}
{"question": "What is a layer of meristem or formative tissue known as?", "paragraph": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "answer": "cambium", "sentence": "In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. <hl> In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium . <hl> By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "paragraph_answer": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as <hl> cambium <hl>. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "sentence_answer": "In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as <hl> cambium <hl> ."}
{"question": "What results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside?", "paragraph": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "answer": "increase in thickness", "sentence": "By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. <hl> By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. <hl> The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "paragraph_answer": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical <hl> increase in thickness <hl> results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "sentence_answer": "By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical <hl> increase in thickness <hl> results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside."}
{"question": "What's another name for the concentric rings in trees?", "paragraph": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.", "answer": "annual rings", "sentence": "Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. <hl> Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called <hl> annual rings <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called <hl> annual rings <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the defining feature of angiosperms?", "paragraph": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "answer": "flower", "sentence": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower . <hl> Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "paragraph_answer": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the <hl> flower <hl>. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "sentence_answer": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the <hl> flower <hl> ."}
{"question": "What characteristic flowers show variation in?", "paragraph": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "answer": "form and elaboration", "sentence": "Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration , and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species.", "paragraph_sentence": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. <hl> Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration , and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. <hl> The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "paragraph_answer": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in <hl> form and elaboration <hl>, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "sentence_answer": "Flowers show remarkable variation in <hl> form and elaboration <hl> , and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species."}
{"question": "What do flowers provide the best external feature for doing?", "paragraph": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "answer": "establishing relationships among angiosperm species", "sentence": "Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species .", "paragraph_sentence": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. <hl> Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species . <hl> The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "paragraph_answer": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for <hl> establishing relationships among angiosperm species <hl>. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "sentence_answer": "Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for <hl> establishing relationships among angiosperm species <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is it the function of the flower to ensure fertilization of?", "paragraph": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "answer": "the ovule", "sentence": "The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds.", "paragraph_sentence": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. <hl> The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. <hl> The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "paragraph_answer": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of <hl> the ovule <hl> and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "sentence_answer": "The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of <hl> the ovule <hl> and development of fruit containing seeds."}
{"question": "What is the name of a branch system?", "paragraph": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.", "answer": "inflorescence", "sentence": "More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence .", "paragraph_sentence": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. <hl> More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an <hl> inflorescence <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an <hl> inflorescence <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a willow's flower comprised of?", "paragraph": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "answer": "only a few stamens or two carpels", "sentence": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels . <hl> Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "paragraph_answer": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises <hl> only a few stamens or two carpels <hl>. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "sentence_answer": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises <hl> only a few stamens or two carpels <hl> ."}
{"question": "What have some structures evolved to protect?", "paragraph": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "answer": "the sporophylls", "sentence": "Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators.", "paragraph_sentence": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. <hl> Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. <hl> The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "paragraph_answer": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect <hl> the sporophylls <hl> and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "sentence_answer": "Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect <hl> the sporophylls <hl> and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators."}
{"question": "What appearance are calyx of sepals typically?", "paragraph": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "answer": "green and leaf-like", "sentence": "The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like , and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud.", "paragraph_sentence": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). <hl> The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like , and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. <hl> The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "paragraph_answer": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually <hl> green and leaf-like <hl>, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "sentence_answer": "The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually <hl> green and leaf-like <hl> , and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud."}
{"question": "Individual members of enveloping structures are known by what terms?", "paragraph": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "answer": "sepals and petals", "sentence": "The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other).", "paragraph_sentence": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. <hl> The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). <hl> The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "paragraph_answer": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as <hl> sepals and petals <hl> (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "sentence_answer": "The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as <hl> sepals and petals <hl> (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other)."}
{"question": "The features of flowers which attract pollinators also attract what other creature?", "paragraph": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.", "answer": "humans", "sentence": "The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans .", "paragraph_sentence": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. <hl> The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among <hl> humans <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among <hl> humans <hl> ."}
{"question": "What sexual feature do a majority of flowers demonstrate?", "paragraph": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "answer": "hermaphrodite", "sentence": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. <hl> Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "paragraph_answer": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or <hl> hermaphrodite <hl> (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "sentence_answer": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or <hl> hermaphrodite <hl> (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization."}
{"question": "Why did flowering plants develop numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms?", "paragraph": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "answer": "reduce or prevent self-fertilization", "sentence": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization . <hl> Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "paragraph_answer": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to <hl> reduce or prevent self-fertilization <hl>. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "sentence_answer": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to <hl> reduce or prevent self-fertilization <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why are a heteromorphic flower's carpels and stamens different lengths?", "paragraph": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "answer": "so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil", "sentence": "Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel).", "paragraph_sentence": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. <hl> Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). <hl> Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "paragraph_answer": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, <hl> so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil <hl> (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "sentence_answer": "Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, <hl> so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil <hl> (receptive part of the carpel)."}
{"question": "What type of mechanism might homomorphic flowers use to tell the difference between foreign and self pollen grains?", "paragraph": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "answer": "biochemical", "sentence": "Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains.", "paragraph_sentence": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). <hl> Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. <hl> In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "paragraph_answer": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a <hl> biochemical <hl> (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "sentence_answer": "Homomorphic flowers may employ a <hl> biochemical <hl> (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains."}
{"question": "How are some male and female parts separated for some species?", "paragraph": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.", "answer": "different flowers", "sentence": "In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers .", "paragraph_sentence": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. <hl> In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on <hl> different flowers <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on <hl> different flowers <hl> ."}
{"question": "What process does double fertilization refer to?", "paragraph": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "answer": "two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary", "sentence": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary . <hl> This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "paragraph_answer": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which <hl> two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary <hl>. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "sentence_answer": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which <hl> two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does a pollen grain adhere to, to start the process of double fertilization?", "paragraph": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "answer": "the stigma of the pistil", "sentence": "This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube.", "paragraph_sentence": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. <hl> This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. <hl> While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "paragraph_answer": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to <hl> the stigma of the pistil <hl> (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "sentence_answer": "This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to <hl> the stigma of the pistil <hl> (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube."}
{"question": "What type of cell travels down the pollen tube while it's growing?", "paragraph": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "answer": "haploid generative", "sentence": "While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. <hl> While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. <hl> The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "paragraph_answer": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a <hl> haploid generative <hl> cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "sentence_answer": "While this pollen tube is growing, a <hl> haploid generative <hl> cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus."}
{"question": "Where does the pollen tube release its sperm cells?", "paragraph": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "answer": "one of the synergids", "sentence": "Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids , releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells).", "paragraph_sentence": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. <hl> Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids , releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). <hl> The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "paragraph_answer": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into <hl> one of the synergids <hl>, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "sentence_answer": "Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into <hl> one of the synergids <hl> , releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells)."}
{"question": "What serves as the embryo's food supply?", "paragraph": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "answer": "endosperm", "sentence": "As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm , which serves as the embryo's food supply.", "paragraph_sentence": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. <hl> As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm , which serves as the embryo's food supply. <hl> The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "paragraph_answer": "Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the <hl> endosperm <hl>, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.", "sentence_answer": "As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the <hl> endosperm <hl> , which serves as the embryo's food supply."}
{"question": "The appearance of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of what?", "paragraph": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "answer": "the fruit", "sentence": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit . <hl> They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "paragraph_answer": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of <hl> the fruit <hl>. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "sentence_answer": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of <hl> the fruit <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does the seed coat protect?", "paragraph": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "answer": "embryo", "sentence": "They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination.", "paragraph_sentence": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. <hl> They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. <hl> Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "paragraph_answer": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the <hl> embryo <hl> and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "sentence_answer": "They protect the <hl> embryo <hl> and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination."}
{"question": "What does the fruit of the flower secure?", "paragraph": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "answer": "dissemination", "sentence": "They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination ; they may also directly promote germination.", "paragraph_sentence": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. <hl> They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination ; they may also directly promote germination. <hl> Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "paragraph_answer": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in <hl> dissemination <hl>; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "sentence_answer": "They protect the embryo and aid in <hl> dissemination <hl> ; they may also directly promote germination."}
{"question": "How developed is the seed coat when it's used for dissemination?", "paragraph": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "answer": "slightly", "sentence": "In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed.", "paragraph_sentence": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. <hl> In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. <hl> If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "paragraph_answer": "The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only <hl> slightly <hl> developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.", "sentence_answer": "In this case, the seed coat is only <hl> slightly <hl> developed."}
{"question": "On what is agriculture almost completely dependent?", "paragraph": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "answer": "angiosperms", "sentence": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms , which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms , which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. <hl> Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on <hl> angiosperms <hl>, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on <hl> angiosperms <hl> , which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed."}
{"question": "What family of plants is most important for human sustenance?", "paragraph": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "answer": "Poaceae", "sentence": "Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae ,", "paragraph_sentence": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. <hl> Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae , <hl> or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the <hl> Poaceae <hl>, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "Of all the families of plants, the <hl> Poaceae <hl> ,"}
{"question": "What is the more common name of the Fabaceae?", "paragraph": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "answer": "legume", "sentence": "The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place.", "paragraph_sentence": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). <hl> The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. <hl> Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or <hl> legume <hl> family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "The Fabaceae, or <hl> legume <hl> family, comes in second place."}
{"question": "What family do potatoes, tomatoes and peppers belong to?", "paragraph": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "answer": "Solanaceae", "sentence": "Also of high importance are the Solanaceae , or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family.", "paragraph_sentence": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. <hl> Also of high importance are the Solanaceae , or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. <hl> Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the <hl> Solanaceae <hl>, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "Also of high importance are the <hl> Solanaceae <hl> , or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family."}
{"question": "What family would you find cherries in?", "paragraph": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "answer": "Rosaceae", "sentence": "Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae , or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "paragraph_sentence": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. <hl> Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae , or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn \u2014 maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the <hl> Rosaceae <hl>, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the <hl> Rosaceae <hl> , or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.)."}
{"question": "Which city is the capital of Telangana?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "answer": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana", "sentence": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A]", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] <hl> Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana <hl> and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana <hl> and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A]"}
{"question": "How many square miles does Hyderabad cover?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "answer": "250 sq mi", "sentence": "Occupying 650 square kilometres ( 250 sq mi ) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] <hl> Occupying 650 square kilometres ( 250 sq mi ) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. <hl> At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (<hl> 250 sq mi <hl>) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "sentence_answer": "Occupying 650 square kilometres ( <hl> 250 sq mi <hl> ) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India."}
{"question": "What river is Hyderabad next to?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "answer": "the Musi River", "sentence": "Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River , it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] <hl> Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River , it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. <hl> At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of <hl> the Musi River <hl>, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "sentence_answer": "Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of <hl> the Musi River <hl> , it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India."}
{"question": "What is the population of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "answer": "about 6.7 million", "sentence": "Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] <hl> Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. <hl> At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of <hl> about 6.7 million <hl> and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "sentence_answer": "Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of <hl> about 6.7 million <hl> and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India."}
{"question": "At what altitude is Hyderabad, in meters?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "answer": "an average altitude of 542 metres", "sentence": "At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. <hl> At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad (i/\u02c8ha\u026ad\u0259r\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/ HY-d\u0259r-\u0259-bad; often /\u02c8ha\u026adr\u0259\u02ccb\u00e6d/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At <hl> an average altitude of 542 metres <hl> (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre.", "sentence_answer": "At <hl> an average altitude of 542 metres <hl> (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar\u2014predating the city's founding\u2014north of the city centre."}
{"question": "In what year was Hyderabad established?", "paragraph": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "answer": "Established in 1591", "sentence": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. <hl> In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Established in 1591 <hl> by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Established in 1591 <hl> by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region."}
{"question": "Who is the person that established Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "answer": "Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah", "sentence": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah , Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah , Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. <hl> In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "paragraph_answer": "Established in 1591 by <hl> Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah <hl>, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "sentence_answer": "Established in 1591 by <hl> Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah <hl> , Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region."}
{"question": "What dynasty controlled Hyderabad until the early 18th century?", "paragraph": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "answer": "the Qutb Shahi dynasty", "sentence": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. <hl> In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "paragraph_answer": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of <hl> the Qutb Shahi dynasty <hl> for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "sentence_answer": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of <hl> the Qutb Shahi dynasty <hl> for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region."}
{"question": "Which Mughal viceroy created a dynasty in early 18th century Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "answer": "Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty", "sentence": "In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty , known as the Nizams of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. <hl> In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty , known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. <hl> The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "paragraph_answer": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, <hl> Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty <hl>, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "sentence_answer": "In 1724, <hl> Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty <hl> , known as the Nizams of Hyderabad."}
{"question": "Which dynasty did Asif Jah I create?", "paragraph": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "answer": "Nizams of Hyderabad", "sentence": "In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad .", "paragraph_sentence": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. <hl> In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad . <hl> The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "paragraph_answer": "Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the <hl> Nizams of Hyderabad <hl>. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.", "sentence_answer": "In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the <hl> Nizams of Hyderabad <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which individual commissioned Chaminar?", "paragraph": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "answer": "Muhammad Quli Qutb", "sentence": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. <hl> Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "paragraph_answer": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by <hl> Muhammad Quli Qutb <hl> Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "sentence_answer": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by <hl> Muhammad Quli Qutb <hl> Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad."}
{"question": "When did Hyderabad become important culturally in India?", "paragraph": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "answer": "the mid-19th century", "sentence": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century , with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent.", "paragraph_sentence": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. <hl> Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century , with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. <hl> While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "paragraph_answer": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in <hl> the mid-19th century <hl>, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in <hl> the mid-19th century <hl> , with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent."}
{"question": "Which two groups had an influence in making Hyderabad a cultural center?", "paragraph": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "answer": "The Qutb Shahis and Nizams", "sentence": "The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world.", "paragraph_sentence": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. <hl> The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. <hl> Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "paragraph_answer": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. <hl> The Qutb Shahis and Nizams <hl> established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Qutb Shahis and Nizams <hl> established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world."}
{"question": "What culture is most represented in the food of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "answer": "Mughlai culture", "sentence": "The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem.", "paragraph_sentence": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. <hl> The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. <hl> The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "paragraph_answer": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of <hl> Mughlai culture <hl> is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "sentence_answer": "The influence of <hl> Mughlai culture <hl> is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem."}
{"question": "Hyderabad has India's second biggest film production industry, what is it called?", "paragraph": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "answer": "Telugu film industry", "sentence": "While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry , the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "paragraph_sentence": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. <hl> While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry , the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar\u2014commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah\u2014coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the <hl> Telugu film industry <hl>, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.", "sentence_answer": "While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the <hl> Telugu film industry <hl> , the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures."}
{"question": "What items had been historically traded in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "answer": "pearl and diamond", "sentence": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. <hl> Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad was historically known as a <hl> pearl and diamond <hl> trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad was historically known as a <hl> pearl and diamond <hl> trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls."}
{"question": "What is a nickname for Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "answer": "City of Pearls", "sentence": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls . <hl> Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the <hl> City of Pearls <hl>. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the <hl> City of Pearls <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are three historic bazaars in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "answer": "Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar", "sentence": "Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar , have remained open for centuries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. <hl> Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar , have remained open for centuries. <hl> However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including <hl> Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar <hl>, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "sentence_answer": "Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including <hl> Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar <hl> , have remained open for centuries."}
{"question": "What is the economic output of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "answer": "US$74 billion", "sentence": "With an output of US$74 billion , Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". <hl> With an output of US$74 billion , Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of <hl> US$74 billion <hl>, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "sentence_answer": "With an output of <hl> US$74 billion <hl> , Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product."}
{"question": "What is the rank of Hyderabad among cities contributing to India's GDP?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "answer": "fifth-largest", "sentence": "With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". <hl> With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's \"Genome Valley\". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the <hl> fifth-largest <hl> contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.", "sentence_answer": "With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the <hl> fifth-largest <hl> contributor to India's overall gross domestic product."}
{"question": "What does the Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names say Hyderabad means?", "paragraph": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "answer": "\"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\"", "sentence": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\" , from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\" , from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). <hl> It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "paragraph_answer": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means <hl> \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\" <hl>, from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "sentence_answer": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means <hl> \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\" <hl> , from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city)."}
{"question": "Hyderabad was named in honor of someone, who was it?", "paragraph": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "answer": "Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib", "sentence": "It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib , who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles.", "paragraph_sentence": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). <hl> It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib , who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. <hl> Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "paragraph_answer": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the <hl> Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib <hl>, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "sentence_answer": "It was named to honour the <hl> Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib <hl> , who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles."}
{"question": "What does Andrew Petersen say that Hyderabad was originally known as?", "paragraph": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "answer": "Baghnagar (city of gardens).", "sentence": "Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love.", "paragraph_sentence": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. <hl> Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. <hl> She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "paragraph_answer": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called <hl> Baghnagar (city of gardens). <hl> One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "sentence_answer": "Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called <hl> Baghnagar (city of gardens). <hl> One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love."}
{"question": "Who founded what came to be known Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "answer": "Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah", "sentence": "One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah , the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love.", "paragraph_sentence": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). <hl> One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah , the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. <hl> She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "paragraph_answer": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that <hl> Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah <hl>, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "sentence_answer": "One popular theory suggests that <hl> Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah <hl> , the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love."}
{"question": "What person is Hyderabad said to have been renamed for?", "paragraph": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "answer": "\"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl", "sentence": "One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love.", "paragraph_sentence": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). <hl> One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. <hl> She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "paragraph_answer": "According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means \"Haydar's city\" or \"lion city\", from haydar (lion) and \u0101b\u0101d (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it <hl> \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl <hl> with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.", "sentence_answer": "One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it <hl> \"Bhagyanagar\" or \"Bh\u0101gnagar\" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl <hl> with whom he had fallen in love."}
{"question": "There may be Iron Age findings near Hyderabad, what age are they thought to be from?", "paragraph": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "answer": "500 BCE", "sentence": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE . <hl> The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from <hl> 500 BCE <hl>. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from <hl> 500 BCE <hl> ."}
{"question": "What time period did the Chalukya dynasty rule the Hyderabad region?", "paragraph": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "answer": "624 CE to 1075 CE", "sentence": "The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE .", "paragraph_sentence": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. <hl> The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE . <hl> Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from <hl> 624 CE to 1075 CE <hl>. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from <hl> 624 CE to 1075 CE <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the Calukya empire split into four?", "paragraph": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "answer": "the 11th century", "sentence": "Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century , Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. <hl> Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century , Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in <hl> the 11th century <hl>, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in <hl> the 11th century <hl> , Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad."}
{"question": "What was the capital of Golkonda in the mid 12th century?", "paragraph": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "answer": "Warangal", "sentence": "Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal , 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. <hl> Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal , 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at <hl> Warangal <hl>, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at <hl> Warangal <hl> , 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad."}
{"question": "What was the Hyderabad region known as under the Chalukya dynasty?", "paragraph": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "answer": "Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\")", "sentence": "The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\") , and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE.", "paragraph_sentence": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. <hl> The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\") , and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. <hl> Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as <hl> Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\") <hl>, and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as <hl> Golkonda (Golla Konda-\"shepherd's hill\") <hl> , and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE."}
{"question": "Who defeated the Kakatiya dynasty in 1310?", "paragraph": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "answer": "Sultan Alauddin Khilji", "sentence": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. <hl> This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "paragraph_answer": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by <hl> Sultan Alauddin Khilji <hl> of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "sentence_answer": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by <hl> Sultan Alauddin Khilji <hl> of the Delhi Sultanate."}
{"question": "Which entity subsumed the Kakatiya dynasty?", "paragraph": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "answer": "Khilji dynasty", "sentence": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. <hl> This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "paragraph_answer": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the <hl> Khilji dynasty <hl> in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "sentence_answer": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the <hl> Khilji dynasty <hl> in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate."}
{"question": "What did the Malik Kafur do to the Kakatiya dynasty in 1321?", "paragraph": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "answer": "the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed", "sentence": "This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. <hl> This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. <hl> During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "paragraph_answer": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when <hl> the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed <hl> by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "sentence_answer": "This lasted until 1321, when <hl> the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed <hl> by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general."}
{"question": "When was the Behmani Sultanate established?", "paragraph": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "answer": "1347", "sentence": "Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. <hl> Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. <hl> The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "paragraph_answer": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until <hl> 1347 <hl> when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "sentence_answer": "Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until <hl> 1347 <hl> when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital."}
{"question": "In what year did Muhammad bin Tughluq succeed the Delhi sultanate?", "paragraph": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "answer": "1325", "sentence": "Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325 , bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. <hl> Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325 , bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. <hl> The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "paragraph_answer": "The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in <hl> 1325 <hl>, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.", "sentence_answer": "Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in <hl> 1325 <hl> , bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital."}
{"question": "What position did Sultan Quli hold?", "paragraph": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "answer": "governor of Golkonda", "sentence": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda , revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda , revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". <hl> The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Sultan Quli, a <hl> governor of Golkonda <hl>, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Sultan Quli, a <hl> governor of Golkonda <hl> , revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\"."}
{"question": "When was Hyderabad founded?", "paragraph": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "answer": "1591", "sentence": "The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591 , to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda.", "paragraph_sentence": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". <hl> The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591 , to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. <hl> During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in <hl> 1591 <hl>, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in <hl> 1591 <hl> , to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda."}
{"question": "In what year did the establishment of the Qutb dynasty occur?", "paragraph": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "answer": "1518", "sentence": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518 ; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518 ; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". <hl> The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in <hl> 1518 <hl>; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in <hl> 1518 <hl> ; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\"."}
{"question": "In the late 17th century the capital of Deccan Suba was moved, to where?", "paragraph": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "answer": "Aurangabad", "sentence": "The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad , about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. <hl> The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad , about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to <hl> Aurangabad <hl>, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to <hl> Aurangabad <hl> , about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad."}
{"question": "Whom did Sultan Quli rebel against?", "paragraph": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "answer": "the Bahmani Sultanate", "sentence": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". <hl> The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against <hl> the Bahmani Sultanate <hl> and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against <hl> the Bahmani Sultanate <hl> and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city \"Muhammad nagar\"."}
{"question": "What position did Farrukhsiyar hold?", "paragraph": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "answer": "emperor", "sentence": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor , appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor , appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). <hl> In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal <hl> emperor <hl>, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "sentence_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal <hl> emperor <hl> , appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm)."}
{"question": "What official title did the Viceroy of Deccan hold?", "paragraph": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "answer": "Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm)", "sentence": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm) .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm) . <hl> In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title <hl> Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm) <hl>. In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "sentence_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title <hl> Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm) <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was the Viceroy of the Deccan under Farrukhsiyar?", "paragraph": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "answer": "Asif Jah I", "sentence": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). <hl> In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed <hl> Asif Jah I <hl> to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "sentence_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed <hl> Asif Jah I <hl> to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm)."}
{"question": "In what year was Mubariz Khan defeated by Asif Jah I?", "paragraph": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "answer": "1724", "sentence": "In 1724 , Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). <hl> In 1724 , Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. <hl> Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In <hl> 1724 <hl>, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1724 <hl> , Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty."}
{"question": "What did Asif Jah I rename Deccan Suba to?", "paragraph": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "answer": "Hyderabad Deccan", "sentence": "In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan , and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). <hl> In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan , and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. <hl> Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region <hl> Hyderabad Deccan <hl>, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.", "sentence_answer": "In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region <hl> Hyderabad Deccan <hl> , and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty."}
{"question": "Whom did the Nizam ally with in the late 18th century?", "paragraph": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "answer": "East India Company", "sentence": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. <hl> In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the <hl> East India Company <hl> in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "sentence_answer": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the <hl> East India Company <hl> in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British."}
{"question": "What was the title of Baji Rao I?", "paragraph": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "answer": "Peshwa of the Maratha Empire", "sentence": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I ( Peshwa of the Maratha Empire ),", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. <hl> In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I ( Peshwa of the Maratha Empire ), <hl> and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (<hl> Peshwa of the Maratha Empire <hl>), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "sentence_answer": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I ( <hl> Peshwa of the Maratha Empire <hl> ),"}
{"question": "What was the title of Hyder Ali?", "paragraph": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "answer": "Dalwai of Mysore", "sentence": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali ( Dalwai of Mysore ), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. <hl> In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali ( Dalwai of Mysore ), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (<hl> Dalwai of Mysore <hl>), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "sentence_answer": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali ( <hl> Dalwai of Mysore <hl> ), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British."}
{"question": "Which military occupied Hyderabad city in a protection role?", "paragraph": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "answer": "British Indian Army", "sentence": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. <hl> In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the <hl> British Indian Army <hl> to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "sentence_answer": "In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the <hl> British Indian Army <hl> to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British."}
{"question": "In what year did Hyderabad become the capital of Nizams?", "paragraph": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "answer": "1769", "sentence": "In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. <hl> In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1769 <hl> Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1769 <hl> Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams."}
{"question": "On what date did the Indian Army take control of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "answer": "1948. On 17 September", "sentence": "The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo.", "paragraph_sentence": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. <hl> The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. <hl> With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "paragraph_answer": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in <hl> 1948. On 17 September <hl> that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "sentence_answer": "The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in <hl> 1948. On 17 September <hl> that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo."}
{"question": "Which uprising occurred from 1946 to 1951?", "paragraph": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "answer": "the Telangana uprising", "sentence": "Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region.", "paragraph_sentence": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. <hl> Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. <hl> The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "paragraph_answer": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented <hl> the Telangana uprising <hl> against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "sentence_answer": "Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented <hl> the Telangana uprising <hl> against the feudal lords of the Telangana region."}
{"question": "What was the code name for the Indian Army invasion of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "answer": "Operation Polo", "sentence": "On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo .", "paragraph_sentence": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. <hl> On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo . <hl> With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "paragraph_answer": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed <hl> Operation Polo <hl>. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "sentence_answer": "On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed <hl> Operation Polo <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which Nizam defeated by the Indian Army?", "paragraph": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "answer": "Nizam VII", "sentence": "The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948.", "paragraph_sentence": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. <hl> The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. <hl> On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "paragraph_answer": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against <hl> Nizam VII <hl> in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "sentence_answer": "The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against <hl> Nizam VII <hl> in 1948."}
{"question": "On what date did the constitution of India become active?", "paragraph": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "answer": "26 January 1950", "sentence": "The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950 , made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital.", "paragraph_sentence": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. <hl> The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950 , made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. <hl> In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "paragraph_answer": "After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on <hl> 26 January 1950 <hl>, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.", "sentence_answer": "The Constitution of India, which became effective on <hl> 26 January 1950 <hl> , made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital."}
{"question": "On what date was Hyderabad state divided into three?", "paragraph": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "answer": "1 November 1956", "sentence": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. <hl> Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "paragraph_answer": "On <hl> 1 November 1956 <hl> the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 1 November 1956 <hl> the states of India were reorganised by language."}
{"question": "Which three states was Hyderabad state divided into?", "paragraph": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "answer": "Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh", "sentence": "Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh .", "paragraph_sentence": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. <hl> Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh . <hl> The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "paragraph_answer": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of <hl> Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh <hl>. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of <hl> Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh <hl> ."}
{"question": "Hyderabad city became the capital of what state in the mid 20th century?", "paragraph": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "answer": "Andhra Pradesh", "sentence": "Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh .", "paragraph_sentence": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. <hl> Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh . <hl> The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "paragraph_answer": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and <hl> Andhra Pradesh <hl>. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and <hl> Andhra Pradesh <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was Telangana state announced?", "paragraph": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "answer": "30 July 2013", "sentence": "On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years.", "paragraph_sentence": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. <hl> On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. <hl> On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "paragraph_answer": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On <hl> 30 July 2013 <hl> the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 30 July 2013 <hl> the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years."}
{"question": "What date was the official formation of Telangana state?", "paragraph": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.", "answer": "June 2014", "sentence": "With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014 , Telangana state was formed.", "paragraph_sentence": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. <hl> With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014 , Telangana state was formed. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in <hl> June 2014 <hl>, Telangana state was formed.", "sentence_answer": "With the final assent of the President of India in <hl> June 2014 <hl> , Telangana state was formed."}
{"question": "How far south of Delhi, in miles, is Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "answer": "973 mi", "sentence": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres ( 973 mi ) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres ( 973 mi ) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. <hl> It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "paragraph_answer": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (<hl> 973 mi <hl>) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "sentence_answer": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres ( <hl> 973 mi <hl> ) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road."}
{"question": "In what region of the Deccan Plateau is Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "answer": "northern part", "sentence": "It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau.", "paragraph_sentence": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. <hl> It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. <hl> Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "paragraph_answer": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the <hl> northern part <hl> of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "sentence_answer": "It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the <hl> northern part <hl> of the Deccan Plateau."}
{"question": "How large in square kilometers is Greater Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "answer": "650 km2", "sentence": "Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India.", "paragraph_sentence": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. <hl> Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. <hl> With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "paragraph_answer": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers <hl> 650 km2 <hl> (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "sentence_answer": "Greater Hyderabad covers <hl> 650 km2 <hl> (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India."}
{"question": "What are the highest hills in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "answer": "Banjara Hills", "sentence": "With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft).", "paragraph_sentence": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. <hl> With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). <hl> The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "paragraph_answer": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being <hl> Banjara Hills <hl> at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "sentence_answer": "With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being <hl> Banjara Hills <hl> at 672 metres (2,205 ft)."}
{"question": "When was Hussain Sagar lake built?", "paragraph": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "answer": "1562", "sentence": "Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar.", "paragraph_sentence": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". <hl> Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. <hl> As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "paragraph_answer": "Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning \"sea\". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in <hl> 1562 <hl> near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).", "sentence_answer": "Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in <hl> 1562 <hl> near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar."}
{"question": "What is the mean yearly temperature in Hyderabad in Celsius?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "answer": "26.6 \u00b0C", "sentence": "The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F).", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). <hl> The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). <hl> Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is <hl> 26.6 \u00b0C <hl> (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "sentence_answer": "The annual mean temperature is <hl> 26.6 \u00b0C <hl> (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F)."}
{"question": "K\u00f6ppen Aw refers to what kind of climate?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "answer": "tropical wet and dry climate", "sentence": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). <hl> The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has a <hl> tropical wet and dry climate <hl> (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad has a <hl> tropical wet and dry climate <hl> (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh)."}
{"question": "During what months does summer occur in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "answer": "March\u2013June", "sentence": "Summers ( March\u2013June ) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). <hl> Summers ( March\u2013June ) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. <hl> The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (<hl> March\u2013June <hl>) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "sentence_answer": "Summers ( <hl> March\u2013June <hl> ) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June."}
{"question": "What is the typical lowest temperature in Celsius during winter in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "answer": "10 \u00b0C", "sentence": "The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F).", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. <hl> The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). <hl> May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to <hl> 10 \u00b0C <hl> (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "sentence_answer": "The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to <hl> 10 \u00b0C <hl> (50 \u00b0F)."}
{"question": "What is generally the hottest month in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "answer": "May", "sentence": "May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). <hl> May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (K\u00f6ppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (K\u00f6ppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 \u00b0C (79.9 \u00b0F); monthly mean temperatures are 21\u201333 \u00b0C (70\u201391 \u00b0F). Summers (March\u2013June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 \u00b0C (104 \u00b0F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 \u00b0C (50 \u00b0F). <hl> May <hl> is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> May <hl> is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 \u00b0C (79\u2013102 \u00b0F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 \u00b0C (57\u201382 \u00b0F)."}
{"question": "What is the name of the largest zoo in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "answer": "Nehru Zoological Park", "sentence": "Nehru Zoological Park , the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. <hl> Nehru Zoological Park , the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. <hl> Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. <hl> Nehru Zoological Park <hl>, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Nehru Zoological Park <hl> , the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park."}
{"question": "Hyderabad's largest zoo is known as India's first to have what two kinds of animals in a safari park setting?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "answer": "lion and tiger", "sentence": "Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. <hl> Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. <hl> Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a <hl> lion and tiger <hl> safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a <hl> lion and tiger <hl> safari park."}
{"question": "How many national parks does Hyderabad have?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. <hl> Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. <hl> Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has <hl> three <hl> national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad has <hl> three <hl> national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city."}
{"question": "Two of the national parks in Hyderabad are Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park, what is the third?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "answer": "Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park", "sentence": "Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park ), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. <hl> Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park ), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. <hl> Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and <hl> Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park <hl>), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and <hl> Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park <hl> ), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city."}
{"question": "Which environmental preserve in Hyderabad is known to be a home for migratory birds?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "answer": "Patancheru Lake", "sentence": "Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake , which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. <hl> Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake , which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. <hl> Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and <hl> Patancheru Lake <hl>, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and <hl> Patancheru Lake <hl> , which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world."}
{"question": "What is the entity that controls the infrastructure of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "answer": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC)", "sentence": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. <hl> Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) <hl> oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) <hl> oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards."}
{"question": "How many municipal wards are within Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "answer": "150", "sentence": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. <hl> Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "paragraph_answer": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass <hl> 150 <hl> municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "sentence_answer": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass <hl> 150 <hl> municipal wards."}
{"question": "In what year did the GHMC form?", "paragraph": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "answer": "2007", "sentence": "The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. <hl> The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. <hl> The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "paragraph_answer": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April <hl> 2007 <hl> by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "sentence_answer": "The GHMC was formed in April <hl> 2007 <hl> by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan."}
{"question": "How much area, in square miles, does the GHMC oversee?", "paragraph": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "answer": "250 sq mi", "sentence": "The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 ( 250 sq mi ).:3", "paragraph_sentence": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. <hl> The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 ( 250 sq mi ).:3 <hl> In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "paragraph_answer": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (<hl> 250 sq mi <hl>).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "sentence_answer": "The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 ( <hl> 250 sq mi <hl> ).:3"}
{"question": "Which board oversees military areas within Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "answer": "The Secunderabad Cantonment Board", "sentence": "The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2", "paragraph_sentence": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. <hl> The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 <hl> The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "paragraph_answer": "The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 \"circles\", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. <hl> The Secunderabad Cantonment Board <hl> is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Secunderabad Cantonment Board <hl> is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2"}
{"question": "Which Hyderabad agency is responsible for the largest area?", "paragraph": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "answer": "Hyderabad Police", "sentence": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). <hl> The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "paragraph_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the <hl> Hyderabad Police <hl> area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "sentence_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the <hl> Hyderabad Police <hl> area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA)."}
{"question": "What is the HMDA mainly responsible for?", "paragraph": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "answer": "urban planning", "sentence": "The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). <hl> The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. <hl> It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "paragraph_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical <hl> urban planning <hl> agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "sentence_answer": "The HMDA is an apolitical <hl> urban planning <hl> agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city."}
{"question": "What does the acronym HMDA stand for?", "paragraph": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "answer": "Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority", "sentence": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). <hl> The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "paragraph_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the <hl> Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority <hl> (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "sentence_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the <hl> Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority <hl> (HMDA)."}
{"question": "What does the acronym HMWSSB represent?", "paragraph": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "answer": "Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board", "sentence": "It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "paragraph_sentence": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. <hl> It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the <hl> Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board <hl> (HMWSSB).", "sentence_answer": "It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the <hl> Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board <hl> (HMWSSB)."}
{"question": "Hyderabad city can be referred to as something else as administrative agencies are concerned, what?", "paragraph": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "answer": "GHMC area", "sentence": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). <hl> The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "paragraph_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the <hl> GHMC area <hl> (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).", "sentence_answer": "The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the <hl> GHMC area <hl> (\"Hyderabad city\") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA)."}
{"question": "What dam began to provide water to Hyderabad in 2005?", "paragraph": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "answer": "Nagarjuna Sagar Dam", "sentence": "In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand.", "paragraph_sentence": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. <hl> In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. <hl> The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "paragraph_answer": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from <hl> Nagarjuna Sagar Dam <hl> to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "sentence_answer": "In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from <hl> Nagarjuna Sagar Dam <hl> to meet increasing demand."}
{"question": "Along with dealing with sewerage and the water supply, what is one other thing the HMWSSB regulates?", "paragraph": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "answer": "rainwater harvesting", "sentence": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting , sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting , sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. <hl> In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "paragraph_answer": "The HMWSSB regulates <hl> rainwater harvesting <hl>, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "sentence_answer": "The HMWSSB regulates <hl> rainwater harvesting <hl> , sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs."}
{"question": "How long is the pipeline from the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam which the HMWSSB operates?", "paragraph": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "answer": "116-kilometre-long (72 mi)", "sentence": "a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand.", "paragraph_sentence": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating <hl> a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. <hl> The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "paragraph_answer": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a <hl> 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) <hl> water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) <hl> water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand."}
{"question": "Which company is responsible for electricity in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "answer": "Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited", "sentence": "The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply.", "paragraph_sentence": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. <hl> The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. <hl> As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "paragraph_answer": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The <hl> Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited <hl> manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited <hl> manages electricity supply."}
{"question": "Which entity is responsible for the fire stations in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "answer": "Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department", "sentence": "As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department .", "paragraph_sentence": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. <hl> As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department . <hl> The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "paragraph_answer": "The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the <hl> Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department <hl>. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.", "sentence_answer": "As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the <hl> Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the site where Hyderabad's solid waste is dumped?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "answer": "Jawaharnagar", "sentence": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar . <hl> Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in <hl> Jawaharnagar <hl>. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in <hl> Jawaharnagar <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which entity is responsible for disposing Hyderabad's solid waste?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "answer": "Integrated Solid Waste Management project", "sentence": "Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. <hl> Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. <hl> Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the <hl> Integrated Solid Waste Management project <hl> which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "sentence_answer": "Disposal is managed by the <hl> Integrated Solid Waste Management project <hl> which was started by the GHMC in 2010."}
{"question": "What percentage of the air pollution in Hyderabad comes solely from vehicles?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "answer": "20\u201350%", "sentence": "The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). <hl> The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. <hl> Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: <hl> 20\u201350% <hl> from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "sentence_answer": "The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: <hl> 20\u201350% <hl> from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish."}
{"question": "How many deaths are believed to be caused in Hyderabad due to air pollution each year?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "answer": "1,700\u20133,000", "sentence": "Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. <hl> Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. <hl> Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at <hl> 1,700\u20133,000 <hl> each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "sentence_answer": "Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at <hl> 1,700\u20133,000 <hl> each year."}
{"question": "What is the rating for the hardness of Hyderabad's water?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "answer": "1000 ppm", "sentence": "Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm , around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. <hl> Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm , around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. <hl> This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20\u201350% from vehicles, 40\u201370% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10\u201330% from industrial discharges and 3\u201310% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700\u20133,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to <hl> 1000 ppm <hl>, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.", "sentence_answer": "Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to <hl> 1000 ppm <hl> , around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels."}
{"question": "How many government hospitals did Hyderabad have in 2010?", "paragraph": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "answer": "50", "sentence": "As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. <hl> As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. <hl> For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had <hl> 50 <hl> government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had <hl> 50 <hl> government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000."}
{"question": "How many beds are available in all of Hyderabad's hospitals and nursing homes combined?", "paragraph": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "answer": "12,000", "sentence": "As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. <hl> As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. <hl> For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around <hl> 12,000 <hl> hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around <hl> 12,000 <hl> hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000."}
{"question": "How many nurses per 10,000 persons are there in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "answer": "14 nurses", "sentence": "For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. <hl> For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. <hl> The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, <hl> 14 nurses <hl> and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "sentence_answer": "For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, <hl> 14 nurses <hl> and 6 physicians."}
{"question": "Which agency is in charge of health and wellness services in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "answer": "Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare", "sentence": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. <hl> As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare <hl> is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare <hl> is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services."}
{"question": "People choose to use what type of facility due to long distances and poor care at Government hospitals?", "paragraph": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "answer": "Private clinics", "sentence": "Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. <hl> Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. <hl> Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "paragraph_answer": "The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]\u201311, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. <hl> Private clinics <hl> are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Private clinics <hl> are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60\u201361 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built."}
{"question": "What percentage of the children in Hyderabad city had basic vaccinations in 2005?", "paragraph": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "answer": "61%", "sentence": "Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. <hl> Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 <hl> The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only <hl> 61% <hl> of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "sentence_answer": "Only <hl> 61% <hl> of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98"}
{"question": "What is the only city that had a lower vaccination rate for children than Hyderabad in the 2005 National Family Health Survey?", "paragraph": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "answer": "Meerut", "sentence": "Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut .:98", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. <hl> Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut .:98 <hl> The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except <hl> Meerut <hl>.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "sentence_answer": "Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except <hl> Meerut <hl> .:98"}
{"question": "What was the fertility rate of Hyderabad according to a 2005 survey?", "paragraph": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "answer": "1.8", "sentence": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8 ,:47 which is below the replacement rate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8 ,:47 which is below the replacement rate. <hl> Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is <hl> 1.8 <hl>,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "sentence_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is <hl> 1.8 <hl> ,:47 which is below the replacement rate."}
{"question": "What was the child vaccination rate according to a 2005 survey of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "answer": "61%", "sentence": "Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. <hl> Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 <hl> The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only <hl> 61% <hl> of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "sentence_answer": "Only <hl> 61% <hl> of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98"}
{"question": "Only one city, according to a 2005 survey, had a lower child vaccination rate than Hyderabad, what was it?", "paragraph": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "answer": "Meerut", "sentence": "Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut .:98", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. <hl> Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut .:98 <hl> The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except <hl> Meerut <hl>.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "sentence_answer": "Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except <hl> Meerut <hl> .:98"}
{"question": "According to a 2005 survey what was in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "answer": "35 per 1,000 live births", "sentence": "The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births , and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 <hl> The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births , and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 <hl> The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was <hl> 35 per 1,000 live births <hl>, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "sentence_answer": "The infant mortality rate was <hl> 35 per 1,000 live births <hl> , and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97"}
{"question": "What percentage of children in a 2005 survey of people in Hyderabad were underweight?", "paragraph": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "answer": "20%", "sentence": "The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 <hl> The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57 <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to <hl> 20% <hl> of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57", "sentence_answer": "The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to <hl> 20% <hl> of children are underweight,:44, 55\u201356 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57"}
{"question": "What was the area of Hyderabad before the GHMC?", "paragraph": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "answer": "175 km2 (68 sq mi)", "sentence": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). <hl> Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "paragraph_answer": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from <hl> 175 km2 (68 sq mi) <hl> to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "sentence_answer": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from <hl> 175 km2 (68 sq mi) <hl> to 650 km2 (250 sq mi)."}
{"question": "What was the population of Hyderabad in the 2011 census?", "paragraph": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "answer": "6,809,970", "sentence": "Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city.", "paragraph_sentence": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). <hl> Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. <hl> As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "paragraph_answer": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to <hl> 6,809,970 <hl> in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "sentence_answer": "Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to <hl> 6,809,970 <hl> in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city."}
{"question": "How many females were in Hyderabad for the 2011 census?", "paragraph": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "answer": "3,309,168", "sentence": "There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000.", "paragraph_sentence": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. <hl> There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. <hl> Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "paragraph_answer": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and <hl> 3,309,168 <hl> female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "sentence_answer": "There are 3,500,802 male and <hl> 3,309,168 <hl> female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000."}
{"question": "What is the literacy rate of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "answer": "82.96%", "sentence": "Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%.", "paragraph_sentence": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. <hl> Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. <hl> The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "paragraph_answer": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at <hl> 82.96% <hl> (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "sentence_answer": "Literacy stands at <hl> 82.96% <hl> (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%."}
{"question": "What was the population density in Hyderabad in 2011?", "paragraph": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "answer": "18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi)", "sentence": "As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi) .", "paragraph_sentence": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. <hl> As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi) . <hl> At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "paragraph_answer": "When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is <hl> 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi) <hl>. At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens\u2014a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0\u20136 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls\u2014a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2011[update], the population density is <hl> 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi) <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the people who live in Hyderabad called?", "paragraph": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "answer": "Hyderabadi", "sentence": "Referred to as \" Hyderabadi \", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Referred to as \" Hyderabadi \", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. <hl> Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "paragraph_answer": "Referred to as \"<hl> Hyderabadi <hl>\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "sentence_answer": "Referred to as \" <hl> Hyderabadi <hl> \", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities."}
{"question": "There are two main languages spoken by the people of Hyderabad, what are they?", "paragraph": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "answer": "Telugu and Urdu", "sentence": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. <hl> Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "paragraph_answer": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly <hl> Telugu and Urdu <hl> speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "sentence_answer": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly <hl> Telugu and Urdu <hl> speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities."}
{"question": "What is the main language of most Muslims from Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "answer": "Hyderabadi Urdu", "sentence": "Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu , which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled.", "paragraph_sentence": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. <hl> Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu , which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. <hl> Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "paragraph_answer": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called <hl> Hyderabadi Urdu <hl>, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called <hl> Hyderabadi Urdu <hl> , which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled."}
{"question": "Which is the largest ethnic community in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "answer": "Hadhrami", "sentence": "Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "paragraph_sentence": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. <hl> Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. <hl> Hadhrami <hl> Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Hadhrami <hl> Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams."}
{"question": "Hyderabadi is a type of what langauge?", "paragraph": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "answer": "Dakhini", "sentence": "Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini , and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled.", "paragraph_sentence": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. <hl> Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini , and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. <hl> Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "paragraph_answer": "Referred to as \"Hyderabadi\", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of <hl> Dakhini <hl>, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of <hl> Dakhini <hl> , and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled."}
{"question": "Which percentage of Hyderabad's population is below the poverty line?", "paragraph": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "answer": "13%", "sentence": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. <hl> According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "paragraph_answer": "In the greater metropolitan area, <hl> 13% <hl> of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "sentence_answer": "In the greater metropolitan area, <hl> 13% <hl> of the population live below the poverty line."}
{"question": "What population of Hyderabad lived in slums in 2012?", "paragraph": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "answer": "1.7 million", "sentence": "According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million , of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. <hl> According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million , of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. <hl> About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "paragraph_answer": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of <hl> 1.7 million <hl>, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "sentence_answer": "According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of <hl> 1.7 million <hl> , of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements."}
{"question": "What is the literacy rate in the slums of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "answer": "60\u201380%", "sentence": "About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. <hl> About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. <hl> A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "paragraph_answer": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is <hl> 60\u201380% <hl> and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "sentence_answer": "About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is <hl> 60\u201380% <hl> and female literacy is 52\u201373%."}
{"question": "In the slums of Hyderabad how many private schools are there?", "paragraph": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "answer": "175", "sentence": "There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70", "paragraph_sentence": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. <hl> There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 <hl> According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "paragraph_answer": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, <hl> 175 <hl> private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "sentence_answer": "There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, <hl> 175 <hl> private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70"}
{"question": "What percentage of children in Hyderabad are working hazardous jobs?", "paragraph": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "answer": "35%", "sentence": "Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "paragraph_sentence": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. <hl> Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59 <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the \"core\" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60\u201380% and female literacy is 52\u201373%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to \u20b920000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is \u20b924000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5\u201314 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, <hl> 35% <hl> are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59", "sentence_answer": "Among the working children, <hl> 35% <hl> are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59"}
{"question": "In what region of Hyderabad is Mecca Masjid?", "paragraph": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "answer": "south central Hyderabad", "sentence": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad , such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad , such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. <hl> North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "paragraph_answer": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in <hl> south central Hyderabad <hl>, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "sentence_answer": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in <hl> south central Hyderabad <hl> , such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle."}
{"question": "South central Hyderabad is generally the home to what attractions?", "paragraph": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "answer": "historic and tourist sites", "sentence": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. <hl> North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "paragraph_answer": "Many <hl> historic and tourist sites <hl> lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "sentence_answer": "Many <hl> historic and tourist sites <hl> lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle."}
{"question": "On what side of the river is Begum Bazaar?", "paragraph": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "answer": "North", "sentence": "North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. <hl> North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. <hl> North <hl> of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> North <hl> of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium."}
{"question": "Where in Hyderabad is the Secunderabad Railway Station?", "paragraph": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "answer": "North of central Hyderabad", "sentence": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. <hl> Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> North of central Hyderabad <hl> lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> North of central Hyderabad <hl> lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station."}
{"question": "In what region of Hyderabad city is Jubilee Hills located?", "paragraph": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "answer": "the northwest part", "sentence": "In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur.", "paragraph_sentence": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. <hl> In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. <hl> The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "paragraph_answer": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In <hl> the northwest part <hl> of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> the northwest part <hl> of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur."}
{"question": "Where in Hyderabad would one find defence centres?", "paragraph": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "answer": "the eastern part", "sentence": "In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City.", "paragraph_sentence": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. <hl> In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. <hl> The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "paragraph_answer": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In <hl> the eastern part <hl> of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> the eastern part <hl> of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City."}
{"question": "What area in Hyderabad contains the Hyderabad Airport?", "paragraph": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "answer": "Cyberabad", "sentence": "The \" Cyberabad \" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s.", "paragraph_sentence": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. <hl> The \" Cyberabad \" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. <hl> It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "paragraph_answer": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"<hl> Cyberabad <hl>\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "sentence_answer": "The \" <hl> Cyberabad <hl> \" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s."}
{"question": "Cyberabad contains a national park, what is it?", "paragraph": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.", "answer": "Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park", "sentence": "It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park .", "paragraph_sentence": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. <hl> It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The \"Cyberabad\" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and <hl> Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and <hl> Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park <hl> ."}
{"question": "After a flood in what year did Hyderabad expand?", "paragraph": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "answer": "1908", "sentence": "After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. <hl> After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. <hl> In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "paragraph_answer": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the <hl> 1908 <hl> flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "sentence_answer": "After the <hl> 1908 <hl> flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad."}
{"question": "Which river flooded in 1908, preceding the expansion of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "answer": "Musi River", "sentence": "After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River , the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. <hl> After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River , the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. <hl> In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "paragraph_answer": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the <hl> Musi River <hl>, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "sentence_answer": "After the 1908 flooding of the <hl> Musi River <hl> , the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad."}
{"question": "The Mir Osman Ali Khan had a title, what was it?", "paragraph": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "answer": "the VIIth Nizam", "sentence": "After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan ( the VIIth Nizam ), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. <hl> After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan ( the VIIth Nizam ), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. <hl> In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "paragraph_answer": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (<hl> the VIIth Nizam <hl>), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "sentence_answer": "After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan ( <hl> the VIIth Nizam <hl> ), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad."}
{"question": "What did India declare Hyderabad om 2012?", "paragraph": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "answer": "Best heritage city of India", "sentence": "In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \" Best heritage city of India \".", "paragraph_sentence": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. <hl> In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \" Best heritage city of India \". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"<hl> Best heritage city of India <hl>\".", "sentence_answer": "In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \" <hl> Best heritage city of India <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What type of heritage architecture is mainly displayed in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "answer": "Indo-Islamic architecture", "sentence": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. <hl> After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "paragraph_answer": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase <hl> Indo-Islamic architecture <hl> influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first \"Best heritage city of India\".", "sentence_answer": "Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase <hl> Indo-Islamic architecture <hl> influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles."}
{"question": "What influence did Qutb Shahi architecture borrow from?", "paragraph": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "answer": "classical Persian architecture", "sentence": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. <hl> The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "paragraph_answer": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed <hl> classical Persian architecture <hl> featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "sentence_answer": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed <hl> classical Persian architecture <hl> featuring domes and colossal arches."}
{"question": "What is the oldest piece of Qutb Shahi architecture in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "answer": "the ruins of Golconda fort", "sentence": "The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. <hl> The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. <hl> The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "paragraph_answer": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is <hl> the ruins of Golconda fort <hl> built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "sentence_answer": "The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is <hl> the ruins of Golconda fort <hl> built in the 16th century."}
{"question": "What iconic historic structure is in the center of old Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "answer": "the Charminar", "sentence": "Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road.", "paragraph_sentence": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. <hl> Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. <hl> At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "paragraph_answer": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these <hl> the Charminar <hl> has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "sentence_answer": "Among these <hl> the Charminar <hl> has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road."}
{"question": "The government of India proposed that The Charminar become a UNESCO World Heritage site, what other two monuments were suggested for the same status?", "paragraph": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "answer": "Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort", "sentence": "The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "paragraph_sentence": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. <hl> The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318 <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, <hl> Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort <hl> are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "sentence_answer": "The Charminar, <hl> Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort <hl> are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318"}
{"question": "How high are the minarets on the Charminar?", "paragraph": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "answer": "56 m (184 ft)", "sentence": "At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft) -high minaret.", "paragraph_sentence": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. <hl> At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft) -high minaret. <hl> Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "paragraph_answer": "Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a <hl> 56 m (184 ft) <hl>-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11\u201318", "sentence_answer": "At each corner stands a <hl> 56 m (184 ft) <hl> -high minaret."}
{"question": "The Chowmahalla Palace represents what type of architecture?", "paragraph": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "answer": "Nizam architecture", "sentence": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. <hl> It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "paragraph_answer": "Among the oldest surviving examples of <hl> Nizam architecture <hl> in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "sentence_answer": "Among the oldest surviving examples of <hl> Nizam architecture <hl> in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power."}
{"question": "The royal court of Chowmahalla palace is an example what style of architecture?", "paragraph": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "answer": "Neoclassical", "sentence": "It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court.", "paragraph_sentence": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. <hl> It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. <hl> The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "paragraph_answer": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its <hl> Neoclassical <hl> royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "sentence_answer": "It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its <hl> Neoclassical <hl> royal court."}
{"question": "What century was Bella Vista Palace built?", "paragraph": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "answer": "19th century", "sentence": "The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century .", "paragraph_sentence": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. <hl> The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century . <hl> During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "paragraph_answer": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the <hl> 19th century <hl>. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "sentence_answer": "The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the <hl> 19th century <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which family constructed the Basheer Bagh Palace?", "paragraph": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "answer": "Paigah family", "sentence": "Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family .:16\u201317", "paragraph_sentence": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. <hl> Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family .:16\u201317 <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the <hl> Paigah family <hl>.:16\u201317", "sentence_answer": "Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the <hl> Paigah family <hl> .:16\u201317"}
{"question": "Which palace in Hyderabad did the work of Andrea Palladio influence?", "paragraph": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "answer": "Falaknuma Palace", "sentence": "The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. <hl> The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. <hl> During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "paragraph_answer": "Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include <hl> Falaknuma Palace <hl> (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16\u201317", "sentence_answer": "The other palaces include <hl> Falaknuma Palace <hl> (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century."}
{"question": "Where was Hyderabad ranked in 2012 as a producer of GDP in Talangana?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "answer": "the largest", "sentence": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. <hl> Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is <hl> the largest <hl> contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad is <hl> the largest <hl> contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012."}
{"question": "Where was Hyderabad ranked in India in 2012 in terms of deposits?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "answer": "sixth largest", "sentence": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. <hl> Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the <hl> sixth largest <hl> deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the <hl> sixth largest <hl> deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012."}
{"question": "What was the GDP of Hyderabad in US dollars in 2011-2012?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "answer": "$74 billion", "sentence": "Its US $74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. <hl> Its US $74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. <hl> Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US<hl> $74 billion <hl> GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "sentence_answer": "Its US <hl> $74 billion <hl> GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312."}
{"question": "How many people were employed by the Andhra Pradesh government in 2006?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "answer": "113,098", "sentence": "As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh ( 113,098 employees) and India (85,155).", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). <hl> As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh ( 113,098 employees) and India (85,155). <hl> According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (<hl> 113,098 <hl> employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh ( <hl> 113,098 <hl> employees) and India (85,155)."}
{"question": "What percentage of females in Hyderabad were employed in 2005?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "answer": "19%", "sentence": "According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). <hl> According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. <hl> The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011\u201312. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was \u20b944300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and <hl> 19% <hl> of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.", "sentence_answer": "According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and <hl> 19% <hl> of females in the city were employed."}
{"question": "In the 18th century there was one global trading hub for large diamonds, what was it?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "answer": "Hyderabad", "sentence": "Hyderabad 's", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad 's <hl> role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Hyderabad <hl>'s role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Hyderabad <hl> 's"}
{"question": "When did railway expansion in Hyderabad occur?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "answer": "the late 19th century", "sentence": "Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century , helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. <hl> Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century , helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. <hl> From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in <hl> the late 19th century <hl>, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "sentence_answer": "Industrialisation began under the Nizams in <hl> the late 19th century <hl> , helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports."}
{"question": "What did the Hyderabad Stock Exchange come to be known as?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "answer": "Hyderabad Securities", "sentence": "The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. <hl> The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). <hl> In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to <hl> Hyderabad Securities <hl> formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "sentence_answer": "The city is home to <hl> Hyderabad Securities <hl> formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)."}
{"question": "During what era was The Defence Research and Development Organisation founded?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "answer": "From the 1950s to the 1970s", "sentence": "From the 1950s to the 1970s , Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. <hl> From the 1950s to the 1970s , Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. <hl> The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. <hl> From the 1950s to the 1970s <hl>, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> From the 1950s to the 1970s <hl> , Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city."}
{"question": "At the end of 2014 what entity would handle the the transaction services for BSE-Mumbai?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "answer": "Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)", "sentence": "In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). <hl> In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. <hl> The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name \"City of Pearls\" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the <hl> Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) <hl> facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.", "sentence_answer": "In 2013, the <hl> Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) <hl> facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014."}
{"question": "In what year was Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited established?", "paragraph": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "answer": "1961", "sentence": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. <hl> As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "paragraph_answer": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in <hl> 1961 <hl> was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "sentence_answer": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in <hl> 1961 <hl> was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city."}
{"question": "In 2010 what percentage of India's bulk pharmaceuticals were produced in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "answer": "one third", "sentence": "As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\".", "paragraph_sentence": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. <hl> As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". <hl> Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "paragraph_answer": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured <hl> one third <hl> of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2010[update], the city manufactured <hl> one third <hl> of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\"."}
{"question": "What percentage of Andhra Pradesh's IT infrastructure exports originated from Cyberabad in 2013?", "paragraph": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "answer": "98%", "sentence": "As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). <hl> As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. <hl> The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "paragraph_answer": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and <hl> 98% <hl> of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and <hl> 98% <hl> of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city."}
{"question": "How many ITES and IT companies are located in HITEC city?", "paragraph": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "answer": "more than 1300", "sentence": "The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3", "paragraph_sentence": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. <hl> The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 <hl> In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "paragraph_answer": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to <hl> more than 1300 <hl> IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "sentence_answer": "The city is home to <hl> more than 1300 <hl> IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3"}
{"question": "What rank within India was HITEC City given by the World Bank Group in 2009?", "paragraph": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "answer": "second best", "sentence": "In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business.", "paragraph_sentence": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 <hl> In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. <hl> The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "paragraph_answer": "The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as \"India's pharmaceutical capital\" and the \"Genome Valley of India\". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the <hl> second best <hl> Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.", "sentence_answer": "In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the <hl> second best <hl> Indian city for doing business."}
{"question": "What percentage of Hyderabad's employed are employed informally?", "paragraph": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "answer": "30%", "sentence": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 <hl> According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "paragraph_answer": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs <hl> 30% <hl> of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "sentence_answer": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs <hl> 30% <hl> of the labour force.:71"}
{"question": "In 2007 how many street vendors did Hyderabad have?", "paragraph": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "answer": "40\u201350,000", "sentence": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25", "paragraph_sentence": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 <hl> According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 <hl> Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "paragraph_answer": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had <hl> 40\u201350,000 <hl> street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "sentence_answer": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had <hl> 40\u201350,000 <hl> street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25"}
{"question": "What percentage of the street vendors in Hyderabad were male in 2007?", "paragraph": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "answer": "84%", "sentence": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25", "paragraph_sentence": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 <hl> According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 <hl> Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "paragraph_answer": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, <hl> 84% <hl> are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "sentence_answer": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, <hl> 84% <hl> are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25"}
{"question": "Of the street vendors in Hyderabad what percentage owned their own stall in 2007?", "paragraph": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "answer": "four fifths", "sentence": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25", "paragraph_sentence": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 <hl> According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 <hl> Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "paragraph_answer": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and <hl> four fifths <hl> are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "sentence_answer": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and <hl> four fifths <hl> are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25"}
{"question": "In 2007 what percentage of street vendors in Hyderabad borrowed money to finance their operations?", "paragraph": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "answer": "8%", "sentence": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25", "paragraph_sentence": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 <hl> According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 <hl> Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "paragraph_answer": "Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only <hl> 8% <hl> borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71", "sentence_answer": "According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40\u201350,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are \"stationary vendors\" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15\u201316 Most are financed through personal savings; only <hl> 8% <hl> borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from \u20b950 (74\u00a2 US) to \u20b9800 (US$12) per day.:25"}
{"question": "What event pushed Hyderabad to the top of India's cultural centres?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "answer": "the decline of the Mughal Empire", "sentence": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire . <hl> After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with <hl> the decline of the Mughal Empire <hl>. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with <hl> the decline of the Mughal Empire <hl> ."}
{"question": "What major event in India in 1857 caused migration of peformance artists into Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "answer": "the fall of Delhi", "sentence": "After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. <hl> After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. <hl> This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After <hl> the fall of Delhi <hl> in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "sentence_answer": "After <hl> the fall of Delhi <hl> in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu."}
{"question": "What are the official languages of Telangana?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "answer": "Telugu and Urdu", "sentence": "A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii <hl> A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. <hl> The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both <hl> Telugu and Urdu <hl> are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "sentence_answer": "A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both <hl> Telugu and Urdu <hl> are official languages of Telangana."}
{"question": "Which religious group holds the Eid ul-Fitr festival in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "answer": "Muslims", "sentence": "The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims .", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. <hl> The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by <hl> Muslims <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by <hl> Muslims <hl> ."}
{"question": "The festival of Diwali is a tradition of what faith?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "answer": "Hindu", "sentence": "This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. <hl> This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii <hl> A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of <hl> Hindu <hl> and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north\u2013south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.", "sentence_answer": "This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of <hl> Hindu <hl> and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii"}
{"question": "What are mushairas?", "paragraph": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "answer": "poetic symposia", "sentence": "The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas ( poetic symposia ).", "paragraph_sentence": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. <hl> The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas ( poetic symposia ). <hl> The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (<hl> poetic symposia <hl>). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas ( <hl> poetic symposia <hl> )."}
{"question": "Which dynasty supported the Deccani Urdu literature movement?", "paragraph": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "answer": "The Qutb Shahi dynasty", "sentence": "The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). <hl> The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. <hl> Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). <hl> The Qutb Shahi dynasty <hl> particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Qutb Shahi dynasty <hl> particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu."}
{"question": "When was Lazzat Un Nisa completed?", "paragraph": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "answer": "the 15th century", "sentence": "Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. <hl> Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. <hl> The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in <hl> the 15th century <hl> at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in <hl> the 15th century <hl> at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts."}
{"question": "At what location did Lazzat Un Nisa get compiled?", "paragraph": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "answer": "Qutb Shahi courts", "sentence": "Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts , contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. <hl> Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts , contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. <hl> The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "paragraph_answer": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at <hl> Qutb Shahi courts <hl>, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at <hl> Qutb Shahi courts <hl> , contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts."}
{"question": "Who wrote Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa?", "paragraph": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "answer": "Mah Laqa Bai", "sentence": "In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai \u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. <hl> In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai \u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by <hl> Mah Laqa Bai <hl>\u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad.", "sentence_answer": "In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by <hl> Mah Laqa Bai <hl> \u2014the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan\u2014was published in Hyderabad."}
{"question": "In what year did the Hyderabad Literary Festival start?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "answer": "2010", "sentence": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010 , showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010 , showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. <hl> Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since <hl> 2010 <hl>, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since <hl> 2010 <hl> , showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity."}
{"question": "What is the name of the largest public library in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "answer": "State Central Library", "sentence": "Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library , the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. <hl> Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library , the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the <hl> State Central Library <hl>, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "sentence_answer": "Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the <hl> State Central Library <hl> , the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram."}
{"question": "What is one of the activities Telugu Academy is credited with encouraging?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "answer": "the advancement of literature", "sentence": "Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. <hl> Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. <hl> Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in <hl> the advancement of literature <hl> include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "sentence_answer": "Organisations engaged in <hl> the advancement of literature <hl> include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad."}
{"question": "In what year was the biggest public library in Hyderabad created?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "answer": "1891", "sentence": "Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891 , and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. <hl> Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891 , and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in <hl> 1891 <hl>, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.", "sentence_answer": "Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in <hl> 1891 <hl> , and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram."}
{"question": "What is the Deccan region known for culturally?", "paragraph": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "answer": "music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam", "sentence": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. <hl> As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "paragraph_answer": "South Indian <hl> music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam <hl> styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "sentence_answer": "South Indian <hl> music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam <hl> styles are popular in the Deccan region."}
{"question": "What is a tawaif?", "paragraph": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "answer": "courtesans", "sentence": "As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif ( courtesans ).", "paragraph_sentence": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. <hl> As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif ( courtesans ). <hl> These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "paragraph_answer": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (<hl> courtesans <hl>). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "sentence_answer": "As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif ( <hl> courtesans <hl> )."}
{"question": "What kind of music is dholak ke geet?", "paragraph": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "answer": "songs based on local Folklore", "sentence": "Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore ), and", "paragraph_sentence": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. <hl> Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore ), and <hl> qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "paragraph_answer": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household <hl> songs based on local Folklore <hl>), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "sentence_answer": "Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household <hl> songs based on local Folklore <hl> ), and"}
{"question": "What entity is responsible for the Taramati Music Festival?", "paragraph": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "answer": "The state government", "sentence": "The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. <hl> The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. <hl> The state government <hl> organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The state government <hl> organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music."}
{"question": "During the rule of what two groups did dance and music from North India become popular?", "paragraph": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "answer": "the Mughals and Nizams", "sentence": "As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams , and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans).", "paragraph_sentence": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. <hl> As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams , and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). <hl> These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "paragraph_answer": "South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of <hl> the Mughals and Nizams <hl>, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.", "sentence_answer": "As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of <hl> the Mughals and Nizams <hl> , and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans)."}
{"question": "What type of art might one encounter at Lalithakala Thoranam?", "paragraph": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "answer": "theatre and drama", "sentence": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama , the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama , the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. <hl> Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the city is not particularly noted for <hl> theatre and drama <hl>, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "sentence_answer": "Although the city is not particularly noted for <hl> theatre and drama <hl> , the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam."}
{"question": "What is Numaish?", "paragraph": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "answer": "annual exhibition of local and national consumer products", "sentence": "Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products , does feature some musical performances.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. <hl> Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products , does feature some musical performances. <hl> The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular <hl> annual exhibition of local and national consumer products <hl>, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "sentence_answer": "Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular <hl> annual exhibition of local and national consumer products <hl> , does feature some musical performances."}
{"question": "What is a popular name for the Telugu film industry?", "paragraph": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "answer": "Tollywood", "sentence": "The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. <hl> The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. <hl> Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as <hl> Tollywood <hl> and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "sentence_answer": "The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as <hl> Tollywood <hl> and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood."}
{"question": "Where was the Telugu film industry ranked in 2012 in India in comparison to Bollywood?", "paragraph": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "answer": "second largest", "sentence": "The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. <hl> The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. <hl> Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the <hl> second largest <hl> number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "sentence_answer": "The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the <hl> second largest <hl> number of films in India behind Bollywood."}
{"question": "What did Guinness World Records say of Ramoji Film City was in 20015?", "paragraph": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.", "answer": "world's largest film studio", "sentence": "In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio .", "paragraph_sentence": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. <hl> In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the <hl> world's largest film studio <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the <hl> world's largest film studio <hl> ."}
{"question": "Golconda is a type of what kind of painting?", "paragraph": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "answer": "Deccani painting", "sentence": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting . <hl> Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "paragraph_answer": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of <hl> Deccani painting <hl>. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "sentence_answer": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of <hl> Deccani painting <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what century did Golconda painting develop?", "paragraph": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "answer": "16th century", "sentence": "Developed during the 16th century , the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore.", "paragraph_sentence": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. <hl> Developed during the 16th century , the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. <hl> A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "paragraph_answer": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the <hl> 16th century <hl>, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "sentence_answer": "Developed during the <hl> 16th century <hl> , the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore."}
{"question": "What type of colors would one generally find in Golconda painting?", "paragraph": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "answer": "luminous gold and white", "sentence": "A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style.", "paragraph_sentence": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. <hl> A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. <hl> The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "paragraph_answer": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of <hl> luminous gold and white <hl> colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "sentence_answer": "A significant use of <hl> luminous gold and white <hl> colours is generally found in the Golconda style."}
{"question": "In what century did Hyderabad style painting develop?", "paragraph": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "answer": "17th century", "sentence": "The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams.", "paragraph_sentence": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. <hl> The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. <hl> Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "paragraph_answer": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the <hl> 17th century <hl> under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "sentence_answer": "The Hyderabad style originated in the <hl> 17th century <hl> under the Nizams."}
{"question": "What types of scenes does Hyderabad style painting generally contain?", "paragraph": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.", "answer": "regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery", "sentence": "Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery .", "paragraph_sentence": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. <hl> Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts <hl> regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts <hl> regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery <hl> ."}
{"question": "In which century did metalwork become popular in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "answer": "the 18th century", "sentence": "Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. <hl> Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. <hl> Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "paragraph_answer": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during <hl> the 18th century <hl> and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "sentence_answer": "Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during <hl> the 18th century <hl> and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads."}
{"question": "Under which act is the Geographical Indication tag granted?", "paragraph": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "answer": "the WTO act", "sentence": "Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act ;", "paragraph_sentence": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. <hl> Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act ; <hl> and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "paragraph_answer": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of <hl> the WTO act <hl>; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "sentence_answer": "Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of <hl> the WTO act <hl> ;"}
{"question": "What is Zardozi an example of?", "paragraph": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "answer": "embroidery works on textile", "sentence": "Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. <hl> Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. <hl> Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "paragraph_answer": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, <hl> embroidery works on textile <hl> that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "sentence_answer": "Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, <hl> embroidery works on textile <hl> that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads."}
{"question": "What is Kalamkari?", "paragraph": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "answer": "a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile", "sentence": "Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. <hl> Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. <hl> This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "paragraph_answer": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, <hl> a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile <hl> that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "sentence_answer": "Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, <hl> a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile <hl> that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh."}
{"question": "In what style is Kalamkari made?", "paragraph": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "answer": "a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti", "sentence": "This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. <hl> This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. <hl> Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "paragraph_answer": "Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both <hl> a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti <hl> and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing \"one of the largest one-man-collections in the world\"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.", "sentence_answer": "This craft is distinguished in having both <hl> a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti <hl> and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques."}
{"question": "What type of foods are generally thought of as a part of Hyderabadi cuisine?", "paragraph": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "answer": "rice, wheat and meat dishes", "sentence": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. <hl> Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of <hl> rice, wheat and meat dishes <hl> and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of <hl> rice, wheat and meat dishes <hl> and the skilled use of various spices."}
{"question": "What is a large influence on Hyderabadi food?", "paragraph": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "answer": "Mughlai", "sentence": "Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. <hl> Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. <hl> Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of <hl> Mughlai <hl> and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of <hl> Mughlai <hl> and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India."}
{"question": "What is kaddu ki kheer?", "paragraph": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "answer": "a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd", "sentence": "Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer ( a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd )", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. <hl> Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer ( a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd ) <hl> .", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (<hl> a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd <hl>).", "sentence_answer": "Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer ( <hl> a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd <hl> )"}
{"question": "What types of cuisine are noted within Hyderabadi haleem?", "paragraph": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "answer": "Mughlai and Arab", "sentence": "Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. <hl> Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. <hl> Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of <hl> Mughlai and Arab <hl> cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of <hl> Mughlai and Arab <hl> cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India."}
{"question": "When was The Deccan Times founded?", "paragraph": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "answer": "the 1780s", "sentence": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s . <hl> In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "paragraph_answer": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in <hl> the 1780s <hl>. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "sentence_answer": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in <hl> the 1780s <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is The Deccan Chronicle?", "paragraph": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "answer": "major English papers", "sentence": "In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle.", "paragraph_sentence": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. <hl> In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. <hl> The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "paragraph_answer": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the <hl> major English papers <hl> are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "sentence_answer": "In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the <hl> major English papers <hl> are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle."}
{"question": "What type of paper is The Siasat Daily?", "paragraph": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "answer": "major Urdu papers", "sentence": "The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad.", "paragraph_sentence": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. <hl> The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. <hl> Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "paragraph_answer": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The <hl> major Urdu papers <hl> include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> major Urdu papers <hl> include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad."}
{"question": "What year was the first radio station in Hyderabad formed?", "paragraph": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "answer": "around 1919", "sentence": "The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919 .", "paragraph_sentence": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. <hl> The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919 . <hl> Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "paragraph_answer": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State <hl> around 1919 <hl>. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "sentence_answer": "The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State <hl> around 1919 <hl> ."}
{"question": "On what date did the first public radio station in Hyderabad begin broadcasting?", "paragraph": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "answer": "starting on 3 February 1935", "sentence": "Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935 , with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000.", "paragraph_sentence": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. <hl> Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935 , with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. <hl> The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "paragraph_answer": "One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city <hl> starting on 3 February 1935 <hl>, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.", "sentence_answer": "Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city <hl> starting on 3 February 1935 <hl> , with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000."}
{"question": "When did Doordarshan begin broadcasting in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "answer": "1974", "sentence": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. <hl> Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in <hl> 1974 <hl> with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "sentence_answer": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in <hl> 1974 <hl> with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel."}
{"question": "What satellite network began broadcasting to Hyderabad in July 1992?", "paragraph": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "answer": "Star TV", "sentence": "Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV .", "paragraph_sentence": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. <hl> Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV . <hl> Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of <hl> Star TV <hl>. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "sentence_answer": "Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of <hl> Star TV <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what year did the general public first get access to the internet in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "answer": "1995", "sentence": "The first public internet access service began in 1995 , with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. <hl> The first public internet access service began in 1995 , with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. <hl> In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in <hl> 1995 <hl>, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "sentence_answer": "The first public internet access service began in <hl> 1995 <hl> , with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998."}
{"question": "The first private company to offer Hyderabad internet service began offering it in what year?", "paragraph": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "answer": "1998", "sentence": "The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. <hl> The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998 . <hl> In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in <hl> 1998 <hl>. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "sentence_answer": "The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in <hl> 1998 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is Doordarshan?", "paragraph": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "answer": "the Government of India's public service broadcaster", "sentence": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster , which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster , which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. <hl> Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "paragraph_answer": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, <hl> the Government of India's public service broadcaster <hl>, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.", "sentence_answer": "Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, <hl> the Government of India's public service broadcaster <hl> , which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel."}
{"question": "What entity controls the schools in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "answer": "Central Board of Secondary Education", "sentence": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. <hl> About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "paragraph_answer": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the <hl> Central Board of Secondary Education <hl> and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "sentence_answer": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the <hl> Central Board of Secondary Education <hl> and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan."}
{"question": "What percentage of students are in private schools in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "answer": "two-thirds", "sentence": "About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. <hl> About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. <hl> Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "paragraph_answer": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About <hl> two-thirds <hl> of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "sentence_answer": "About <hl> two-thirds <hl> of pupils attend privately run institutions."}
{"question": "Which languages are used for teaching in the schools of Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "answer": "English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu", "sentence": "Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu .", "paragraph_sentence": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. <hl> Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu . <hl> Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "paragraph_answer": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include <hl> English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu <hl>. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "sentence_answer": "Languages of instruction include <hl> English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of educational plan does the Central Board of Secondary Education use in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "answer": "a \"10+2+3\" plan", "sentence": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan . <hl> About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "paragraph_answer": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow <hl> a \"10+2+3\" plan <hl>. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "sentence_answer": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow <hl> a \"10+2+3\" plan <hl> ."}
{"question": "Students in Hyderabad may be required to acquire one of two different certificates, one is the Secondary School Certificate, what is the other?", "paragraph": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "answer": "Indian Certificate of Secondary Education", "sentence": "Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education .", "paragraph_sentence": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. <hl> Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education . <hl> After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "paragraph_answer": "Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a \"10+2+3\" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the <hl> Indian Certificate of Secondary Education <hl>. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).", "sentence_answer": "Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the <hl> Indian Certificate of Secondary Education <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many universities are in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "answer": "13", "sentence": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. <hl> The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "paragraph_answer": "There are <hl> 13 <hl> universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "sentence_answer": "There are <hl> 13 <hl> universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities."}
{"question": "Of the universities in Hyderabad how many are state run?", "paragraph": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "answer": "six", "sentence": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. <hl> The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, <hl> six <hl> state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "sentence_answer": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, <hl> six <hl> state universities and three central universities."}
{"question": "Maulana Azad National Urdu University is a type of university that represents what type of university?", "paragraph": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "answer": "central universities", "sentence": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities . <hl> The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three <hl> central universities <hl>. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "sentence_answer": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three <hl> central universities <hl> ."}
{"question": "In 1982 the first long distance university was opened in India, what is it's name?", "paragraph": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "answer": "The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University", "sentence": "The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University , established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. <hl> The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University , established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. <hl> The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University <hl>, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University <hl> , established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India."}
{"question": "What year was Osmania University formed?", "paragraph": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "answer": "1918", "sentence": "Osmania University, established in 1918 , was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. <hl> Osmania University, established in 1918 , was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. <hl> The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in <hl> 1918 <hl>, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.", "sentence_answer": "Osmania University, established in <hl> 1918 <hl> , was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students."}
{"question": "How many medical schools are in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "answer": "five", "sentence": "Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). <hl> Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. <hl> The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has <hl> five <hl> major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad has <hl> five <hl> major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals."}
{"question": "What type of medicine is taught at The Government Nizamia Tibbi College?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "answer": "Unani medicine", "sentence": "The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine .", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. <hl> The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine . <hl> Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of <hl> Unani medicine <hl>. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "sentence_answer": "The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of <hl> Unani medicine <hl> ."}
{"question": "What non-profit cardiovascular educational association is headquartered in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "answer": "Indian Heart Association", "sentence": "Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association , a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. <hl> Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association , a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools\u2014Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences\u2014and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the <hl> Indian Heart Association <hl>, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the <hl> Indian Heart Association <hl> , a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education."}
{"question": "What type of school is Raffles Millennium International?", "paragraph": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "answer": "fashion design", "sentence": "Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College.", "paragraph_sentence": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. <hl> Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. <hl> The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of <hl> fashion design <hl> including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad also has schools of <hl> fashion design <hl> including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College."}
{"question": "What type of is Wigan and Leigh College?", "paragraph": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "answer": "fashion design", "sentence": "Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College.", "paragraph_sentence": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. <hl> Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. <hl> The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of <hl> fashion design <hl> including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad also has schools of <hl> fashion design <hl> including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College."}
{"question": "What is the school otherwise known as IIT-H?", "paragraph": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "answer": "Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad", "sentence": "Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University.", "paragraph_sentence": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. <hl> Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. <hl> Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and <hl> Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad <hl> (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and <hl> Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad <hl> (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University."}
{"question": "There is a research institute in Hyderabad known as ICRISAT, what does the acronym represent?", "paragraph": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "answer": "International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics", "sentence": "Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University.", "paragraph_sentence": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. <hl> Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. <hl> Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the <hl> International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics <hl> (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani \u2013 Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the <hl> International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics <hl> (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University."}
{"question": "Two of the most popular sports played in Hyderabad include association football, what is the other?", "paragraph": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "answer": "cricket", "sentence": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. <hl> At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "paragraph_answer": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are <hl> cricket <hl> and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "sentence_answer": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are <hl> cricket <hl> and association football."}
{"question": "What two world championships were held in Hyderabad in 2009?", "paragraph": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "answer": "the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship", "sentence": "At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship .", "paragraph_sentence": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. <hl> At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship . <hl> The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "paragraph_answer": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, <hl> the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship <hl>. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "sentence_answer": "At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, <hl> the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship <hl> ."}
{"question": "What sport is played at the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex?", "paragraph": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "answer": "field hockey", "sentence": "The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey , the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. <hl> The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey , the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. <hl> Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "paragraph_answer": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for <hl> field hockey <hl>, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "sentence_answer": "The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for <hl> field hockey <hl> , the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association."}
{"question": "Where is the G.M.C. Balayohi Stadium located?", "paragraph": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "answer": "Gachibowli", "sentence": "The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. <hl> The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. <hl> Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "paragraph_answer": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in <hl> Gachibowli <hl> for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "sentence_answer": "The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in <hl> Gachibowli <hl> for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association."}
{"question": "What is the home stadium of the Hyderabad cricket association?", "paragraph": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "answer": "Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium", "sentence": "The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium , home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. <hl> The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium , home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. <hl> Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "paragraph_answer": "The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and <hl> Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium <hl>, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy\u2014a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.", "sentence_answer": "The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and <hl> Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium <hl> , home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association."}
{"question": "At what time was Secunderabad an important sport center?", "paragraph": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "answer": "During British rule", "sentence": "During British rule , Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During British rule , Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. <hl> In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> During British rule <hl>, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> During British rule <hl> , Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist."}
{"question": "What type of racing is the Hyderabad Race Club popular for?", "paragraph": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "answer": "horse racing", "sentence": "its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist.", "paragraph_sentence": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for <hl> its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. <hl> In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "paragraph_answer": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its <hl> horse racing <hl> especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "sentence_answer": "its <hl> horse racing <hl> especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist."}
{"question": "What organization holds the TSD Rally?", "paragraph": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "answer": "Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club", "sentence": "In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "paragraph_sentence": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. <hl> In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the <hl> Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club <hl> organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "sentence_answer": "In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the <hl> Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club <hl> organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying."}
{"question": "Under whom did the Secunderabad Club and the Nizam Club form?", "paragraph": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "answer": "the Nizams and the British", "sentence": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. <hl> In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "paragraph_answer": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by <hl> the Nizams and the British <hl> such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "sentence_answer": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by <hl> the Nizams and the British <hl> such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist."}
{"question": "Which annual derby is held at the Hyderabad Race Club?", "paragraph": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "answer": "Deccan derby", "sentence": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby , still exist.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby , still exist. <hl> In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "paragraph_answer": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual <hl> Deccan derby <hl>, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan \u00bc Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.", "sentence_answer": "During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual <hl> Deccan derby <hl> , still exist."}
{"question": "Ghulam Ahmed and Shivlal Yadav are what kind of sportsmen?", "paragraph": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "answer": "cricketers", "sentence": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: <hl> cricketers <hl> Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "sentence_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: <hl> cricketers <hl> Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan."}
{"question": "What sport does Sania Mirza play?", "paragraph": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "answer": "tennis", "sentence": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; <hl> tennis <hl> player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "sentence_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; <hl> tennis <hl> player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan."}
{"question": "Who is a notable bodybuilder from Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "answer": "Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan", "sentence": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder <hl> Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder <hl> Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan <hl> ."}
{"question": "Gagan Narang does what sporting activity?", "paragraph": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "answer": "rifle shooters", "sentence": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; <hl> rifle shooters <hl> Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "sentence_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; <hl> rifle shooters <hl> Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan."}
{"question": "Pullela Gopichand and Saina Nehwal are known in Hyderabad for being what?", "paragraph": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "answer": "badminton players", "sentence": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; <hl> badminton players <hl> S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.", "sentence_answer": "International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; <hl> badminton players <hl> S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan."}
{"question": "What type of transport that is not government owned is commonly used in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "answer": "taxis and auto rickshaws", "sentence": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws . <hl> Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated <hl> taxis and auto rickshaws <hl>. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "sentence_answer": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated <hl> taxis and auto rickshaws <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many people are carried each day by the bus service network in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "answer": "130 million", "sentence": "Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. <hl> Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. <hl> Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over <hl> 130 million <hl> passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over <hl> 130 million <hl> passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily."}
{"question": "What is the light rail system in Hyderabad known as?", "paragraph": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "answer": "Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS)", "sentence": "Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS) , is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. <hl> Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS) , is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. <hl> Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the <hl> Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS) <hl>, is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the <hl> Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS) <hl> , is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily."}
{"question": "How many passengers use the Hyderabad light rail system each day?", "paragraph": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "answer": "160,000", "sentence": "Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. <hl> Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. <hl> Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over <hl> 160,000 <hl> passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over <hl> 160,000 <hl> passengers daily."}
{"question": "What is Setwin otherwise known as?", "paragraph": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "answer": "Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities", "sentence": "Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin ( Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities ).", "paragraph_sentence": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. <hl> Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin ( Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities ). <hl> Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "paragraph_answer": "The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (<hl> Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities <hl>). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.", "sentence_answer": "Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin ( <hl> Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities <hl> )."}
{"question": "In 2012 how many vehicles were driving in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "answer": "3.5 million", "sentence": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. <hl> The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "paragraph_answer": "As of 2012[update], there are over <hl> 3.5 million <hl> vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2012[update], there are over <hl> 3.5 million <hl> vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers."}
{"question": "What percentage of the vehicles in Hyderabad were cars in 2012?", "paragraph": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "answer": "15%", "sentence": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. <hl> The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "paragraph_answer": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, <hl> 15% <hl> cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, <hl> 15% <hl> cars and 3% three-wheelers."}
{"question": "What percentage of Hyderabad city was covered by roads in 2012?", "paragraph": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "answer": "9.5%", "sentence": "The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. <hl> The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. <hl> Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "paragraph_answer": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only <hl> 9.5% <hl> of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "sentence_answer": "The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only <hl> 9.5% <hl> of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion."}
{"question": "In 2012 what percentage of Hyderabad freight was moved by road?", "paragraph": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "answer": "60%", "sentence": "The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. <hl> The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. <hl> Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "paragraph_answer": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and <hl> 60% <hl> of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "sentence_answer": "The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and <hl> 60% <hl> of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion."}
{"question": "What is the maximum speed for buses in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "answer": "40 km/h (25 mph)", "sentence": "Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. <hl> Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage\u2014roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79\u2014has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and <hl> 40 km/h (25 mph) <hl> for light commercial vehicles and buses.", "sentence_answer": "Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and <hl> 40 km/h (25 mph) <hl> for light commercial vehicles and buses."}
{"question": "How many national highways form a junction in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "answer": "three", "sentence": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. <hl> Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of <hl> three <hl> National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of <hl> three <hl> National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam."}
{"question": "How many states are linked to from highways in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "answer": "six", "sentence": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. <hl> Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to <hl> six <hl> other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to <hl> six <hl> other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam."}
{"question": "How many miles long is NH-7?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "answer": "1,472 mi", "sentence": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km ( 1,472 mi ) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km ( 1,472 mi ) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. <hl> Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (<hl> 1,472 mi <hl>) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km ( <hl> 1,472 mi <hl> ) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam."}
{"question": "How many state highways pass through or begin in Hyderabad?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "answer": "Five", "sentence": "Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "paragraph_sentence": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. <hl> Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58 <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. <hl> Five <hl> state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Five <hl> state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58"}
{"question": "What road connects Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam?", "paragraph": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "answer": "NH-163", "sentence": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. <hl> Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "paragraph_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) <hl> NH-163 <hl> links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58", "sentence_answer": "Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) <hl> NH-163 <hl> links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam."}
{"question": "What type of city is Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "answer": "beachfront", "sentence": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. <hl> The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is a <hl> beachfront <hl> city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica is a <hl> beachfront <hl> city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States."}
{"question": "What part of Los Angeles County is it located in?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "answer": "western", "sentence": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. <hl> The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in <hl> western <hl> Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in <hl> western <hl> Los Angeles County, California, United States."}
{"question": "What is Santa Monica named after?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "answer": "Christian saint, Monica", "sentence": "The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica .", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. <hl> The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica . <hl> Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the <hl> Christian saint, Monica <hl>. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "sentence_answer": "The city is named after the <hl> Christian saint, Monica <hl> ."}
{"question": "Approximately how many residents of Santa Monica rent their property?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "answer": "two-thirds", "sentence": "Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. <hl> Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. <hl> The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over <hl> two-thirds <hl> of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "sentence_answer": "Over <hl> two-thirds <hl> of Santa Monica's residents are renters."}
{"question": "What was the population in 2010 according to the Census Bureau?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.", "answer": "89,736", "sentence": "The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. <hl> The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles \u2013 Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was <hl> 89,736 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was <hl> 89,736 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did indigenous people that lived in Santa Monica call it previously?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "answer": "Kecheek", "sentence": "Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. <hl> Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. <hl> The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called <hl> Kecheek <hl> in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica was called <hl> Kecheek <hl> in the Tongva language."}
{"question": "What was the local population called indigenous to the Santa Monica Area?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "answer": "Tongva", "sentence": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. <hl> Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the <hl> Tongva <hl> people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the <hl> Tongva <hl> people."}
{"question": "What was the first explorers name that came in contact with the natives?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "answer": "Gaspar de Portol\u00e0", "sentence": "The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0 , who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. <hl> The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0 , who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. <hl> There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer <hl> Gaspar de Portol\u00e0 <hl>, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "sentence_answer": "The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer <hl> Gaspar de Portol\u00e0 <hl> , who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769."}
{"question": "What date did the explorer reach Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "answer": "August 3, 1769", "sentence": "The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. <hl> The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769 . <hl> There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on <hl> August 3, 1769 <hl>. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "sentence_answer": "The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on <hl> August 3, 1769 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What day is the Santa Monica Feast held on?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "answer": "May 4", "sentence": "One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. <hl> One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4 . <hl> Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portol\u00e0, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually <hl> May 4 <hl>. Another version says that it was named by Juan Cresp\u00ed on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.", "sentence_answer": "One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually <hl> May 4 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What ethic group grew in the 20th century?", "paragraph": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "answer": "Asian", "sentence": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. <hl> A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of <hl> Asian <hl> Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "sentence_answer": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of <hl> Asian <hl> Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice."}
{"question": "What other ethic minority did white american's treat poorly?", "paragraph": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "answer": "Chinese", "sentence": "A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice.", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. <hl> A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. <hl> The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of <hl> Chinese <hl> lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "sentence_answer": "A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of <hl> Chinese <hl> lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice."}
{"question": "What type of Village was located on the Long Wharf?", "paragraph": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "answer": "Japanese fishing", "sentence": "A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice.", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. <hl> A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. <hl> The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A <hl> Japanese fishing <hl> village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> Japanese fishing <hl> village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice."}
{"question": "How many ethnic minorities were looked at differently in Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "answer": "two", "sentence": "The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese.", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. <hl> The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. <hl> The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "paragraph_answer": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The <hl> two <hl> ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> two <hl> ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese."}
{"question": "What role did the fishing village play in Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "answer": "economic part", "sentence": "The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "paragraph_sentence": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. <hl> The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral <hl> economic part <hl> of the Santa Monica Bay community.", "sentence_answer": "The Japanese village fishermen were an integral <hl> economic part <hl> of the Santa Monica Bay community."}
{"question": "Who built a plant in Clover field?", "paragraph": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "answer": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr", "sentence": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Donald Wills Douglas, Sr . <hl> built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Donald Wills Douglas, Sr <hl>. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Donald Wills Douglas, Sr <hl> ."}
{"question": "What company was the structure at Clover Field for?", "paragraph": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "answer": "Douglas Aircraft", "sentence": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. <hl> In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the <hl> Douglas Aircraft <hl> Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the <hl> Douglas Aircraft <hl> Company."}
{"question": "What did Clover Field built airplanes attempt the first of?", "paragraph": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "answer": "aerial circumnavigation of the world", "sentence": "In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world .", "paragraph_sentence": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. <hl> In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world . <hl> Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first <hl> aerial circumnavigation of the world <hl>. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first <hl> aerial circumnavigation of the world <hl> ."}
{"question": "The Douglas Company had facilities in Santa Monica through what decade?", "paragraph": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "answer": "1960s", "sentence": "The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s .", "paragraph_sentence": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). <hl> The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the <hl> 1960s <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the <hl> 1960s <hl> ."}
{"question": "How Many Planes returned from the circumnavigation in 1924?", "paragraph": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "answer": "Two", "sentence": "Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated).", "paragraph_sentence": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. <hl> Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). <hl> The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "paragraph_answer": "Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. <hl> Two <hl> planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Two <hl> planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated)."}
{"question": "What brought on the Douglas business's company growth?", "paragraph": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "answer": "World War II", "sentence": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II , employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II , employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. <hl> To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "paragraph_answer": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of <hl> World War II <hl>, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "sentence_answer": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of <hl> World War II <hl> , employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943."}
{"question": "How many people did the company employ in 1943?", "paragraph": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "answer": "44,000", "sentence": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. <hl> To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "paragraph_answer": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as <hl> 44,000 <hl> people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "sentence_answer": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as <hl> 44,000 <hl> people in 1943."}
{"question": "The company used camouflage from what designers?", "paragraph": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "answer": "Warner Brothers Studios", "sentence": "To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield.", "paragraph_sentence": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. <hl> To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. <hl> The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "paragraph_answer": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the <hl> Warner Brothers Studios <hl> prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "sentence_answer": "To defend against air attack set designers from the <hl> Warner Brothers Studios <hl> prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield."}
{"question": "What company started as a project in 1945?", "paragraph": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "answer": "RAND", "sentence": "The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948.", "paragraph_sentence": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. <hl> The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. <hl> RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "paragraph_answer": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The <hl> RAND <hl> Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> RAND <hl> Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948."}
{"question": "What was the camouflage designed to do?", "paragraph": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "answer": "defend against air attack", "sentence": "To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield.", "paragraph_sentence": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. <hl> To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. <hl> The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "paragraph_answer": "Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To <hl> defend against air attack <hl> set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m\u00b2) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.", "sentence_answer": "To <hl> defend against air attack <hl> set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield."}
{"question": "What year was the Sanat Monica Pier buildt?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "answer": "1909", "sentence": "It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. <hl> It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909 . <hl> The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in <hl> 1909 <hl>. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "sentence_answer": "It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in <hl> 1909 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What historic landmark is located on the Pier?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "answer": "Looff Hippodrome", "sentence": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. <hl> It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica <hl> Looff Hippodrome <hl> (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "sentence_answer": "The Santa Monica <hl> Looff Hippodrome <hl> (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark."}
{"question": "La Monica Ballroom used to be what type of ballroom in the United States?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "answer": "largest", "sentence": "The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. <hl> The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. <hl> The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the <hl> largest <hl> ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "sentence_answer": "The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the <hl> largest <hl> ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts."}
{"question": "Where were the Academy Awards held in the 1960's?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "answer": "Santa Monica Civic Auditorium", "sentence": "The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. <hl> The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. <hl> McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The <hl> Santa Monica Civic Auditorium <hl> was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Santa Monica Civic Auditorium <hl> was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s."}
{"question": "What place is still considered a prominent acoustic performance area?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "answer": "McCabe's Guitar Shop", "sentence": "McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. <hl> McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. <hl> Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. <hl> McCabe's Guitar Shop <hl> is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> McCabe's Guitar Shop <hl> is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet."}
{"question": "The Third Street Promenade is located in what part of Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "answer": "Downtown District", "sentence": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. <hl> and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> Downtown District <hl> is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Downtown District <hl> is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd."}
{"question": "How large is the Third Street Promenade?", "paragraph": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "answer": "three blocks", "sentence": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. <hl> and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "paragraph_answer": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for <hl> three blocks <hl> between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "sentence_answer": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for <hl> three blocks <hl> between Wilshire Blvd."}
{"question": "What is Third Street access shut off from?", "paragraph": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "answer": "vehicles", "sentence": "Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). <hl> Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. <hl> Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "paragraph_answer": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to <hl> vehicles <hl> for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "sentence_answer": "Third Street is closed to <hl> vehicles <hl> for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers."}
{"question": "What two major department stores are located at the Third Street Promenade?", "paragraph": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "answer": "Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom", "sentence": "Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. <hl> Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. <hl> After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "paragraph_answer": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring <hl> Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom <hl> in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica Place, featuring <hl> Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom <hl> in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade."}
{"question": "What year did the mall reopen?", "paragraph": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "answer": "2010", "sentence": "After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. <hl> After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of <hl> 2010 <hl> as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.", "sentence_answer": "After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of <hl> 2010 <hl> as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space."}
{"question": "What event does the Chamber of commerce host in the fall?", "paragraph": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "answer": "The Taste of Santa Monica", "sentence": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. <hl> Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts <hl> The Taste of Santa Monica <hl> on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "sentence_answer": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts <hl> The Taste of Santa Monica <hl> on the Santa Monica Pier."}
{"question": "What can visitors do at the Taste of Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "answer": "sample food and drinks", "sentence": "can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants.", "paragraph_sentence": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors <hl> can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. <hl> Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can <hl> sample food and drinks <hl> from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "sentence_answer": "can <hl> sample food and drinks <hl> from Santa Monica restaurants."}
{"question": "Where is the Taste of Santa Monica held each year?", "paragraph": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "answer": "Santa Monica Pier", "sentence": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier . <hl> Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the <hl> Santa Monica Pier <hl>. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "sentence_answer": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the <hl> Santa Monica Pier <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who provides the guests with these samples at the event?", "paragraph": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "answer": "Santa Monica restaurants", "sentence": "Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants .", "paragraph_sentence": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. <hl> Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants . <hl> Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from <hl> Santa Monica restaurants <hl>. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "sentence_answer": "Visitors can sample food and drinks from <hl> Santa Monica restaurants <hl> ."}
{"question": "What hotel offers a trip to the famer's market to influence dinner?", "paragraph": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "answer": "The swanky Shutters", "sentence": "The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. <hl> The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. <hl> The swanky Shutters <hl> on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\"", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The swanky Shutters <hl> on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special \"Market Dinner.\""}
{"question": "Roughly how many days of sunshine does Santa Monica get annually?", "paragraph": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "answer": "310", "sentence": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. <hl> It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "paragraph_answer": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of <hl> 310 <hl> days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "sentence_answer": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of <hl> 310 <hl> days of sunshine a year."}
{"question": "What USDA hardiness zone is Santa Monica located in?", "paragraph": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "answer": "11a", "sentence": "It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a .", "paragraph_sentence": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. <hl> It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a . <hl> Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "paragraph_answer": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone <hl> 11a <hl>. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "sentence_answer": "It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone <hl> 11a <hl> ."}
{"question": "What commonly occurs on the mornings in May?", "paragraph": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "answer": "fog", "sentence": "Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents).", "paragraph_sentence": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. <hl> Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). <hl> Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "paragraph_answer": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning <hl> fog <hl> is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "sentence_answer": "Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning <hl> fog <hl> is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents)."}
{"question": "What have locals coined the morning time in May?", "paragraph": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "answer": "\"May Gray\"", "sentence": "Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\".", "paragraph_sentence": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). <hl> Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". <hl> Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "paragraph_answer": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the <hl> \"May Gray\" <hl> and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "sentence_answer": "Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the <hl> \"May Gray\" <hl> and the \"June Gloom\"."}
{"question": "What is the beach temperature in Fahrenheit during the summer ?", "paragraph": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "answer": "5 to 10 degrees", "sentence": "As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "paragraph_sentence": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. <hl> As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (K\u00f6ppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the \"May Gray\" and the \"June Gloom\". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from <hl> 5 to 10 degrees <hl> Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights.", "sentence_answer": "As a general rule, the beach temperature is from <hl> 5 to 10 degrees <hl> Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5\u201310 degrees warmer during winter nights."}
{"question": "In what two years were the first Sustainable City Plan's introduced?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "answer": "1992 and in 1994", "sentence": "The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994 , was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. <hl> The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994 , was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. <hl> Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in <hl> 1992 and in 1994 <hl>, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "sentence_answer": "The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in <hl> 1992 and in 1994 <hl> , was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment."}
{"question": "What percent of the city's public work's vehicles use alternate fuels?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "answer": "Eighty-two", "sentence": "Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. <hl> Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. <hl> Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. <hl> Eighty-two <hl> percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Eighty-two <hl> percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country."}
{"question": "Water conservation policies have been adopted by what two sectors?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "answer": "public and private", "sentence": "The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. <hl> The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. <hl> Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both <hl> public and private <hl> sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "sentence_answer": "The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both <hl> public and private <hl> sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment."}
{"question": "What percent of the bus systems use alternate fuels?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "answer": "100%", "sentence": "Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. <hl> Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. <hl> Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly <hl> 100% <hl> of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "sentence_answer": "Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly <hl> 100% <hl> of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country."}
{"question": "What company provides the city with natural gas?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "answer": "Redeem", "sentence": "Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem , a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. <hl> Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem , a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from <hl> Redeem <hl>, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from <hl> Redeem <hl> , a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste."}
{"question": "What is the name of the urban runoff facility?", "paragraph": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "answer": "(SMURFF)", "sentence": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF) , the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An urban runoff facility (SMURFF) , the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. <hl> The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "paragraph_answer": "An urban runoff facility <hl> (SMURFF) <hl>, the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "sentence_answer": "An urban runoff facility <hl> (SMURFF) <hl> , the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply."}
{"question": "How many gallons of water does (SMURFF) treat every week?", "paragraph": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "answer": "3.5 million", "sentence": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. <hl> The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "paragraph_answer": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats <hl> 3.5 million <hl> US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "sentence_answer": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats <hl> 3.5 million <hl> US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply."}
{"question": "How much money do residents get back for participating in water conservation per square foot?", "paragraph": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "answer": "$1.50", "sentence": "The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "paragraph_sentence": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. <hl> The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of <hl> $1.50 <hl> per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "sentence_answer": "The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of <hl> $1.50 <hl> per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water."}
{"question": "Santa Monica plans on water independence by what year?", "paragraph": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "answer": "2020", "sentence": "The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020 .", "paragraph_sentence": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. <hl> The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020 . <hl> The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "paragraph_answer": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by <hl> 2020 <hl>. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "sentence_answer": "The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by <hl> 2020 <hl> ."}
{"question": "If (SMURFF) did not collect water where would it go?", "paragraph": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "answer": "into the bay", "sentence": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. <hl> The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "paragraph_answer": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow <hl> into the bay <hl> via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.", "sentence_answer": "An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow <hl> into the bay <hl> via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply."}
{"question": "What year does the city plan on having a bicycle infrastructure?", "paragraph": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "answer": "2030", "sentence": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. <hl> Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "paragraph_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by <hl> 2030 <hl> through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "sentence_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by <hl> 2030 <hl> through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city."}
{"question": "The city has two bike Action Plans of how many years?", "paragraph": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "answer": "5-year and 20", "sentence": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. <hl> Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "paragraph_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a <hl> 5-year and 20 <hl> year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "sentence_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a <hl> 5-year and 20 <hl> year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city."}
{"question": "The city's bus system is being over hauled to work with what other program?", "paragraph": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "answer": "Expo Line", "sentence": "Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line .", "paragraph_sentence": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. <hl> Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open <hl> Expo Line <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open <hl> Expo Line <hl> ."}
{"question": "What percentages does the city Bike transportation mode's target?", "paragraph": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "answer": "14 to 35%", "sentence": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. <hl> Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "paragraph_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining <hl> 14 to 35% <hl> bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "sentence_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining <hl> 14 to 35% <hl> bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city."}
{"question": "What type of business certification do they plan on expanding?", "paragraph": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "answer": "green", "sentence": "Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. <hl> Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, <hl> green <hl> business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.", "sentence_answer": "Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, <hl> green <hl> business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line."}
{"question": "What was the total average family size?", "paragraph": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "answer": "2.79", "sentence": "There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79 .", "paragraph_sentence": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. <hl> There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was <hl> 2.79 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was <hl> 2.79 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What percent of households were made of one person?", "paragraph": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "answer": "48.4%", "sentence": "22,716 households ( 48.4% ) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older.", "paragraph_sentence": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. <hl> 22,716 households ( 48.4% ) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. <hl> The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "paragraph_answer": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (<hl> 48.4% <hl>) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "sentence_answer": "22,716 households ( <hl> 48.4% <hl> ) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older."}
{"question": "What percent of households had someone over 65 living in it?", "paragraph": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "answer": "11.8%", "sentence": "22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 ( 11.8% ) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older.", "paragraph_sentence": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. <hl> 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 ( 11.8% ) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. <hl> The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "paragraph_answer": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (<hl> 11.8% <hl>) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "sentence_answer": "22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 ( <hl> 11.8% <hl> ) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older."}
{"question": "Roughly how many same-sex couples were there?", "paragraph": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "answer": "416", "sentence": "There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships.", "paragraph_sentence": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. <hl> There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. <hl> 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "paragraph_answer": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and <hl> 416 <hl> (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "sentence_answer": "There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and <hl> 416 <hl> (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships."}
{"question": "What percent of household have children under 18?", "paragraph": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "answer": "16.7%", "sentence": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 ( 16.7% ) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 ( 16.7% ) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. <hl> There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "paragraph_answer": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (<hl> 16.7% <hl>) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.", "sentence_answer": "There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 ( <hl> 16.7% <hl> ) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present."}
{"question": "How many citizen's were in the year 2000 census?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "answer": "84,084", "sentence": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. <hl> The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2000, there are <hl> 84,084 <hl> people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "sentence_answer": "As of the census of 2000, there are <hl> 84,084 <hl> people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city."}
{"question": "How many urban families were there?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "answer": "16,775", "sentence": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. <hl> The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and <hl> 16,775 <hl> families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "sentence_answer": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and <hl> 16,775 <hl> families in the city."}
{"question": "What is the population density per square mile?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "answer": "10,178.7", "sentence": "The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2).", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. <hl> The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). <hl> There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is <hl> 10,178.7 <hl> inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "sentence_answer": "The population density is <hl> 10,178.7 <hl> inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2)."}
{"question": "From 2000 what was the average family size?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "answer": "2.80", "sentence": "The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80 .", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. <hl> The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is <hl> 2.80 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is <hl> 2.80 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What percent in the 2000 census had persons under the age of 18?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "answer": "15.8%", "sentence": "There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. <hl> There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. <hl> 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km\u00b2). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which <hl> 15.8% <hl> have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.", "sentence_answer": "There are 44,497 households, out of which <hl> 15.8% <hl> have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families."}
{"question": "What year was the Santa Monica junior college founded?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "answer": "1929", "sentence": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929 . <hl> Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in <hl> 1929 <hl>. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in <hl> 1929 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many acres of land is the Santa Monica Junior College?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "answer": "35", "sentence": "It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. <hl> It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. <hl> The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies <hl> 35 <hl> acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "sentence_answer": "It occupies <hl> 35 <hl> acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually."}
{"question": "By what area is the Art institute in Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "answer": "Airport", "sentence": "The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport .", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. <hl> The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport . <hl> Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica <hl> Airport <hl>. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "sentence_answer": "The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica <hl> Airport <hl> ."}
{"question": "There are a plethora of colleges and universities within what radius of Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "answer": "22-mile", "sentence": "Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. <hl> Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a <hl> 22-mile <hl> (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "sentence_answer": "Universities and colleges within a <hl> 22-mile <hl> (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine."}
{"question": "How many students enroll to the SMC annually?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "answer": "30,000", "sentence": "It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. <hl> It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. <hl> The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls <hl> 30,000 <hl> students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California \u2013 Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.", "sentence_answer": "It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls <hl> 30,000 <hl> students annually."}
{"question": "What plan launched a Bicycle sharing system?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "answer": "bike action", "sentence": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. <hl> The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica has a <hl> bike action <hl> plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica has a <hl> bike action <hl> plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015."}
{"question": "When was Santa Monica's Bicycle sharing system launched?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "answer": "November 2015", "sentence": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015 . <hl> The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in <hl> November 2015 <hl>. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in <hl> November 2015 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the name of the bike trail that goes through Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "answer": "Marvin Braude", "sentence": "The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. <hl> The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. <hl> Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the <hl> Marvin Braude <hl> Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The city is traversed by the <hl> Marvin Braude <hl> Bike Trail."}
{"question": "When was the most recent Bicycle Friendly Community Award given to Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "answer": "2013", "sentence": "Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013 ) by the League of American Bicyclists.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. <hl> Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013 ) by the League of American Bicyclists. <hl> Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in <hl> 2013 <hl>) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in <hl> 2013 <hl> ) by the League of American Bicyclists."}
{"question": "What other year did Santa Monica receive the Bicycle Friendly Community award?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "answer": "2009", "sentence": "Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009 , Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists.", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. <hl> Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009 , Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. <hl> Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in <hl> 2009 <hl>, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in <hl> 2009 <hl> , Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists."}
{"question": "What is the name of the Santa Monica Freeway?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "answer": "Interstate 10", "sentence": "The Santa Monica Freeway ( Interstate 10 ) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Santa Monica Freeway ( Interstate 10 ) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. <hl> The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Freeway (<hl> Interstate 10 <hl>) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "sentence_answer": "The Santa Monica Freeway ( <hl> Interstate 10 <hl> ) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east."}
{"question": "What road does state route 2 begin on?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "answer": "Santa Monica Boulevard", "sentence": "State Route 2 ( Santa Monica Boulevard ) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. <hl> State Route 2 ( Santa Monica Boulevard ) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. <hl> Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (<hl> Santa Monica Boulevard <hl>) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "sentence_answer": "State Route 2 ( <hl> Santa Monica Boulevard <hl> ) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood."}
{"question": "How many more states aside from California does the interstate 10 run through?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "answer": "seven more", "sentence": "After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. <hl> After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. <hl> In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses <hl> seven more <hl> states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "sentence_answer": "After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses <hl> seven more <hl> states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida."}
{"question": "What city and state does the interstate 10 end at?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "answer": "Jacksonville, Florida", "sentence": "After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. <hl> After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida . <hl> In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at <hl> Jacksonville, Florida <hl>. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "sentence_answer": "After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at <hl> Jacksonville, Florida <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where does the Santa Monica Freeway begin around?", "paragraph": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "answer": "Pacific Ocean", "sentence": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. <hl> The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "paragraph_answer": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the <hl> Pacific Ocean <hl> and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the \"San Diego Freeway\", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.", "sentence_answer": "The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the <hl> Pacific Ocean <hl> and heads east."}
{"question": "Beginning in what decade did the Santa Monica Expo Air Line host freight and passenger services?", "paragraph": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "answer": "1920s", "sentence": "It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s .", "paragraph_sentence": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. <hl> It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s . <hl> Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "paragraph_answer": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the <hl> 1920s <hl>. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "sentence_answer": "It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the <hl> 1920s <hl> ."}
{"question": "What year did the Santa Monica freight and passenger service stop running?", "paragraph": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "answer": "1953", "sentence": "Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988.", "paragraph_sentence": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. <hl> Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. <hl> The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "paragraph_answer": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in <hl> 1953 <hl> but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "sentence_answer": "Service was discontinued in <hl> 1953 <hl> but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988."}
{"question": "Diesel powered freight deliveries continued through what date?", "paragraph": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "answer": "March 11, 1988", "sentence": "Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. <hl> Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988 . <hl> The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "paragraph_answer": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until <hl> March 11, 1988 <hl>. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "sentence_answer": "Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until <hl> March 11, 1988 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the result from the discontinuation of using the line for deliveries?", "paragraph": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "answer": "was purchased", "sentence": "The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority.", "paragraph_sentence": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. <hl> The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. <hl> The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "paragraph_answer": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way <hl> was purchased <hl> from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "sentence_answer": "The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way <hl> was purchased <hl> from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority."}
{"question": "Who bought the Expo line from Southern Pacific?", "paragraph": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "answer": "Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority", "sentence": "The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority .", "paragraph_sentence": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. <hl> The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority . <hl> The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "paragraph_answer": "Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from <hl> Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority <hl>. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.", "sentence_answer": "The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from <hl> Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority <hl> ."}
{"question": "In 2006 what percent of the population was impacted by crime?", "paragraph": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "answer": "4.41%", "sentence": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. <hl> The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected <hl> 4.41% <hl> of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "sentence_answer": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected <hl> 4.41% <hl> of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%."}
{"question": "What percent of crime was strictly property in 2006?", "paragraph": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "answer": "3.74%", "sentence": "The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%).", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. <hl> The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). <hl> These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected <hl> 3.74% <hl> of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "sentence_answer": "The majority of this was property crime, which affected <hl> 3.74% <hl> of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%)."}
{"question": "In 2006 what was crime mostly comprised of?", "paragraph": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "answer": "property", "sentence": "The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%).", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. <hl> The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). <hl> These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was <hl> property <hl> crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "sentence_answer": "The majority of this was <hl> property <hl> crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%)."}
{"question": "How are the Santa Monica per-capita crime rates calculated?", "paragraph": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "answer": "computed based", "sentence": "These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). <hl> These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. <hl> However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are <hl> computed based <hl> on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "sentence_answer": "These per-capita crime rates are <hl> computed based <hl> on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000."}
{"question": "The Santa Monica Police Department suggests that the per-capita crime rate sways in what way?", "paragraph": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "answer": "much lower", "sentence": "However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower , as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. <hl> However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower , as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is <hl> much lower <hl>, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.", "sentence_answer": "However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is <hl> much lower <hl> , as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people."}
{"question": "In what year was there a double homicide?", "paragraph": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "answer": "1999", "sentence": "In 1999 , there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1999 , there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. <hl> During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1999 <hl>, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1999 <hl> , there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard."}
{"question": "Where was this homicide perpetrated?", "paragraph": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "answer": "Westside Clothing store", "sentence": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. <hl> During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the <hl> Westside Clothing store <hl> on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "sentence_answer": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the <hl> Westside Clothing store <hl> on Lincoln Boulevard."}
{"question": "What gang is mentioned in connection with this crime?", "paragraph": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "answer": "Culver City", "sentence": "During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. <hl> During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. <hl> They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, <hl> Culver City <hl> gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "sentence_answer": "During the incident, <hl> Culver City <hl> gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez."}
{"question": "What two people were killed inside the store?", "paragraph": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "answer": "Anthony and Michael Juarez", "sentence": "During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. <hl> During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez . <hl> They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing <hl> Anthony and Michael Juarez <hl>. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "sentence_answer": "During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing <hl> Anthony and Michael Juarez <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the getaway driver of the Culver city gang murder?", "paragraph": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "answer": "in custody", "sentence": "They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. <hl> They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody . <hl> The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David \"Puppet\" Robles and Jesse \"Psycho\" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also <hl> in custody <hl>. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.", "sentence_answer": "They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also <hl> in custody <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is one of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "answer": "Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage", "sentence": "One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. <hl> One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. <hl> The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "paragraph_answer": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is <hl> Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage <hl> (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "sentence_answer": "One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is <hl> Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage <hl> (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street."}
{"question": "What does this iconic exterior shot display?", "paragraph": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "answer": "much of 2nd Street", "sentence": "One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street .", "paragraph_sentence": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. <hl> One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street . <hl> The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "paragraph_answer": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows <hl> much of 2nd Street <hl>. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "sentence_answer": "One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows <hl> much of 2nd Street <hl> ."}
{"question": "What 1982 movie includes Sylvester Stallone running on the Santa Monica Beach?", "paragraph": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "answer": "Rocky III", "sentence": "The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". <hl> The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. <hl> Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "paragraph_answer": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film <hl> Rocky III <hl> (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "sentence_answer": "The Sylvester Stallone film <hl> Rocky III <hl> (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings."}
{"question": "What 1996 movie was set completely in Santa Monica?", "paragraph": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "answer": "The Truth About Cats & Dogs", "sentence": "The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. <hl> The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. <hl> 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "paragraph_answer": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. <hl> The Truth About Cats & Dogs <hl> (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Truth About Cats & Dogs <hl> (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College."}
{"question": "What movie was shot at Samohi?", "paragraph": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "answer": "17 Again", "sentence": "17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi.", "paragraph_sentence": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. <hl> 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. <hl> Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "paragraph_answer": "Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, \"The Big W\". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. <hl> 17 Again <hl> (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> 17 Again <hl> (2009) was shot at Samohi."}
{"question": "What type of games is Santa Monica featured in?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "answer": "video", "sentence": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans!", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! <hl> (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is featured in the <hl> video <hl> games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica is featured in the <hl> video <hl> games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans!"}
{"question": "In what year did Tony hawk's American Wasteland release?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "answer": "2005", "sentence": "(2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland ( 2005 ), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! <hl> (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland ( 2005 ), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015) <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (<hl> 2005 <hl>), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "sentence_answer": "(2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland ( <hl> 2005 <hl> ), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)"}
{"question": "What video game features Santa Monica in 2003?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "answer": "True Crime: Streets of LA", "sentence": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans!", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! <hl> (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games <hl> True Crime: Streets of LA <hl> (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "sentence_answer": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games <hl> True Crime: Streets of LA <hl> (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans!"}
{"question": "Grand theft Auto V was released in what year?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "answer": "2013", "sentence": "(2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V ( 2013 ) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! <hl> (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V ( 2013 ) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015) <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (<hl> 2013 <hl>) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "sentence_answer": "(2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V ( <hl> 2013 <hl> ) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)"}
{"question": "What video game featured Santa Monica in 2015?", "paragraph": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "answer": "Need for Speed", "sentence": "(2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)", "paragraph_sentence": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! <hl> (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015) <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade \u2013 Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), <hl> Need for Speed <hl> (2015)", "sentence_answer": "(2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district \u2013 Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base \u2013 Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), <hl> Need for Speed <hl> (2015)"}
{"question": "When was Washington University founded?", "paragraph": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "answer": "1853", "sentence": "Founded in 1853 , and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. <hl> Founded in 1853 , and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. <hl> Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in <hl> 1853 <hl>, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "sentence_answer": "Founded in <hl> 1853 <hl> , and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries."}
{"question": "How many Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "answer": "Twenty-five", "sentence": "Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. <hl> Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. <hl> Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. <hl> Twenty-five <hl> Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Twenty-five <hl> Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university."}
{"question": "Where is Washington University ranked among Academic Ranking of World Universities?", "paragraph": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "answer": "32nd", "sentence": "The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. <hl> The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked <hl> 32nd <hl> in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "sentence_answer": "The university is ranked <hl> 32nd <hl> in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities."}
{"question": "For whom is Washington University named?", "paragraph": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "answer": "George Washington", "sentence": "Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington , the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. <hl> Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington , the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. <hl> Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after <hl> George Washington <hl>, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "sentence_answer": "Founded in 1853, and named after <hl> George Washington <hl> , the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries."}
{"question": "How many different countries comprise the makeup of faculty and students of Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "answer": "120", "sentence": "Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. <hl> Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. <hl> Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than <hl> 120 <hl> countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.", "sentence_answer": "Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than <hl> 120 <hl> countries."}
{"question": "Who was the first chancellor of Washington University?", "paragraph": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "answer": "Joseph Gibson Hoyt.", "sentence": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. <hl> Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "paragraph_answer": "The university's first chancellor was <hl> Joseph Gibson Hoyt. <hl> Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "sentence_answer": "The university's first chancellor was <hl> Joseph Gibson Hoyt. <hl> Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees."}
{"question": "When did Washington University secure its charter?", "paragraph": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "answer": "1853", "sentence": "Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853 , and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees.", "paragraph_sentence": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. <hl> Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853 , and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. <hl> Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "paragraph_answer": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in <hl> 1853 <hl>, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "sentence_answer": "Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in <hl> 1853 <hl> , and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees."}
{"question": "What makes Washington University unique among other American universities?", "paragraph": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "answer": "not having had a prior financial endowment", "sentence": "Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment .", "paragraph_sentence": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. <hl> Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment . <hl> The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "paragraph_answer": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in <hl> not having had a prior financial endowment <hl>. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University is unusual among major American universities in <hl> not having had a prior financial endowment <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was the first president of Washington University?", "paragraph": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "answer": "Eliot", "sentence": "Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees.", "paragraph_sentence": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. <hl> Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. <hl> Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "paragraph_answer": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and <hl> Eliot <hl> was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "sentence_answer": "Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and <hl> Eliot <hl> was named President of the Board of Trustees."}
{"question": "What local businessman help provide support for the Washington University?", "paragraph": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "answer": "John O'Fallon", "sentence": "Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon , but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment.", "paragraph_sentence": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. <hl> Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon , but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. <hl> Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "paragraph_answer": "The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including <hl> John O'Fallon <hl>, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.", "sentence_answer": "Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including <hl> John O'Fallon <hl> , but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment."}
{"question": "What was one of the names that was initially considered for Washington University in St. Louis?", "paragraph": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "answer": "Eliot Seminary", "sentence": "The board first approved \" Eliot Seminary ,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. <hl> The board first approved \" Eliot Seminary ,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. <hl> He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "paragraph_answer": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"<hl> Eliot Seminary <hl>,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "sentence_answer": "The board first approved \" <hl> Eliot Seminary <hl> ,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith."}
{"question": "What name was selected by the Board of Trustees in 1854 for Washington University?", "paragraph": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "answer": "Washington Institute", "sentence": "In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \" Washington Institute \" in honor of George Washington.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. <hl> In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \" Washington Institute \" in honor of George Washington. <hl> Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "paragraph_answer": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"<hl> Washington Institute <hl>\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "sentence_answer": "In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \" <hl> Washington Institute <hl> \" in honor of George Washington."}
{"question": "Why did the Board of Trustees choose to name Washing University after George Washington?", "paragraph": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "answer": "The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri", "sentence": "The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri .", "paragraph_sentence": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. <hl> The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri . <hl> In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "paragraph_answer": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. <hl> The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri <hl>. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the name Washington University amended?", "paragraph": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "answer": "1856", "sentence": "In 1856 , the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. <hl> In 1856 , the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" <hl> The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "paragraph_answer": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In <hl> 1856 <hl>, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1856 <hl> , the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\""}
{"question": "When was the suffix \"in St. Louis\" added to Washington University?", "paragraph": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "answer": "1976", "sentence": "The university amended its name once more in 1976 , when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" <hl> The university amended its name once more in 1976 , when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved \"Eliot Seminary,\" but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to \"Washington Institute\" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to \"Washington University.\" The university amended its name once more in <hl> 1976 <hl>, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.", "sentence_answer": "The university amended its name once more in <hl> 1976 <hl> , when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix \"in St. Louis\" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name."}
{"question": "Where was Washington University located?", "paragraph": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "answer": "17th Street and Washington Avenue", "sentence": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. <hl> Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "paragraph_answer": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on <hl> 17th Street and Washington Avenue <hl> in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "sentence_answer": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on <hl> 17th Street and Washington Avenue <hl> in the heart of downtown St. Louis."}
{"question": "When did classes first begin at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "answer": "October 22, 1854", "sentence": "Classes began on October 22, 1854 , at the Benton School building.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. <hl> Classes began on October 22, 1854 , at the Benton School building. <hl> At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "paragraph_answer": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on <hl> October 22, 1854 <hl>, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "sentence_answer": "Classes began on <hl> October 22, 1854 <hl> , at the Benton School building."}
{"question": "What building was first used for classes at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "answer": "Benton School building.", "sentence": "Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. <hl> Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. <hl> Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "paragraph_answer": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the <hl> Benton School building. <hl> At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "sentence_answer": "Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the <hl> Benton School building. <hl> At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools."}
{"question": "What three departments were Washington University divided?", "paragraph": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "answer": "the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute", "sentence": "Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute .", "paragraph_sentence": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. <hl> Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: <hl> the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Later the university divided into three departments: <hl> the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of school did Washington University first function?", "paragraph": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "answer": "a night school", "sentence": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. <hl> Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "paragraph_answer": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as <hl> a night school <hl> located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.", "sentence_answer": "Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as <hl> a night school <hl> located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis."}
{"question": "When was did Washington University open its law school?", "paragraph": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "answer": "1867", "sentence": "In 1867 , the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1867 , the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. <hl> By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1867 <hl>, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1867 <hl> , the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River."}
{"question": "Who was Robert Somers Brookings?", "paragraph": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "answer": "the president of the Board of Trustees", "sentence": "During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees , undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. <hl> During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees , undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, <hl> the president of the Board of Trustees <hl>, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "sentence_answer": "During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, <hl> the president of the Board of Trustees <hl> , undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus."}
{"question": "When did Washington University establish its medical school?", "paragraph": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "answer": "1891", "sentence": "Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. <hl> Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. <hl> During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in <hl> 1891 <hl> after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "sentence_answer": "Medical classes were first held at Washington University in <hl> 1891 <hl> after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine."}
{"question": "When did St. Louis Medical college affiliate itself with Washington University?", "paragraph": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "answer": "1891", "sentence": "Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. <hl> Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. <hl> During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in <hl> 1891 <hl> after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.", "sentence_answer": "Medical classes were first held at Washington University in <hl> 1891 <hl> after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine."}
{"question": "Where was Washington University located during the first half of the 1800's.", "paragraph": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "answer": "downtown St. Louis", "sentence": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. <hl> By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University spent its first half century in <hl> downtown St. Louis <hl> bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University spent its first half century in <hl> downtown St. Louis <hl> bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street."}
{"question": "When did Washington University begin to expand west?", "paragraph": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "answer": "the 1890s", "sentence": "By the 1890s , owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. <hl> By the 1890s , owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. <hl> The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By <hl> the 1890s <hl>, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "sentence_answer": "By <hl> the 1890s <hl> , owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west."}
{"question": "What architecture firm was hired by the Board of Directors at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "answer": "Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston", "sentence": "The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. <hl> The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston . <hl> A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm <hl> Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston <hl>. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "sentence_answer": "The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm <hl> Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was on the committee that found a new site for Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "answer": "Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse", "sentence": "A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. <hl> A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. <hl> The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of <hl> Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse <hl> found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "sentence_answer": "A committee of <hl> Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse <hl> found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County."}
{"question": "What nickname was given to the new campus site?", "paragraph": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "answer": "\"Hilltop\" campus", "sentence": "The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus , renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. <hl> The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of \"Hilltop\" campus , renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of <hl> \"Hilltop\" campus <hl>, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.", "sentence_answer": "The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of <hl> \"Hilltop\" campus <hl> , renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth."}
{"question": "When did Washington University hold a national design contest for the new campus?", "paragraph": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "answer": "1899", "sentence": "In 1899 , the university opened a national design contest for the new campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1899 , the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. <hl> The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1899 <hl>, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1899 <hl> , the university opened a national design contest for the new campus."}
{"question": "What firm won the Washington University national design contest?", "paragraph": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "answer": "Cope & Stewardson", "sentence": "The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. <hl> The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. <hl> The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm <hl> Cope & Stewardson <hl> won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "sentence_answer": "The renowned Philadelphia firm <hl> Cope & Stewardson <hl> won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities."}
{"question": "When was the cornerstone laid for Busch Hall?", "paragraph": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "answer": "October 20, 1900", "sentence": "The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900 .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. <hl> The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900 . <hl> The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on <hl> October 20, 1900 <hl>. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "sentence_answer": "The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on <hl> October 20, 1900 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What were the names of the three buildings constructed after Busch Hall?", "paragraph": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "answer": "Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples", "sentence": "The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. <hl> The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. <hl> The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of <hl> Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples <hl> began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "sentence_answer": "The construction of <hl> Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples <hl> began shortly thereafter."}
{"question": "Why did Washington University delay occupying of the new campus buildings until 1905?", "paragraph": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "answer": "to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics", "sentence": "The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. <hl> The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics . <hl> The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 <hl> to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics <hl>. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson\u2019s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.", "sentence_answer": "The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 <hl> to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics <hl> ."}
{"question": "What role did Arthur Holly Compton serve at Washington University?", "paragraph": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "answer": "chancellor", "sentence": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor . <hl> Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "paragraph_answer": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth <hl> chancellor <hl>. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "sentence_answer": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth <hl> chancellor <hl> ."}
{"question": "What helped lead to the increase of enrollment at Washington University during Arthur Holly Compton's term as chancellor?", "paragraph": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "answer": "World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits", "sentence": "Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits .", "paragraph_sentence": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. <hl> Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by <hl> World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by <hl> World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits <hl> ."}
{"question": "What declaration did Arthur Holly Compton make about athletics at Washington University?", "paragraph": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "answer": "athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships.", "sentence": "Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "paragraph_sentence": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. <hl> Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that <hl> athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. <hl> Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "sentence_answer": "Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that <hl> athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. <hl> Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits."}
{"question": "Where did Arthur Holly Compton work before returning to Washington University?", "paragraph": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "answer": "the University of Chicago", "sentence": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago , Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> After working for many years at the University of Chicago , Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. <hl> Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "paragraph_answer": "After working for many years at <hl> the University of Chicago <hl>, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "sentence_answer": "After working for many years at <hl> the University of Chicago <hl> , Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor."}
{"question": "Who reestablished Washington University's football team?", "paragraph": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "answer": "Arthur Holly Compton", "sentence": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. <hl> Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "paragraph_answer": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, <hl> Arthur Holly Compton <hl> returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a \"strictly amateur\" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton\u2019s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.", "sentence_answer": "After working for many years at the University of Chicago, <hl> Arthur Holly Compton <hl> returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor."}
{"question": "When did Washington University begin desegregation?", "paragraph": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "answer": "1947", "sentence": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. <hl> During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "paragraph_answer": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in <hl> 1947 <hl> with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "sentence_answer": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in <hl> 1947 <hl> with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work."}
{"question": "What were the first schools to become integrated at Washington University?", "paragraph": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "answer": "the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work", "sentence": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work . <hl> During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "paragraph_answer": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with <hl> the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work <hl>. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "sentence_answer": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with <hl> the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work <hl> ."}
{"question": "What student group campaigned for full integration at Washington University in 1949?", "paragraph": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "answer": "the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN)", "sentence": "In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN) , began campaigning for full racial integration.", "paragraph_sentence": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. <hl> In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN) , began campaigning for full racial integration. <hl> In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "paragraph_answer": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, <hl> the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN) <hl>, began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "sentence_answer": "In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, <hl> the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN) <hl> , began campaigning for full racial integration."}
{"question": "What organization sought to strip Washington University of its tax-exempt status in the 1940's?", "paragraph": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "answer": "the NAACP", "sentence": "During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status.", "paragraph_sentence": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. <hl> During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. <hl> In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "paragraph_answer": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by <hl> the NAACP <hl> intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "sentence_answer": "During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by <hl> the NAACP <hl> intended to strip its tax-exempt status."}
{"question": "When did the Board of Trustees pass a resolution to desegregate the Washington University undergraduate division?", "paragraph": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "answer": "May 1952", "sentence": "In May 1952 , the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "paragraph_sentence": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. <hl> In May 1952 , the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In <hl> May 1952 <hl>, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> May 1952 <hl> , the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions."}
{"question": "When did Washington University begin construction of a complex of residential halls?", "paragraph": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "answer": "1957", "sentence": "In 1957 , planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. <hl> In 1957 , planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. <hl> With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "paragraph_answer": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In <hl> 1957 <hl>, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1957 <hl> , planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls."}
{"question": "What name was given to the new residential complex constructed at Washington University?", "paragraph": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "answer": "South 40", "sentence": "In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201c South 40 ,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. <hl> In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201c South 40 ,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. <hl> With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "paragraph_answer": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201c<hl> South 40 <hl>,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "sentence_answer": "In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201c <hl> South 40 <hl> ,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls."}
{"question": "How did the construction of the new residential complex at Washington University affect the student population?", "paragraph": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "answer": "began to attract a more national pool of applicants", "sentence": "With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants .", "paragraph_sentence": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. <hl> With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants . <hl> By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "paragraph_answer": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, <hl> began to attract a more national pool of applicants <hl>. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "sentence_answer": "With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, <hl> began to attract a more national pool of applicants <hl> ."}
{"question": "What proportion of students at Washington University came from outside the St. Louis area by 1964?", "paragraph": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "answer": "over two-thirds", "sentence": "By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. <hl> By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, <hl> over two-thirds <hl> of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "sentence_answer": "By 1964, <hl> over two-thirds <hl> of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area."}
{"question": "When did Washington University transition to a national research institution?", "paragraph": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "answer": "During the latter half of the 20th century,", "sentence": "During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. <hl> In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> During the latter half of the 20th century, <hl> Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the \u201cSouth 40,\u201d a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a \u201cstreetcar college\u201d of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> During the latter half of the 20th century, <hl> Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution."}
{"question": "What years were presidential debates held at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "answer": "1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016", "sentence": "United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. <hl> United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016 . <hl> A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in <hl> 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016 <hl>. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "sentence_answer": "United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in <hl> 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What building at Washington University was used to host the presidential debates?", "paragraph": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "answer": "Washington University Athletic Complex", "sentence": "United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. <hl> United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. <hl> A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the <hl> Washington University Athletic Complex <hl> in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "sentence_answer": "United States presidential election debates were held at the <hl> Washington University Athletic Complex <hl> in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016."}
{"question": "Why was the presidential debate canceled in 1996 at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "answer": "scheduling difficulties between the candidates", "sentence": "A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates , the debate was canceled.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. <hl> A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates , the debate was canceled. <hl> The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to <hl> scheduling difficulties between the candidates <hl>, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "sentence_answer": "A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to <hl> scheduling difficulties between the candidates <hl> , the debate was canceled."}
{"question": "When was the only vice presidential debate held at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "answer": "October 2, 2008", "sentence": "The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008 , also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. <hl> The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008 , also at the Washington University Athletic Complex. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on <hl> October 2, 2008 <hl>, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "sentence_answer": "The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on <hl> October 2, 2008 <hl> , also at the Washington University Athletic Complex."}
{"question": "Who were the candidates in the vice presidential debate at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "answer": "Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden", "sentence": "The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden , on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. <hl> The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden , on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between <hl> Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden <hl>, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.", "sentence_answer": "The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between <hl> Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden <hl> , on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex."}
{"question": "What was Chancellor Wrighton's initial sentiment to hosting another presidential debate at Washington University after 2004?", "paragraph": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \"These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "answer": "it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility", "sentence": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility , he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility , he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. <hl> \"These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "paragraph_answer": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that <hl> it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility <hl>, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \"These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "sentence_answer": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that <hl> it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility <hl> , he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates."}
{"question": "What did Chancellor Wrighton state as one of the reasons for hosting another debate at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \"These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "answer": "These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues", "sentence": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \" These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues , and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \" These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues , and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \"<hl> These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues <hl>, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "sentence_answer": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \" <hl> These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues <hl> , and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton."}
{"question": "What year did Chancellor Wrighton submit another bid for a presidential debate at Washington University after 2004?", "paragraph": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. \"These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "answer": "2008", "sentence": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. <hl> \"These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "paragraph_answer": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the <hl> 2008 <hl> debates. \"These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas,\" said Wrighton.", "sentence_answer": "Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be \"improbable\" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the <hl> 2008 <hl> debates."}
{"question": "How many freshman class applications did Washington University receive in 2013?", "paragraph": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "answer": "30,117", "sentence": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. <hl> More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2013, Washington University received a record <hl> 30,117 <hl> applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "sentence_answer": "In 2013, Washington University received a record <hl> 30,117 <hl> applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%."}
{"question": "What percentage of incoming freshman at Washington University were in the top %10 of their class in 2013?", "paragraph": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "answer": "More than 90% of incoming freshmen", "sentence": "More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. <hl> More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. <hl> In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. <hl> More than 90% of incoming freshmen <hl> whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> More than 90% of incoming freshmen <hl> whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes."}
{"question": "Where did Washington University rank among private universities for National Merit Scholar freshman in 2006?", "paragraph": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "answer": "second among private universities", "sentence": "In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. <hl> In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. <hl> In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and <hl> second among private universities <hl> in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "sentence_answer": "In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and <hl> second among private universities <hl> in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report."}
{"question": "When was Washington University ranked #1 for quality of life?", "paragraph": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "answer": "In 2008", "sentence": "In 2008 , Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. <hl> In 2008 , Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. <hl> In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. <hl> In 2008 <hl>, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In 2008 <hl> , Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings."}
{"question": "What percent of applicants were admitted to Olin Business School in 2007?", "paragraph": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "answer": "14%", "sentence": "The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. <hl> The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only <hl> 14% <hl> of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.", "sentence_answer": "The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only <hl> 14% <hl> of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek."}
{"question": "What is the current national rank of the School of Medicine at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "answer": "sixth in the nation", "sentence": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation , and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation , and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. <hl> The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked <hl> sixth in the nation <hl>, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked <hl> sixth in the nation <hl> , and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first."}
{"question": "What is the current national rank of Brown School of Social Work?", "paragraph": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "answer": "currently ranked first", "sentence": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first . <hl> The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, <hl> currently ranked first <hl>. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, <hl> currently ranked first <hl> ."}
{"question": "What program at Washington University ranks first in the 2016 in the U.S. News & World Reports rankings?", "paragraph": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "answer": "The program in occupational therapy", "sentence": "The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well.", "paragraph_sentence": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. <hl> The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. <hl> For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. <hl> The program in occupational therapy <hl> at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The program in occupational therapy <hl> at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well."}
{"question": "Where did the School of Law rank in 2015 by the U.S. News & World Reports?", "paragraph": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "answer": "18th", "sentence": "For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th.", "paragraph_sentence": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. <hl> For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. <hl> Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked <hl> 18th <hl> and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked <hl> 18th <hl> and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th."}
{"question": "What year did the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design rank ninth by Designintellence?", "paragraph": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "answer": "2013", "sentence": "Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. <hl> Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its <hl> 2013 <hl> edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its <hl> 2013 <hl> edition of \"America's Best Architecture & Design Schools.\""}
{"question": "Where is Washington University's north campus located?", "paragraph": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "answer": "St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop", "sentence": "North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. <hl> North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop . <hl> The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in <hl> St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop <hl>. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "sentence_answer": "North Campus lies in <hl> St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the building and property for the north campus of Washington University acquired?", "paragraph": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "answer": "2004", "sentence": "The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004 , formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. <hl> The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004 , formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. <hl> Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in <hl> 2004 <hl>, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The University acquired the building and adjacent property in <hl> 2004 <hl> , formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory."}
{"question": "What previously occupied the building used at the north campus of Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "answer": "Angelica Uniform Factory", "sentence": "The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. <hl> The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory . <hl> Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the <hl> Angelica Uniform Factory <hl>. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the <hl> Angelica Uniform Factory <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who is Washington University's food provider on campus?", "paragraph": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "answer": "Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company", "sentence": "Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company , the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. <hl> Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company , the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by <hl> Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company <hl>, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "sentence_answer": "Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by <hl> Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company <hl> , the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010."}
{"question": "For what department does the north campus location of Washington University provide off-site storage?", "paragraph": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "answer": "Performing Arts Department", "sentence": "The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. <hl> The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department . <hl> Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the <hl> Performing Arts Department <hl>. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon App\u00e9tit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the <hl> Performing Arts Department <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the West Campus of Washington University located?", "paragraph": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "answer": "Clayton, Missouri", "sentence": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri , and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri , and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. <hl> The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "paragraph_answer": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in <hl> Clayton, Missouri <hl>, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "sentence_answer": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in <hl> Clayton, Missouri <hl> , and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space."}
{"question": "When did the university acquire the property for the West Campus?", "paragraph": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "answer": "1990", "sentence": "The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990 , when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations.", "paragraph_sentence": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. <hl> The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990 , when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. <hl> Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "paragraph_answer": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until <hl> 1990 <hl>, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "sentence_answer": "The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until <hl> 1990 <hl> , when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations."}
{"question": "What was previously located at the West Campus of Washington University?", "paragraph": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "answer": "the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store", "sentence": "The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations.", "paragraph_sentence": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. <hl> The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. <hl> Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "paragraph_answer": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to <hl> the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store <hl> until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "sentence_answer": "The West Campus building was home to <hl> the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store <hl> until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations."}
{"question": "What is located in the basement level of the West Campus?", "paragraph": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "answer": "the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space", "sentence": "Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space .", "paragraph_sentence": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. <hl> Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space . <hl> The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "paragraph_answer": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses <hl> the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space <hl>. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "sentence_answer": "Today, the basement level houses <hl> the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space <hl> ."}
{"question": "What department located at the West Campus provides IT services?", "paragraph": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.", "answer": "Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT)", "sentence": "The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT) , which provides IT training services.", "paragraph_sentence": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. <hl> The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT) , which provides IT training services. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the <hl> Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT) <hl>, which provides IT training services.", "sentence_answer": "The West Campus is also home to the <hl> Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT) <hl> , which provides IT training services."}
{"question": "Where is Tyson Research Center located?", "paragraph": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "answer": "west of St. Louis on the Meramec River", "sentence": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River . <hl> Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "paragraph_answer": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located <hl> west of St. Louis on the Meramec River <hl>. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "sentence_answer": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located <hl> west of St. Louis on the Meramec River <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Washington University acquire the property for Tyson Research Center?", "paragraph": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "answer": "1963", "sentence": "Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. <hl> Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963 . <hl> It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "paragraph_answer": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in <hl> 1963 <hl>. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in <hl> 1963 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the function of Tyson Research Center?", "paragraph": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "answer": "a biological field station and research/education center.", "sentence": "It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. <hl> It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as <hl> a biological field station and research/education center. <hl> In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "sentence_answer": "It is used by the University as <hl> a biological field station and research/education center. <hl> In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students."}
{"question": "When was the Living Learning Center accredited as a \"living building\"?", "paragraph": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "answer": "2010", "sentence": "In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. <hl> In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In <hl> 2010 <hl> the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 2010 <hl> the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students."}
{"question": "Who previously owned the property where Tyson Research Center is located?", "paragraph": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "answer": "the federal government", "sentence": "Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. <hl> Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. <hl> It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "paragraph_answer": "Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from <hl> the federal government <hl> in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a \"living building\" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from <hl> the federal government <hl> in 1963."}
{"question": "How many divisions make up Arts & Sciences at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "answer": "three divisions", "sentence": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions : the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions : the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. <hl> Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "paragraph_answer": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises <hl> three divisions <hl>: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "sentence_answer": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises <hl> three divisions <hl> : the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences."}
{"question": "Who is the Dean of Faculty of Arts & Sciences at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "answer": "Barbara Schaal", "sentence": "Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences.", "paragraph_sentence": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. <hl> Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. <hl> James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "paragraph_answer": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. <hl> Barbara Schaal <hl> is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Barbara Schaal <hl> is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences."}
{"question": "When did James Mcleod pass away?", "paragraph": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "answer": "September 6, 2011", "sentence": "James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer.", "paragraph_sentence": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. <hl> James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. <hl> Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "paragraph_answer": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, <hl> September 6, 2011 <hl> of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "sentence_answer": "James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, <hl> September 6, 2011 <hl> of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer."}
{"question": "What positions did James Mcleod hold at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "answer": "Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences", "sentence": "James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences ; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer.", "paragraph_sentence": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. <hl> James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences ; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. <hl> Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "paragraph_answer": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the <hl> Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences <hl>; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "sentence_answer": "James E. McLeod was the <hl> Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences <hl> ; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer."}
{"question": "What position does Richard J. Smith hold at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "answer": "Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "sentence": "Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.", "paragraph_sentence": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. <hl> Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is <hl> Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Richard J. Smith is <hl> Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences. <hl>"}
{"question": "When was Olin Business School founded?", "paragraph": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "answer": "1917", "sentence": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917 , the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917 , the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. <hl> The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "paragraph_answer": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in <hl> 1917 <hl>, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "sentence_answer": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in <hl> 1917 <hl> , the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988."}
{"question": "What was the original name of Olin Business School?", "paragraph": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "answer": "the School of Commerce and Finance", "sentence": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. <hl> The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "paragraph_answer": "Founded as <hl> the School of Commerce and Finance <hl> in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "sentence_answer": "Founded as <hl> the School of Commerce and Finance <hl> in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988."}
{"question": "When was Olin Business School named?", "paragraph": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "answer": "1988", "sentence": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988 . <hl> The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "paragraph_answer": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in <hl> 1988 <hl>. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "sentence_answer": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in <hl> 1988 <hl> ."}
{"question": "After whom is Olin Business School named?", "paragraph": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "answer": "John M. Olin", "sentence": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. <hl> The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "paragraph_answer": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur <hl> John M. Olin <hl> in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "sentence_answer": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur <hl> John M. Olin <hl> in 1988."}
{"question": "Where was an Executive MBA program established by Washington University in 2002?", "paragraph": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "answer": "Shanghai", "sentence": "In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai , in cooperation with Fudan University.", "paragraph_sentence": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. <hl> In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai , in cooperation with Fudan University. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in <hl> Shanghai <hl>, in cooperation with Fudan University.", "sentence_answer": "In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in <hl> Shanghai <hl> , in cooperation with Fudan University."}
{"question": "How many alumni does Olin Business School have worldwide?", "paragraph": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "answer": "more than 16,000 alumni", "sentence": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. <hl> Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "paragraph_answer": "Olin has a network of <hl> more than 16,000 alumni <hl> worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "sentence_answer": "Olin has a network of <hl> more than 16,000 alumni <hl> worldwide."}
{"question": "When was Simon Hall opened?", "paragraph": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "answer": "1986", "sentence": "Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon.", "paragraph_sentence": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. <hl> Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. <hl> On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "paragraph_answer": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in <hl> 1986 <hl> after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "sentence_answer": "Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in <hl> 1986 <hl> after a donation from John E. Simon."}
{"question": "What is the amount of Olin Business School's endowment as of 2004?", "paragraph": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "answer": "$213 million", "sentence": "Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon.", "paragraph_sentence": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. <hl> Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. <hl> On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "paragraph_answer": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to <hl> $213 million <hl> (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "sentence_answer": "Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to <hl> $213 million <hl> (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon."}
{"question": "Who provided the donation that enabled the opening Simon Hall?", "paragraph": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "answer": "John E. Simon", "sentence": "Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon .", "paragraph_sentence": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. <hl> Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon . <hl> On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "paragraph_answer": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from <hl> John E. Simon <hl>. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "sentence_answer": "Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from <hl> John E. Simon <hl> ."}
{"question": "When were Knight and Bauer Halls dedicated?", "paragraph": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "answer": "May 2, 2014", "sentence": "On May 2, 2014 , the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. <hl> On May 2, 2014 , the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school\u2019s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On <hl> May 2, 2014 <hl>, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> May 2, 2014 <hl> , the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation."}
{"question": "How many majors are available to students in the business school at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "answer": "eight", "sentence": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. <hl> Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "paragraph_answer": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in <hl> eight <hl> areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "sentence_answer": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in <hl> eight <hl> areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management."}
{"question": "What options are available for graduate students in pursuing an MBA at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "answer": "full-time or part-time", "sentence": "Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time .", "paragraph_sentence": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. <hl> Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time . <hl> Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "paragraph_answer": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either <hl> full-time or part-time <hl>. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "sentence_answer": "Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either <hl> full-time or part-time <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who is the Dean of the Olin Business School?", "paragraph": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "answer": "Mahendra R. Gupta", "sentence": "Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "paragraph_sentence": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. <hl> Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. <hl> Mahendra R. Gupta <hl> is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Mahendra R. Gupta <hl> is the Dean of the Olin Business School."}
{"question": "What percent of coursework is done at the business school by undergraduate students at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "answer": "40\u201360%", "sentence": "Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Undergraduate BSBA students take 40\u201360% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. <hl> Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "paragraph_answer": "Undergraduate BSBA students take <hl> 40\u201360% <hl> of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.", "sentence_answer": "Undergraduate BSBA students take <hl> 40\u201360% <hl> of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management."}
{"question": "With what schools does the Washington University School of Law offer joint-degree programs?", "paragraph": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "answer": "Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work", "sentence": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work . <hl> It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the <hl> Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work <hl>. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the <hl> Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many semesters of courses are offered by Washington University School of Law?", "paragraph": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "answer": "3 semesters", "sentence": "The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). <hl> The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers <hl> 3 semesters <hl> of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "sentence_answer": "The law school offers <hl> 3 semesters <hl> of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD."}
{"question": "What LLM degree programs are offered by the Washington University School of Law?", "paragraph": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "answer": "LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers", "sentence": "It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers , a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD).", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. <hl> It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers , a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). <hl> The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an <hl> LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers <hl>, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "sentence_answer": "It also offers an <hl> LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers <hl> , a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD)."}
{"question": "How many hours of coursework are required to obtain a JD at the Washington University School of Law?", "paragraph": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "answer": "85 hours", "sentence": "The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). <hl> The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least <hl> 85 hours <hl> of coursework for the JD.", "sentence_answer": "The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least <hl> 85 hours <hl> of coursework for the JD."}
{"question": "During what seasons are courses offered at the Washington University School of Law?", "paragraph": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "answer": "Spring, Summer, and Fall", "sentence": "The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall , and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). <hl> The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall , and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the <hl> Spring, Summer, and Fall <hl>, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.", "sentence_answer": "The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the <hl> Spring, Summer, and Fall <hl> , and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD."}
{"question": "Where do students in the Washington University School of Law place among test takers on average?", "paragraph": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "answer": "96th percentile", "sentence": "This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. <hl> This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. <hl> The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the <hl> 96th percentile <hl> of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "This year, the median score placed the average student in the <hl> 96th percentile <hl> of test takers."}
{"question": "Where is the Washington University School of Law ranked in the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools?", "paragraph": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "answer": "18th", "sentence": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. <hl> In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked <hl> 18th <hl> nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked <hl> 18th <hl> nationally, out of over 180 law schools."}
{"question": "When does full-time coursework J.D. begin at the Washington University School of Law begin?", "paragraph": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "answer": "August", "sentence": "The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August , for the J.D. degree.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. <hl> The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August , for the J.D. degree. <hl> The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in <hl> August <hl>, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in <hl> August <hl> , for the J.D. degree."}
{"question": "Where does the Washington University School of Law rank among \"25 Most Wired Law Schools\"?", "paragraph": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "answer": "4th", "sentence": "In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. <hl> In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. <hl> This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked <hl> 4th <hl> in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked <hl> 4th <hl> in the nation."}
{"question": "What building provides the location of the Washington University School of Law?", "paragraph": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "answer": "Anheuser-Busch Hall", "sentence": "The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997).", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. <hl> The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). <hl> The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "paragraph_answer": "In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, <hl> Anheuser-Busch Hall <hl> (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the \"25 Most Wired Law Schools.\"", "sentence_answer": "The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, <hl> Anheuser-Busch Hall <hl> (opened in 1997)."}
{"question": "When was the Washington University School of Medicine founded?", "paragraph": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "answer": "1891", "sentence": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891 , is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891 , is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. <hl> The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in <hl> 1891 <hl>, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "sentence_answer": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in <hl> 1891 <hl> , is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training."}
{"question": "Where does the Washington University School of Medicine rank in student selectivity?", "paragraph": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "answer": "first", "sentence": "The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. <hl> The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. <hl> Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks <hl> first <hl> in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "sentence_answer": "The School ranks <hl> first <hl> in the nation in student selectivity."}
{"question": "Who is the director of the Genome Center at Washington University?", "paragraph": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "answer": "Richard K. Wilson", "sentence": "Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson ) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. <hl> Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson ) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. <hl> The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by <hl> Richard K. Wilson <hl>) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "sentence_answer": "Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by <hl> Richard K. Wilson <hl> ) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence."}
{"question": "How much of a contribution did the Genome Center at Washington University make in sequencing the Human Genome Project?", "paragraph": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "answer": "25%", "sentence": "Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. <hl> Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. <hl> The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed <hl> 25% <hl> of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "sentence_answer": "Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed <hl> 25% <hl> of the finished sequence."}
{"question": "What hospitals partner with the Washington University School of Medicine?", "paragraph": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "answer": "St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital", "sentence": "The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. <hl> The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with <hl> St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital <hl> (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.", "sentence_answer": "The medical school partners with <hl> St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital <hl> (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty."}
{"question": "When was the George Warren Brown School of Social Work founded?", "paragraph": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "answer": "1925", "sentence": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925 . <hl> Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "paragraph_answer": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in <hl> 1925 <hl>. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "sentence_answer": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in <hl> 1925 <hl> ."}
{"question": "By what other names is the George Warren Brown School of Social Work known?", "paragraph": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "answer": "Brown School or Brown", "sentence": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown ) was founded in 1925.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown ) was founded in 1925. <hl> Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "paragraph_answer": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the <hl> Brown School or Brown <hl>) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "sentence_answer": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the <hl> Brown School or Brown <hl> ) was founded in 1925."}
{"question": "What degree programs are offered by the George Warren Brown School of Social Work?", "paragraph": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "answer": "Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences", "sentence": "Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences .", "paragraph_sentence": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. <hl> Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences . <hl> It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "paragraph_answer": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a <hl> Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences <hl>. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "sentence_answer": "Brown's academic degree offerings include a <hl> Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences <hl> ."}
{"question": "What roles was George Warren Brown known?", "paragraph": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "answer": "St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company", "sentence": "The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company .", "paragraph_sentence": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. <hl> The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company . <hl> The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "paragraph_answer": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a <hl> St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company <hl>. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "sentence_answer": "The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a <hl> St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company <hl> ."}
{"question": "What facilities house the George Warren Brown School of Social Work?", "paragraph": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "answer": "Brown and Goldfarb Halls", "sentence": "The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls , but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015.", "paragraph_sentence": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. <hl> The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls , but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. <hl> The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "paragraph_answer": "With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within <hl> Brown and Goldfarb Halls <hl>, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.", "sentence_answer": "The school is housed within <hl> Brown and Goldfarb Halls <hl> , but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015."}
{"question": "Who is the Brown School's current Dean?", "paragraph": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "answer": "Edward F. Lawlor", "sentence": "The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor .", "paragraph_sentence": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. <hl> The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor . <hl> In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "paragraph_answer": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is <hl> Edward F. Lawlor <hl>. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "sentence_answer": "The school's current dean is <hl> Edward F. Lawlor <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many research centers are housed by the Brown School?", "paragraph": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "answer": "12 research centers.", "sentence": "In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management.", "paragraph_sentence": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. <hl> In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. <hl> The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "paragraph_answer": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses <hl> 12 research centers. <hl> The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "sentence_answer": "In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses <hl> 12 research centers. <hl> The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management."}
{"question": "What topics of emphasis are contained in the Brown School Library collection?", "paragraph": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "answer": "children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management.", "sentence": "The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "paragraph_sentence": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. <hl> The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: <hl> children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. <hl> The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "sentence_answer": "The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: <hl> children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. <hl> The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals."}
{"question": "What areas does the Brown School Library have represented scholars?", "paragraph": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "answer": "social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development", "sentence": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development . <hl> Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "paragraph_answer": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in <hl> social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development <hl>. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "sentence_answer": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in <hl> social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development <hl> ."}
{"question": "To how many academic journals does the Brown School Library subscribe?", "paragraph": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.", "answer": "over 450 academic journals", "sentence": "The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals .", "paragraph_sentence": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. <hl> The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to <hl> over 450 academic journals <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The library maintains subscriptions to <hl> over 450 academic journals <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum established?", "paragraph": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "answer": "1881", "sentence": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881 , is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881 , is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. <hl> The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "paragraph_answer": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in <hl> 1881 <hl>, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "sentence_answer": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in <hl> 1881 <hl> , is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country."}
{"question": "From what centuries does the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum have collections?", "paragraph": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "answer": "19th, 20th, and 21st century", "sentence": "The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. <hl> The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. <hl> Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "paragraph_answer": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from <hl> 19th, 20th, and 21st century <hl> American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "sentence_answer": "The collection includes works from <hl> 19th, 20th, and 21st century <hl> American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski."}
{"question": "When did the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum changed locations?", "paragraph": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "answer": "2006", "sentence": "In October 2006 , the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. <hl> In October 2006 , the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. <hl> Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "paragraph_answer": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October <hl> 2006 <hl>, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "sentence_answer": "In October <hl> 2006 <hl> , the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki."}
{"question": "Who designed the new location of the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum?", "paragraph": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "answer": "Fumihiko Maki", "sentence": "In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. <hl> In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki . <hl> Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "paragraph_answer": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member <hl> Fumihiko Maki <hl>. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "sentence_answer": "In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member <hl> Fumihiko Maki <hl> ."}
{"question": "What facility was Fumihiko Maki's first commission?", "paragraph": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "answer": "Steinberg Hall", "sentence": "In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall , into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. <hl> In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall , into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. <hl> Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "paragraph_answer": "The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, <hl> Steinberg Hall <hl>, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.", "sentence_answer": "In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, <hl> Steinberg Hall <hl> , into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki."}
{"question": "How many schools does Washington University have?", "paragraph": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "answer": "seven", "sentence": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. <hl> Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "paragraph_answer": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's <hl> seven <hl> schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "sentence_answer": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's <hl> seven <hl> schools."}
{"question": "What percent of undergraduate students are involved in faculty research?", "paragraph": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "answer": "60%", "sentence": "Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research.", "paragraph_sentence": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. <hl> Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. <hl> According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "paragraph_answer": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than <hl> 60% <hl> of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "sentence_answer": "Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than <hl> 60% <hl> of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research."}
{"question": "How does the Center for Measuring University performance rank Washington University?", "paragraph": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "answer": "one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation", "sentence": "According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation .", "paragraph_sentence": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. <hl> According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation . <hl> A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "paragraph_answer": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be <hl> one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation <hl>. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "sentence_answer": "According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be <hl> one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the Office of Undergraduate Research located?", "paragraph": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "answer": "the Danforth Campus", "sentence": "A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "paragraph_sentence": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. <hl> A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on <hl> the Danforth Campus <hl> and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.", "sentence_answer": "A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on <hl> the Danforth Campus <hl> and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research."}
{"question": "How much money in financial support did Washington University receive in 2007?", "paragraph": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "answer": "$537.5 million", "sentence": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. <hl> The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "paragraph_answer": "During fiscal year 2007, <hl> $537.5 million <hl> was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "sentence_answer": "During fiscal year 2007, <hl> $537.5 million <hl> was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations."}
{"question": "How many inventions does Washington University have funded by the National Institute of health?", "paragraph": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "answer": "150", "sentence": "The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies.", "paragraph_sentence": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. <hl> The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. <hl> Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "paragraph_answer": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over <hl> 150 <hl> National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "sentence_answer": "The University has over <hl> 150 <hl> National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies."}
{"question": "What percentage of NH grants in Missouri went to Washington University?", "paragraph": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "answer": "80%", "sentence": "Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007.", "paragraph_sentence": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. <hl> Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. <hl> Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "paragraph_answer": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly <hl> 80% <hl> of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "sentence_answer": "Nearly <hl> 80% <hl> of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007."}
{"question": "What percentage of the sequencing did the Washington University Medical School contribute to the Human Genome Project?", "paragraph": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "answer": "25%", "sentence": "Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence.", "paragraph_sentence": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. <hl> Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. <hl> The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "paragraph_answer": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately <hl> 25% <hl> of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately <hl> 25% <hl> of the finished sequence."}
{"question": "What are some organisms for which the Genome Sequencing Center at Washington University Medical provided genome decoding?", "paragraph": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.", "answer": "platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn", "sentence": "The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn .", "paragraph_sentence": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. <hl> The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the <hl> platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the <hl> platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many student organizations does Washington University have on campus?", "paragraph": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "answer": "300", "sentence": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. <hl> Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has over <hl> 300 <hl> undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University has over <hl> 300 <hl> undergraduate student organizations on campus."}
{"question": "How are most student organizations at Washington University funded?", "paragraph": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "answer": "by the Washington University Student Union", "sentence": "Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union , which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. <hl> Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union , which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. <hl> Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded <hl> by the Washington University Student Union <hl>, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "Most are funded <hl> by the Washington University Student Union <hl> , which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country."}
{"question": "What is the amount of the Washington University Student Union annual budget?", "paragraph": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "answer": "$2 million", "sentence": "Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. <hl> Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. <hl> Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a <hl> $2 million <hl> plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a <hl> $2 million <hl> plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country."}
{"question": "What percentage of students are involved in Greek life at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "answer": "35%", "sentence": "There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. <hl> There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. <hl> The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately <hl> 35% <hl> of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately <hl> 35% <hl> of the student body being involved in Greek life."}
{"question": "How many fraternities are located at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "answer": "11", "sentence": "There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. <hl> There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. <hl> The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are <hl> 11 <hl> fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "There are <hl> 11 <hl> fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life."}
{"question": "How many a cappella groups does Washington University have?", "paragraph": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "answer": "12", "sentence": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. <hl> The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including <hl> 12 <hl> official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including <hl> 12 <hl> official a cappella groups."}
{"question": "What is the name of the oldest a cappella group at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "answer": "The Pikers", "sentence": "The Pikers , an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. <hl> The Pikers , an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. <hl> The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. <hl> The Pikers <hl>, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Pikers <hl> , an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus."}
{"question": "What is the oldest female a cappella group at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "answer": "The Greenleafs", "sentence": "The Greenleafs , an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. <hl> The Greenleafs , an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. <hl> The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. <hl> The Greenleafs <hl>, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Greenleafs <hl> , an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus."}
{"question": "When was the oldest co-ed a cappella group at Washington University founded?", "paragraph": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "answer": "1991", "sentence": "The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991 , is the oldest co-ed group on campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. <hl> The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991 , is the oldest co-ed group on campus. <hl> They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in <hl> 1991 <hl>, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "sentence_answer": "The Mosaic Whispers, founded in <hl> 1991 <hl> , is the oldest co-ed group on campus."}
{"question": "When did the group After Dark perform MSNBC?", "paragraph": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "answer": "2008", "sentence": "In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. <hl> In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. <hl> The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In <hl> 2008 <hl> the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 2008 <hl> the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin."}
{"question": "What percent of undergraduate students live on campus at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "answer": "Over 50%", "sentence": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. <hl> Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Over 50% <hl> of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Over 50% <hl> of undergraduate students live on campus."}
{"question": "Where are most residence halls located at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "answer": "the South 40,", "sentence": "Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2).", "paragraph_sentence": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. <hl> Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). <hl> It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on <hl> the South 40, <hl> named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "Most of the residence halls on campus are located on <hl> the South 40, <hl> named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2)."}
{"question": "How did the South 40 get its name?", "paragraph": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "answer": "because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres", "sentence": "Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2).", "paragraph_sentence": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. <hl> Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). <hl> It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named <hl> because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres <hl> (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named <hl> because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres <hl> (160,000 m2)."}
{"question": "Where are all freshman residence buildings at Washington University located?", "paragraph": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "answer": "the South 40", "sentence": "Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40 , named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2).", "paragraph_sentence": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. <hl> Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40 , named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). <hl> It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on <hl> the South 40 <hl>, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "Most of the residence halls on campus are located on <hl> the South 40 <hl> , named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2)."}
{"question": "What is the gender make-up of the residence halls at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "answer": "co-ed", "sentence": "All of the residential halls are co-ed .", "paragraph_sentence": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. <hl> All of the residential halls are co-ed . <hl> The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "paragraph_answer": "Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are <hl> co-ed <hl>. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.", "sentence_answer": "All of the residential halls are <hl> co-ed <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the Village located at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "answer": "the northwest corner of Danforth Campus", "sentence": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus . <hl> Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "paragraph_answer": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in <hl> the northwest corner of Danforth Campus <hl>. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "sentence_answer": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in <hl> the northwest corner of Danforth Campus <hl> ."}
{"question": "What students are allowed in the North Side residences at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "answer": "upperclassmen and January Scholars", "sentence": "Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars , the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. <hl> Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars , the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. <hl> Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "paragraph_answer": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to <hl> upperclassmen and January Scholars <hl>, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "sentence_answer": "Only open to <hl> upperclassmen and January Scholars <hl> , the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40."}
{"question": "How many students are composed in Blocs?", "paragraph": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "answer": "groups of 4 to 24", "sentence": "The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24 , known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. <hl> The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24 , known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. <hl> Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "paragraph_answer": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small <hl> groups of 4 to 24 <hl>, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "sentence_answer": "The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small <hl> groups of 4 to 24 <hl> , known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs."}
{"question": "What residences comprise the North Side of Washington University?", "paragraph": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "answer": "Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments", "sentence": "Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments , and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. <hl> Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments , and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. <hl> Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "paragraph_answer": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of <hl> Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments <hl>, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "sentence_answer": "Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of <hl> Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments <hl> , and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40."}
{"question": "How are students grouped in BLOCS at the Village residences?", "paragraph": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "answer": "students who have similar interests or academic goals", "sentence": "The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. <hl> The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. <hl> Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "paragraph_answer": "Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where <hl> students who have similar interests or academic goals <hl> apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.", "sentence_answer": "The Village is a group of residences where <hl> students who have similar interests or academic goals <hl> apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs."}
{"question": "How many media outlets does Washington University support?", "paragraph": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "answer": "four", "sentence": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. <hl> The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University supports <hl> four <hl> major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University supports <hl> four <hl> major student-run media outlets."}
{"question": "What is the official student radio station at Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "answer": "KWUR (90.3 FM)", "sentence": "KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. <hl> KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. <hl> WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. <hl> KWUR (90.3 FM) <hl> serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> KWUR (90.3 FM) <hl> serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming."}
{"question": "What is the name of Washington University's political publication?", "paragraph": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "answer": "Washington University Political Review", "sentence": "The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. <hl> The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. <hl> Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the <hl> Washington University Political Review <hl> (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "sentence_answer": "The university's main student-run political publication is the <hl> Washington University Political Review <hl> (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine."}
{"question": "What is Washington University's closed circuit television network?", "paragraph": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "answer": "WUTV", "sentence": "WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. <hl> WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. <hl> The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. <hl> WUTV <hl> is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> WUTV <hl> is the university's closed-circuit television channel."}
{"question": "What are the names of the art journals published by Washington University?", "paragraph": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "answer": "The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine", "sentence": "Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine .", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. <hl> Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine . <hl> A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed \"WUPR\"), a self-described \"multipartisan\" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, <hl> The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine <hl>. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, <hl> The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the name of the Washington University sports teams?", "paragraph": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "answer": "the Bears", "sentence": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears . <hl> They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's sports teams are called <hl> the Bears <hl>. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "sentence_answer": "Washington University's sports teams are called <hl> the Bears <hl> ."}
{"question": "At what division level does the Washington University sports teams compete?", "paragraph": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "answer": "Division III", "sentence": "They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. <hl> They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. <hl> The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the <hl> Division III <hl> level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "sentence_answer": "They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the <hl> Division III <hl> level."}
{"question": "How many NCAA division championships have the Washington University sports teams won?", "paragraph": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "answer": "19", "sentence": "The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. <hl> The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. <hl> The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won <hl> 19 <hl> NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "sentence_answer": "The Bears have won <hl> 19 <hl> NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports."}
{"question": "In what years did the Washington University men's basketball teams win division championships?", "paragraph": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "answer": "2008, 2009", "sentence": "The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball ( 2008, 2009 ), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. <hl> The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball ( 2008, 2009 ), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. <hl> The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (<hl> 2008, 2009 <hl>), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "sentence_answer": "The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball ( <hl> 2008, 2009 <hl> ), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports."}
{"question": "Who is the head of the Washington University Athletic Department?", "paragraph": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "answer": "John Schael", "sentence": "The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978.", "paragraph_sentence": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. <hl> The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. <hl> The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "paragraph_answer": "Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships\u2014 one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998\u20132001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991\u20131996, 2003, 2007, 2009) \u2013 and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by <hl> John Schael <hl> who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.", "sentence_answer": "The Athletic Department is headed by <hl> John Schael <hl> who has served as director of athletics since 1978."}
{"question": "What is the CIA's main focus?", "paragraph": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "answer": "overseas intelligence gathering", "sentence": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering , with only limited domestic collection.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering , with only limited domestic collection. <hl> Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on <hl> overseas intelligence gathering <hl>, with only limited domestic collection. Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "sentence_answer": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on <hl> overseas intelligence gathering <hl> , with only limited domestic collection."}
{"question": "What does FBI stand for?", "paragraph": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "answer": "Federal Bureau of Investigation", "sentence": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. <hl> Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the <hl> Federal Bureau of Investigation <hl> (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "sentence_answer": "Unlike the <hl> Federal Bureau of Investigation <hl> (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection."}
{"question": "What is the only agency that is authorized to carry out action on behalf of the president?", "paragraph": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "answer": "CIA", "sentence": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. <hl> Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, <hl> CIA <hl> has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.", "sentence_answer": "Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, <hl> CIA <hl> has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection."}
{"question": "What is the title of the person who manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands?", "paragraph": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "answer": "The Associate Director of military affairs", "sentence": "The Associate Director of military affairs , a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. <hl> The Associate Director of military affairs , a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. <hl> The Associate Director of military affairs <hl>, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Associate Director of military affairs <hl> , a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence."}
{"question": "What three ways does the Executive office support the U.S. military?", "paragraph": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "answer": "providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities", "sentence": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities . <hl> The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "paragraph_answer": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by <hl> providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities <hl>. The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "sentence_answer": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by <hl> providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA?", "paragraph": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "answer": "The Executive Director", "sentence": "The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. <hl> The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. <hl> The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "paragraph_answer": "The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. <hl> The Executive Director <hl> is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Executive Director <hl> is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director."}
{"question": "How many regional analytic groups does the Directorate of Analysis have?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "answer": "four", "sentence": "It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. <hl> It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. <hl> There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has <hl> four <hl> regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "sentence_answer": "It has <hl> four <hl> regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support."}
{"question": "Who produces all source intelligence investigations?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "answer": "The Directorate of Analysis", "sentence": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. <hl> It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Directorate of Analysis <hl> produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Directorate of Analysis <hl> produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics."}
{"question": "How many groups of the Directorate of Analysis focus on policy, collection and staff support?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. <hl> It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. <hl> There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and <hl> three <hl> focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "sentence_answer": "It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and <hl> three <hl> focus on policy, collection, and staff support."}
{"question": "How many groups does the Directorate of Analysis have for transnational issues?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "answer": "six", "sentence": "It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. <hl> It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. <hl> There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, <hl> six <hl> groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "sentence_answer": "It has four regional analytic groups, <hl> six <hl> groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support."}
{"question": "The Directorate of Analysis has an office dedicated to what country?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "answer": "Iraq", "sentence": "There is an office dedicated to Iraq , and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. <hl> There is an office dedicated to Iraq , and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to <hl> Iraq <hl>, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.", "sentence_answer": "There is an office dedicated to <hl> Iraq <hl> , and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis."}
{"question": "What office is in charge of collecting foreign intelligence?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "answer": "The Directorate of Operations", "sentence": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. <hl> The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Directorate of Operations <hl> is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Directorate of Operations <hl> is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action."}
{"question": "What is the main reason the Directorate of Operations was created?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "answer": "to end years of rivalry", "sentence": "This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. <hl> This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. <hl> In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt <hl> to end years of rivalry <hl> over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "sentence_answer": "This Directorate was created in an attempt <hl> to end years of rivalry <hl> over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA."}
{"question": "What intelligence service did the Department of Defense recently create?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "answer": "the Defense Clandestine Service", "sentence": "In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. <hl> In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, <hl> the Defense Clandestine Service <hl> (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "sentence_answer": "In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, <hl> the Defense Clandestine Service <hl> (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)."}
{"question": "What does DIA stand for?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "answer": "Defense Intelligence Agency", "sentence": "In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. <hl> In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the <hl> Defense Intelligence Agency <hl> (DIA).", "sentence_answer": "In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the <hl> Defense Intelligence Agency <hl> (DIA)."}
{"question": "What is DOD short for?", "paragraph": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "answer": "Department of Defense", "sentence": "This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. <hl> This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. <hl> In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "paragraph_answer": "The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States <hl> Department of Defense <hl> (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).", "sentence_answer": "This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States <hl> Department of Defense <hl> (DOD) and the CIA."}
{"question": "In what year did the CIA establish its first training facility?", "paragraph": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "answer": "1950", "sentence": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950 . <hl> Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in <hl> 1950 <hl>. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "sentence_answer": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in <hl> 1950 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the name of the first training facility that was established by the CIA?", "paragraph": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "answer": "the Office of Training and Education", "sentence": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education , in 1950.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education , in 1950. <hl> Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA established its first training facility, <hl> the Office of Training and Education <hl>, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "sentence_answer": "The CIA established its first training facility, <hl> the Office of Training and Education <hl> , in 1950."}
{"question": "What event decreased the CIA's training budget?", "paragraph": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "answer": "the Cold War", "sentence": "Following the end of the Cold War , the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention.", "paragraph_sentence": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. <hl> Following the end of the Cold War , the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. <hl> In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of <hl> the Cold War <hl>, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "sentence_answer": "Following the end of <hl> the Cold War <hl> , the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention."}
{"question": "How many annual courses does the CIA University have?", "paragraph": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "answer": "between 200 and 300", "sentence": "CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff.", "paragraph_sentence": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. <hl> CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. <hl> The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds <hl> between 200 and 300 <hl> courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "sentence_answer": "CIA University holds <hl> between 200 and 300 <hl> courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff."}
{"question": "Who was the Director of Central Intelligence in 2002?", "paragraph": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "answer": "George Tenet", "sentence": "In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002.", "paragraph_sentence": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. <hl> In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. <hl> CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence <hl> George Tenet <hl> established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.", "sentence_answer": "In response, Director of Central Intelligence <hl> George Tenet <hl> established CIA University in 2002."}
{"question": "What year was the Central Intelligence Agency Act created?", "paragraph": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "answer": "1949", "sentence": "Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949 , the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money.", "paragraph_sentence": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. <hl> Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949 , the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. <hl> The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of <hl> 1949 <hl>, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of <hl> 1949 <hl> , the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money."}
{"question": "How much money was spent on non-military intelligence in 2013?", "paragraph": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "answer": "$52.6 billion", "sentence": "The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion .", "paragraph_sentence": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. <hl> The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion . <hl> According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is <hl> $52.6 billion <hl>. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is <hl> $52.6 billion <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who is the only federal employee that can spend un-vouched for money?", "paragraph": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "answer": "the Director of Central Intelligence", "sentence": "Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money.", "paragraph_sentence": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. <hl> Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. <hl> The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, <hl> the Director of Central Intelligence <hl> is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, <hl> the Director of Central Intelligence <hl> is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money."}
{"question": "What was the 2013 annual budget for the CIA's HUMINT?", "paragraph": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "answer": "$2.3 billion", "sentence": "CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion , the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion.", "paragraph_sentence": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. <hl> CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion , the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. <hl> \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is <hl> $2.3 billion <hl>, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "CIA's HUMINT budget is <hl> $2.3 billion <hl> , the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion."}
{"question": "What two major things does the CIA's \"Covert action programs\" include?", "paragraph": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "answer": "drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities", "sentence": "\"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities , accounts for $2.6 billion.", "paragraph_sentence": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. <hl> \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities , accounts for $2.6 billion. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend \"un-vouchered\" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. \"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's <hl> drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities <hl>, accounts for $2.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "\"Covert action programs\", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's <hl> drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities <hl> , accounts for $2.6 billion."}
{"question": "What was the first year the CIA's budget was disclosed?", "paragraph": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "answer": "1963", "sentence": "As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016).", "paragraph_sentence": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. <hl> As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). <hl> There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "paragraph_answer": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year <hl> 1963 <hl> was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "sentence_answer": "As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year <hl> 1963 <hl> was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016)."}
{"question": "Who disclosed the CIA's budget for 2005?", "paragraph": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "answer": "Mary Margaret Graham", "sentence": "There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham , a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA.", "paragraph_sentence": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). <hl> There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham , a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. <hl> After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "paragraph_answer": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, <hl> Mary Margaret Graham <hl>, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "sentence_answer": "There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, <hl> Mary Margaret Graham <hl> , a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA."}
{"question": "What group accidentally published the non CIA budget in 1994?", "paragraph": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "answer": "Congress", "sentence": "There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA.", "paragraph_sentence": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). <hl> There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. <hl> After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "paragraph_answer": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 <hl> Congress <hl> accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "sentence_answer": "There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 <hl> Congress <hl> accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA."}
{"question": "What plan appropriated $13.7 billion over five years?", "paragraph": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "answer": "the Marshall Plan", "sentence": "After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "paragraph_sentence": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. <hl> After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After <hl> the Marshall Plan <hl> was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "sentence_answer": "After <hl> the Marshall Plan <hl> was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA."}
{"question": "What percent of the $13.7 billion did the CIA receive?", "paragraph": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "answer": "5%", "sentence": "After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "paragraph_sentence": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. <hl> After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, <hl> 5% <hl> of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.", "sentence_answer": "After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, <hl> 5% <hl> of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA."}
{"question": "What is the UK's equivalent to the CIA?", "paragraph": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "answer": "Secret Intelligence Service", "sentence": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. <hl> While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's <hl> Secret Intelligence Service <hl> (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's <hl> Secret Intelligence Service <hl> (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad."}
{"question": "What does ASIS stand for?", "paragraph": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "answer": "Australian Secret Intelligence Service", "sentence": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. <hl> While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the <hl> Australian Secret Intelligence Service <hl> (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the <hl> Australian Secret Intelligence Service <hl> (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad."}
{"question": "What is the name of Israel's intelligence agency?", "paragraph": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "answer": "Mossad", "sentence": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad . <hl> While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's <hl> Mossad <hl>. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's <hl> Mossad <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the acronym for India's Research and Analysis Wing?", "paragraph": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "answer": "RAW", "sentence": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing ( RAW ), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing ( RAW ), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. <hl> While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (<hl> RAW <hl>), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing ( <hl> RAW <hl> ), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad."}
{"question": "What is the acronym for French's intelligence service?", "paragraph": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "answer": "DGSE", "sentence": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure ( DGSE ) and Israel's Mossad.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure ( DGSE ) and Israel's Mossad. <hl> While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure (<hl> DGSE <hl>) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction G\u00e9n\u00e9rale de la S\u00e9curit\u00e9 Ext\u00e9rieure ( <hl> DGSE <hl> ) and Israel's Mossad."}
{"question": "Which four countries can share communications with the U.S. IC?", "paragraph": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "answer": "Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom", "sentence": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom . <hl> There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "paragraph_answer": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: <hl> Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom <hl>. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "sentence_answer": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: <hl> Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does NOFORN stand for?", "paragraph": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "answer": "No Foreign Nationals", "sentence": "Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals ) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information.", "paragraph_sentence": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. <hl> Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals ) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. <hl> A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "paragraph_answer": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., <hl> No Foreign Nationals <hl>) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "sentence_answer": "Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., <hl> No Foreign Nationals <hl> ) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information."}
{"question": "What is the special marking that shows messages can be shared with these other five countries?", "paragraph": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "answer": "USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes", "sentence": "A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes , used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "paragraph_sentence": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. <hl> A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes , used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, <hl> USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes <hl>, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.", "sentence_answer": "A new handling caveat, <hl> USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes <hl> , used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand."}
{"question": "What president authorized the creation of the intelligence service?", "paragraph": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "answer": "Franklin D. Roosevelt", "sentence": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. <hl> This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "paragraph_answer": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President <hl> Franklin D. Roosevelt <hl> to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "sentence_answer": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President <hl> Franklin D. Roosevelt <hl> to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive."}
{"question": "Who's secret intelligence service was the US's modeled after?", "paragraph": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "answer": "British", "sentence": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. <hl> This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "paragraph_answer": "The success of the <hl> British <hl> Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "sentence_answer": "The success of the <hl> British <hl> Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive."}
{"question": "What does OSS stand for?", "paragraph": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "answer": "Office of Strategic Services", "sentence": "This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS).", "paragraph_sentence": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. <hl> This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). <hl> On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "paragraph_answer": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the <hl> Office of Strategic Services <hl> (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "sentence_answer": "This led to the creation of the <hl> Office of Strategic Services <hl> (OSS)."}
{"question": "Who signed the order to get rid of the OSS?", "paragraph": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "answer": "Harry S. Truman", "sentence": "On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War.", "paragraph_sentence": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). <hl> On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. <hl> The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "paragraph_answer": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, <hl> Harry S. Truman <hl> signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "sentence_answer": "On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, <hl> Harry S. Truman <hl> signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War."}
{"question": "In what year was the OSS dissolved?", "paragraph": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "answer": "1945", "sentence": "On September 20, 1945 , shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War.", "paragraph_sentence": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). <hl> On September 20, 1945 , shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. <hl> The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "paragraph_answer": "The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, <hl> 1945 <hl>, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the \"Central Intelligence Agency\" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)", "sentence_answer": "On September 20, <hl> 1945 <hl> , shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War."}
{"question": "Which act got rid of the NIA and the CIG?", "paragraph": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"PL-110\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "answer": "National Security Act", "sentence": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. <hl> In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"PL-110\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "paragraph_answer": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the <hl> National Security Act <hl> of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"PL-110\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "sentence_answer": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the <hl> National Security Act <hl> of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency."}
{"question": "What program handled \"essential aliens\" that did not fall under normal immigration policies?", "paragraph": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"PL-110\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "answer": "PL-110", "sentence": "It created the program \" PL-110 \", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "paragraph_sentence": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" <hl> It created the program \" PL-110 \", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"<hl> PL-110 <hl>\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "sentence_answer": "It created the program \" <hl> PL-110 <hl> \", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures."}
{"question": "Lawrence Houston helped to draft what act in 1949?", "paragraph": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"PL-110\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "answer": "Central Intelligence Agency Act", "sentence": "In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act , (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds.", "paragraph_sentence": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. <hl> In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act , (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. <hl> It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"PL-110\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "paragraph_answer": "Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the <hl> Central Intelligence Agency Act <hl>, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its \"organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed.\" It created the program \"PL-110\", to handle defectors and other \"essential aliens\" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.", "sentence_answer": "In 1949, Houston would help draft the <hl> Central Intelligence Agency Act <hl> , (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds."}
{"question": "Who was appointed to be the new Director of the CIA in 1950?", "paragraph": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "answer": "Walter Bedell Smith", "sentence": "On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. <hl> On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced <hl> Walter Bedell Smith <hl> as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "sentence_answer": "On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced <hl> Walter Bedell Smith <hl> as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]"}
{"question": "What president announced the new CIA director?", "paragraph": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "answer": "Truman", "sentence": "On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. <hl> On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, <hl> Truman <hl> announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "sentence_answer": "On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, <hl> Truman <hl> announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]"}
{"question": "Where was most of the CIA's intelligence coming from before 1950?", "paragraph": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "answer": "the Office of Reports and Estimates", "sentence": "Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates , which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. <hl> Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates , which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. <hl> The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "paragraph_answer": "At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from <hl> the Office of Reports and Estimates <hl>, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]", "sentence_answer": "Intelligence primarily came from <hl> the Office of Reports and Estimates <hl> , which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents."}
{"question": "Who wanted the CIA to have a central group that organized information for him?", "paragraph": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "answer": "Truman", "sentence": "Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US.", "paragraph_sentence": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. <hl> Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. <hl> Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. <hl> Truman <hl> wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Truman <hl> wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US."}
{"question": "What did the Department of defense want from the CIA?", "paragraph": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "answer": "military intelligence and covert action", "sentence": "Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action , and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US.", "paragraph_sentence": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. <hl> Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action , and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. <hl> Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted <hl> military intelligence and covert action <hl>, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "sentence_answer": "Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted <hl> military intelligence and covert action <hl> , and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US."}
{"question": "What was the State Department hoping for the CIA to do?", "paragraph": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "answer": "create global political change favorable to the US", "sentence": "Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US .", "paragraph_sentence": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. <hl> Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US . <hl> Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to <hl> create global political change favorable to the US <hl>. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "sentence_answer": "Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to <hl> create global political change favorable to the US <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was one of the main targets of intelligence gathering?", "paragraph": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "answer": "the Soviet Union", "sentence": "One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union , which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "paragraph_sentence": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. <hl> One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union , which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was <hl> the Soviet Union <hl>, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.", "sentence_answer": "One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was <hl> the Soviet Union <hl> , which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors."}
{"question": "Who created the Office of Special Operations?", "paragraph": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "answer": "Hoyt Vandenberg", "sentence": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg , the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> US army general Hoyt Vandenberg , the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). <hl> Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "paragraph_answer": "US army general <hl> Hoyt Vandenberg <hl>, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "sentence_answer": "US army general <hl> Hoyt Vandenberg <hl> , the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE)."}
{"question": "What does ORE stand for?", "paragraph": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "answer": "Office of Reports and Estimates", "sentence": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). <hl> Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "paragraph_answer": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the <hl> Office of Reports and Estimates <hl> (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "sentence_answer": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the <hl> Office of Reports and Estimates <hl> (ORE)."}
{"question": "What was the Office of Special Operations initial budget?", "paragraph": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "answer": "$15 million", "sentence": "Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million , the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress.", "paragraph_sentence": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). <hl> Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million , the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. <hl> Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "paragraph_answer": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of <hl> $15 million <hl>, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "sentence_answer": "Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of <hl> $15 million <hl> , the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress."}
{"question": "Who was the OSO trying to track and gain intelligence on?", "paragraph": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "answer": "the Soviet forces", "sentence": "Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. <hl> Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" <hl> This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "paragraph_answer": "US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about <hl> the Soviet forces <hl> in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\" This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.", "sentence_answer": "Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out \"everything about <hl> the Soviet forces <hl> in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions.\""}
{"question": "In what year was directive 10/2 issued?", "paragraph": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "answer": "1948", "sentence": "On 18 June 1948 , the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On 18 June 1948 , the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. <hl> To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "paragraph_answer": "On 18 June <hl> 1948 <hl>, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "sentence_answer": "On 18 June <hl> 1948 <hl> , the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government."}
{"question": "Who was the head of the OPC?", "paragraph": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "answer": "Frank Wisner", "sentence": "The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner , the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA.", "paragraph_sentence": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. <hl> The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner , the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. <hl> Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "paragraph_answer": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; <hl> Frank Wisner <hl>, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "sentence_answer": "The OPC was quite unique; <hl> Frank Wisner <hl> , the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA."}
{"question": "Most CIA stations had how many chiefs?", "paragraph": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "answer": "two", "sentence": "Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "paragraph_sentence": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. <hl> Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had <hl> two <hl> station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "sentence_answer": "Most CIA stations had <hl> two <hl> station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC."}
{"question": "Directive 10/2 called for actions against who?", "paragraph": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "answer": "the USSR", "sentence": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR , and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR , and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. <hl> To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "paragraph_answer": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against <hl> the USSR <hl>, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.", "sentence_answer": "On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against <hl> the USSR <hl> , and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against \"hostile foreign states or groups\" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government."}
{"question": "How many troops did the Chinese enter into the Korean War?", "paragraph": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "answer": "300,000", "sentence": "In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops.", "paragraph_sentence": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. <hl> In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. <hl> The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "paragraph_answer": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with <hl> 300,000 <hl> troops. The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "sentence_answer": "In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with <hl> 300,000 <hl> troops."}
{"question": "Who compromised hundreds of airdrops?", "paragraph": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "answer": "Kim Philby", "sentence": "The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence.", "paragraph_sentence": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. <hl> The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. <hl> Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "paragraph_answer": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. The famous double agent <hl> Kim Philby <hl> was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "sentence_answer": "The famous double agent <hl> Kim Philby <hl> was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence."}
{"question": "Who was a Russian translator and Soviet Spy?", "paragraph": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "answer": "Bill Weisband", "sentence": "Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband , a Russian translator and Soviet spy.", "paragraph_sentence": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. <hl> Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband , a Russian translator and Soviet spy. <hl> The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "paragraph_answer": "The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by <hl> Bill Weisband <hl>, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.", "sentence_answer": "Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by <hl> Bill Weisband <hl> , a Russian translator and Soviet spy."}
{"question": "What type of stimuli causes pain?", "paragraph": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "answer": "intense or damaging", "sentence": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". <hl> Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by <hl> intense or damaging <hl> stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "sentence_answer": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by <hl> intense or damaging <hl> stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\"."}
{"question": "What type of feeling is pain?", "paragraph": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "answer": "distressing", "sentence": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". <hl> Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is a <hl> distressing <hl> feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "sentence_answer": "Pain is a <hl> distressing <hl> feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\"."}
{"question": "Why has defining pain been a challenge?", "paragraph": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "answer": "complex, subjective phenomenon", "sentence": "Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon , defining pain has been a challenge.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". <hl> Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon , defining pain has been a challenge. <hl> The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a <hl> complex, subjective phenomenon <hl>, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "sentence_answer": "Because it is a <hl> complex, subjective phenomenon <hl> , defining pain has been a challenge."}
{"question": "What organization's definition is widely used?", "paragraph": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain", "sentence": "The International Association for the Study of Pain 's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. <hl> The International Association for the Study of Pain 's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" <hl> In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. <hl> The International Association for the Study of Pain <hl>'s widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The International Association for the Study of Pain <hl> 's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\""}
{"question": "In medical diagnosis, what is pain considered?", "paragraph": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.", "answer": "a symptom", "sentence": "In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom .", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" <hl> In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the \"funny bone\". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: \"Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.\" In medical diagnosis, pain is <hl> a symptom <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In medical diagnosis, pain is <hl> a symptom <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the most common reason people go to the doctor in first world countries?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "answer": "Pain", "sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. <hl> It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Pain <hl> is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Pain <hl> is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries."}
{"question": "How can pain effect a person's quality of life and general functioning?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "answer": "interfere", "sentence": "It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. <hl> It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. <hl> Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can <hl> interfere <hl> with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "sentence_answer": "It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can <hl> interfere <hl> with a person's quality of life and general functioning."}
{"question": "Excitement and distraction are what type of factors which affect pain's intensity?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "answer": "Psychological", "sentence": "Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. <hl> Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. <hl> In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. <hl> Psychological <hl> factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Psychological <hl> factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness."}
{"question": "What has pain sometimes been used as an argument to allow terminally ill patients the right to do?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.", "answer": "end their lives", "sentence": "In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives .", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. <hl> In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to <hl> end their lives <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to <hl> end their lives <hl> ."}
{"question": "What year did the IASP respond to the need to create a more useful system for describing pain?", "paragraph": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "answer": "1994", "sentence": "In 1994 , responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1994 , responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. <hl> However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1994 <hl>, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1994 <hl> , responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology."}
{"question": "How many classes of pain does the IASP system note?", "paragraph": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "answer": "5", "sentence": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and ( 5 ) etiology.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and ( 5 ) etiology. <hl> However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (<hl> 5 <hl>) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and ( <hl> 5 <hl> ) etiology."}
{"question": "Who has criticized the IASP's system?", "paragraph": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "answer": "Clifford J. Woolf and others", "sentence": "However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. <hl> However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. <hl> Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by <hl> Clifford J. Woolf and others <hl> as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "However, this system has been criticized by <hl> Clifford J. Woolf and others <hl> as inadequate for guiding research and treatment."}
{"question": "What do some people feel the IASP's system is inadequate for?", "paragraph": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "answer": "guiding research and treatment", "sentence": "However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. <hl> However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment . <hl> Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "paragraph_answer": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for <hl> guiding research and treatment <hl>. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for <hl> guiding research and treatment <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many classes of research does Woolf encourage?", "paragraph": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "answer": "three", "sentence": "Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. <hl> Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests <hl> three <hl> classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).", "sentence_answer": "Woolf suggests <hl> three <hl> classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.)."}
{"question": "What is usually temporary?", "paragraph": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "answer": "Pain", "sentence": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. <hl> Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Pain <hl> is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Pain <hl> is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years."}
{"question": "How long does pain tend to last?", "paragraph": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "answer": "only until the noxious stimulus is removed", "sentence": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. <hl> Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting <hl> only until the noxious stimulus is removed <hl> or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "sentence_answer": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting <hl> only until the noxious stimulus is removed <hl> or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years."}
{"question": "What is pain which resolves quickly called?", "paragraph": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "answer": "acute", "sentence": "Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute .", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. <hl> Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute . <hl> Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called <hl> acute <hl>. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "sentence_answer": "Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called <hl> acute <hl> ."}
{"question": "What has the distinction between acute and chronic pain been arbitrarily measured by?", "paragraph": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "answer": "interval of time from onset", "sentence": "Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset ; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. <hl> Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset ; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. <hl> A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary <hl> interval of time from onset <hl>; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "sentence_answer": "Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary <hl> interval of time from onset <hl> ; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months."}
{"question": "What might chronic pain sometimes be referred to as?", "paragraph": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "answer": "cancer pain", "sentence": "Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". <hl> Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is \"pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing\". Chronic pain may be classified as <hl> cancer pain <hl> or else as benign.", "sentence_answer": "Chronic pain may be classified as <hl> cancer pain <hl> or else as benign."}
{"question": "Stimulating nociceptors will induce which type of pain?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "answer": "Nociceptive", "sentence": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. <hl> The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Nociceptive <hl> pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Nociceptive <hl> pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation."}
{"question": "How is nociceptive pain classified?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "answer": "according to the mode of noxious stimulation", "sentence": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation . <hl> The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified <hl> according to the mode of noxious stimulation <hl>. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "sentence_answer": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified <hl> according to the mode of noxious stimulation <hl> ."}
{"question": "The thermal category of pain deals with which two temperature ranges?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "answer": "heat or cold", "sentence": "heat or cold ), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation).", "paragraph_sentence": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. <hl> heat or cold ), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). <hl> Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. <hl> heat or cold <hl>), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> heat or cold <hl> ), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation)."}
{"question": "Crushing, tearing and shearing are examples of which type of pain?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "answer": "mechanical", "sentence": "The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \" mechanical \" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation).", "paragraph_sentence": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. <hl> The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \" mechanical \" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). <hl> Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"<hl> mechanical <hl>\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "sentence_answer": "The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \" <hl> mechanical <hl> \" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation)."}
{"question": "What is the term for nociceptors which respond to more than one type of stimuli?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.", "answer": "polymodal", "sentence": "Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal .", "paragraph_sentence": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). <hl> Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are \"thermal\" (e.g. heat or cold), \"mechanical\" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and \"chemical\" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated <hl> polymodal <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated <hl> polymodal <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of of pain is visceral a division of?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "answer": "Nociceptive", "sentence": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. <hl> Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Nociceptive <hl> pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Nociceptive <hl> pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain."}
{"question": "What type of structures are sensitive to being stretched but not very sensitive to burning?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "answer": "Visceral", "sentence": "Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting.", "paragraph_sentence": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. <hl> Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. <hl> Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. <hl> Visceral <hl> structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Visceral <hl> structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting."}
{"question": "Which type of pain is dull, aching and hard to pin-point?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "answer": "Deep somatic", "sentence": "Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. <hl> Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. <hl> Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. <hl> Deep somatic <hl> pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Deep somatic <hl> pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain."}
{"question": "What can visceral pain be accompanied by?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "answer": "nausea and vomiting", "sentence": "It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull.", "paragraph_sentence": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. <hl> It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. <hl> Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by <hl> nausea and vomiting <hl> and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "sentence_answer": "It may be accompanied by <hl> nausea and vomiting <hl> and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull."}
{"question": "What type of pain are first degree burns classified as causing?", "paragraph": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "answer": "Superficial", "sentence": "Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located.", "paragraph_sentence": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. <hl> Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. <hl> Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "paragraph_answer": "Nociceptive pain may also be divided into \"visceral\", \"deep somatic\" and \"superficial somatic\" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. <hl> Superficial <hl> pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Superficial <hl> pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located."}
{"question": "What percentage of people who've had upper limbs amputated feel phantom pain?", "paragraph": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "answer": "nearly 82%", "sentence": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82% , and in lower limb amputees is 54%.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82% , and in lower limb amputees is 54%. <hl> One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "paragraph_answer": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is <hl> nearly 82% <hl>, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "sentence_answer": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is <hl> nearly 82% <hl> , and in lower limb amputees is 54%."}
{"question": "What is the percentage of of phantom pain felt by lower limb amputees?", "paragraph": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "answer": "54%", "sentence": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54% .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54% . <hl> One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "paragraph_answer": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is <hl> 54% <hl>. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "sentence_answer": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is <hl> 54% <hl> ."}
{"question": "What may accompany urination for amputees?", "paragraph": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "answer": "phantom limb pain", "sentence": "One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain , and six months later, 65 percent reported it.", "paragraph_sentence": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. <hl> One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain , and six months later, 65 percent reported it. <hl> Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "paragraph_answer": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had <hl> phantom limb pain <hl>, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "sentence_answer": "One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had <hl> phantom limb pain <hl> , and six months later, 65 percent reported it."}
{"question": "What may happen with intact body parts if there is continuous pain for a long period?", "paragraph": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "answer": "become sensitized", "sentence": "If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized , so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "paragraph_sentence": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. <hl> If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized , so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may <hl> become sensitized <hl>, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "sentence_answer": "If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may <hl> become sensitized <hl> , so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation."}
{"question": "After six months, what percentage of people who had limbs amputated still felt pain in those limbs?", "paragraph": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "answer": "65 percent", "sentence": "One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it.", "paragraph_sentence": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. <hl> One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. <hl> Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "paragraph_answer": "The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, <hl> 65 percent <hl> reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.", "sentence_answer": "One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, <hl> 65 percent <hl> reported it."}
{"question": "What happens when an anesthetic injection is directed into the nerves a limb stump?", "paragraph": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "answer": "may relieve pain", "sentence": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. <hl> Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "paragraph_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump <hl> may relieve pain <hl> for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "sentence_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump <hl> may relieve pain <hl> for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain."}
{"question": "How long can an anesthetic, at max, relieve pain for, despite wearing off in only hours?", "paragraph": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "answer": "permanently", "sentence": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently , despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently , despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. <hl> Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "paragraph_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes <hl> permanently <hl>, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "sentence_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes <hl> permanently <hl> , despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain."}
{"question": "What is injected in small amounts into the soft tissue between vertebrae to produce local pain?", "paragraph": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "answer": "hypertonic saline", "sentence": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. <hl> Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "paragraph_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of <hl> hypertonic saline <hl> into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "sentence_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of <hl> hypertonic saline <hl> into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain."}
{"question": "Vibrating the stump of an amputee's limb can produce what in some patients?", "paragraph": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "answer": "relief", "sentence": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. <hl> Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "paragraph_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total <hl> relief <hl> from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.", "sentence_answer": "Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total <hl> relief <hl> from phantom pain."}
{"question": "What is paraplegia?", "paragraph": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "answer": "loss of sensation and voluntary motor control", "sentence": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. <hl> This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "paragraph_answer": "Paraplegia, the <hl> loss of sensation and voluntary motor control <hl> after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "sentence_answer": "Paraplegia, the <hl> loss of sensation and voluntary motor control <hl> after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss."}
{"question": "What is the initial phantom body pain sensation experienced by people with spinal cord damage?", "paragraph": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "answer": "burning or tingling", "sentence": "This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh.", "paragraph_sentence": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. <hl> This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. <hl> Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "paragraph_answer": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as <hl> burning or tingling <hl> but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "sentence_answer": "This phantom body pain is initially described as <hl> burning or tingling <hl> but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh."}
{"question": "What can cause paraplegia?", "paragraph": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "answer": "serious spinal cord damage,", "sentence": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. <hl> This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "paragraph_answer": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after <hl> serious spinal cord damage, <hl> may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "sentence_answer": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after <hl> serious spinal cord damage, <hl> may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss."}
{"question": "What is an inefficient treatment for chronic pain which rarely provides any sort of true relief?", "paragraph": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "answer": "Surgical", "sentence": "Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "paragraph_sentence": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. <hl> Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. <hl> Surgical <hl> treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Surgical <hl> treatment rarely provides lasting relief."}
{"question": "The sensation of a knife twisting in the flesh is an example of what type of pain?", "paragraph": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "answer": "phantom body", "sentence": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. <hl> This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "paragraph_answer": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, <hl> phantom body <hl> pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.", "sentence_answer": "Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, <hl> phantom body <hl> pain in areas of complete sensory loss."}
{"question": "What triad are the inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis classified as?", "paragraph": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "answer": "neurotic", "sentence": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \" neurotic triad\").", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \" neurotic triad\"). <hl> Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "paragraph_answer": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"<hl> neurotic <hl> triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "sentence_answer": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \" <hl> neurotic <hl> triad\")."}
{"question": "When people have long-term pain, what do they frequently display?", "paragraph": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "answer": "psychological disturbance", "sentence": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance , with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\").", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance , with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). <hl> Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "paragraph_answer": "People with long-term pain frequently display <hl> psychological disturbance <hl>, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "sentence_answer": "People with long-term pain frequently display <hl> psychological disturbance <hl> , with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\")."}
{"question": "Clinical evidence indicates that neuroticism is caused by what?", "paragraph": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "answer": "chronic pain", "sentence": "Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism.", "paragraph_sentence": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). <hl> Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. <hl> When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "paragraph_answer": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to <hl> chronic pain <hl> causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "sentence_answer": "Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to <hl> chronic pain <hl> causing neuroticism."}
{"question": "If long-term pain can be relieved by therapy, what does a person's neurotic triad score do?", "paragraph": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "answer": "fall", "sentence": "When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall , often to normal levels.", "paragraph_sentence": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. <hl> When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall , often to normal levels. <hl> Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "paragraph_answer": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety <hl> fall <hl>, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "sentence_answer": "When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety <hl> fall <hl> , often to normal levels."}
{"question": "What shows improvement in many patients once their pain has been resolved?", "paragraph": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "answer": "Self-esteem", "sentence": "Self-esteem , often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "paragraph_sentence": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. <hl> Self-esteem , often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the \"neurotic triad\"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. <hl> Self-esteem <hl>, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Self-esteem <hl> , often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved."}
{"question": "What is the term for pain which is acute and note alleviated by normal pain management?", "paragraph": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "answer": "Breakthrough", "sentence": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. <hl> It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Breakthrough <hl> pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Breakthrough <hl> pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management."}
{"question": "How do cancer patients usually control their background pain?", "paragraph": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "answer": "medications", "sentence": "It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications , but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication.", "paragraph_sentence": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. <hl> It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications , but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. <hl> The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "paragraph_answer": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by <hl> medications <hl>, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "sentence_answer": "It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by <hl> medications <hl> , but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication."}
{"question": "Who is breakthrough pain common among?", "paragraph": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "answer": "cancer patients", "sentence": "It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication.", "paragraph_sentence": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. <hl> It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. <hl> The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "paragraph_answer": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in <hl> cancer patients <hl> who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "sentence_answer": "It is common in <hl> cancer patients <hl> who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication."}
{"question": "What class of medication is fentanyl an example of?", "paragraph": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "answer": "opioids", "sentence": "Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids , including fentanyl.", "paragraph_sentence": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. <hl> Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids , including fentanyl. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of <hl> opioids <hl>, including fentanyl.", "sentence_answer": "Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of <hl> opioids <hl> , including fentanyl."}
{"question": "What activity in relation to breakthrough pain requires heavy use of opiods?", "paragraph": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "answer": "Management", "sentence": "Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "paragraph_sentence": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. <hl> Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time \"breaks through\" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. <hl> Management <hl> of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Management <hl> of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl."}
{"question": "Which type of injection has caused patients to report they have pain but aren't bothered by it?", "paragraph": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "answer": "morphine", "sentence": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. <hl> Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "paragraph_answer": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with <hl> morphine <hl> injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "sentence_answer": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with <hl> morphine <hl> injection or psychosurgery."}
{"question": "How much do some patients going through psychosurgery suffer from the sensation of pain?", "paragraph": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "answer": "little, or not at all", "sentence": "Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all .", "paragraph_sentence": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. <hl> Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all . <hl> Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "paragraph_answer": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer <hl> little, or not at all <hl>. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "sentence_answer": "Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer <hl> little, or not at all <hl> ."}
{"question": "IASP's definition of pain includes what aspect as an essential part?", "paragraph": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "answer": "unpleasantness", "sentence": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. <hl> Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "paragraph_answer": "Although <hl> unpleasantness <hl> is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "sentence_answer": "Although <hl> unpleasantness <hl> is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery."}
{"question": "What is it possible to induce which is, contrary to expectations, devoid of unpleasantness?", "paragraph": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "answer": "a state described as intense pain", "sentence": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. <hl> Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "paragraph_answer": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce <hl> a state described as intense pain <hl> devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "sentence_answer": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce <hl> a state described as intense pain <hl> devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery."}
{"question": "What perspective towards pain are some people with perfectly normal nerves born with?", "paragraph": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "answer": "Indifference", "sentence": "Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. <hl> Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. <hl> Indifference <hl> to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Indifference <hl> to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus."}
{"question": "An abnormality of the nervous system can render a small number of people insensitive to what?", "paragraph": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "answer": "pain", "sentence": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". <hl> Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "paragraph_answer": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to <hl> pain <hl> due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "sentence_answer": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to <hl> pain <hl> due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\"."}
{"question": "What is it known as when someone is born without being able to feel pain because of their nervous system?", "paragraph": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "answer": "congenital insensitivity to pain", "sentence": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \" congenital insensitivity to pain \".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \" congenital insensitivity to pain \". <hl> Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "paragraph_answer": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"<hl> congenital insensitivity to pain <hl>\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "sentence_answer": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \" <hl> congenital insensitivity to pain <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What happens to children with congenital insensitivity to pain?", "paragraph": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "answer": "repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles", "sentence": "Children with this condition incur carelessly- repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles .", "paragraph_sentence": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". <hl> Children with this condition incur carelessly- repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles . <hl> Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "paragraph_answer": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-<hl> repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles <hl>. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "sentence_answer": "Children with this condition incur carelessly- <hl> repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the life expectancy for people who can't feel pain?", "paragraph": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "answer": "reduced", "sentence": "Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis).", "paragraph_sentence": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. <hl> Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). <hl> These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "paragraph_answer": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a <hl> reduced <hl> life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "sentence_answer": "Some die before adulthood, and others have a <hl> reduced <hl> life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis)."}
{"question": "What gene is responsible for coding for a sodium channel necessary for conducting pain nerve stimuli?", "paragraph": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "answer": "SCN9A", "sentence": "A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "paragraph_sentence": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. <hl> A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as \"congenital insensitivity to pain\". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the <hl> SCN9A <hl> gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.", "sentence_answer": "A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the <hl> SCN9A <hl> gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli."}
{"question": "When was Descartes pontificating about his theories regarding pain?", "paragraph": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "answer": "1644", "sentence": "In 1644 , Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed].", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1644 , Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. <hl> Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1644 <hl>, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1644 <hl> , Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]."}
{"question": "What did Descartes think pain was?", "paragraph": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "answer": "a disturbance", "sentence": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed].", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. <hl> Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was <hl> a disturbance <hl> that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "sentence_answer": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was <hl> a disturbance <hl> that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]."}
{"question": "What state does the intensive theory conceive pain as being?", "paragraph": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "answer": "emotional", "sentence": "Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". <hl> Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. <hl> By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an <hl> emotional <hl> state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "sentence_answer": "Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an <hl> emotional <hl> state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature."}
{"question": "What theory perceives pain as being a specific sensation?", "paragraph": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "answer": "Specificity", "sentence": "Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\".", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. <hl> Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". <hl> Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. <hl> Specificity <hl> theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Specificity <hl> theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\"."}
{"question": "Who migrated to the theory of specificity en mass?", "paragraph": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "answer": "psychologists", "sentence": "By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. <hl> By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists . <hl> However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1644, Ren\u00e9 Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as \"a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses\". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by <hl> psychologists <hl>. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.", "sentence_answer": "By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by <hl> psychologists <hl> ."}
{"question": "What year was peripheral pattern theory developed?", "paragraph": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "answer": "1955", "sentence": "In 1955 , DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1955 , DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. <hl> They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1955 <hl>, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1955 <hl> , DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe."}
{"question": "Whose suggestion prompted the development of peripheral pattern theory?", "paragraph": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "answer": "John Paul Nafe", "sentence": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe . <hl> They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "paragraph_answer": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by <hl> John Paul Nafe <hl>. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "sentence_answer": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by <hl> John Paul Nafe <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does the gate control theory specify the diameter of which is responsible for the amount of pain sensation?", "paragraph": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "answer": "nerve fibers", "sentence": "The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". <hl> The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. <hl> Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "paragraph_answer": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) <hl> nerve fibers <hl> carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "sentence_answer": "The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) <hl> nerve fibers <hl> carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt."}
{"question": "What did DC Sinclair and G Weddell propose a property of all skin fiber endings is?", "paragraph": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "answer": "identical", "sentence": "They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical , and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. <hl> They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical , and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. <hl> Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "paragraph_answer": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are <hl> identical <hl>, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "sentence_answer": "They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are <hl> identical <hl> , and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers."}
{"question": "Why were peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory left behind?", "paragraph": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].", "answer": "superseded by more modern theories of pain", "sentence": "Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain [citation needed].", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. <hl> Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain [citation needed]. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article \"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory\". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been <hl> superseded by more modern theories of pain <hl>[citation needed].", "sentence_answer": "Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been <hl> superseded by more modern theories of pain <hl> [citation needed]."}
{"question": "How many dimensions did Melzack and Casey describe pain in terms of?", "paragraph": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "answer": "three", "sentence": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). <hl> They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "paragraph_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its <hl> three <hl> dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "sentence_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its <hl> three <hl> dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion)."}
{"question": "The affective-motivational dimension of pain is characterized by what urge?", "paragraph": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "answer": "urge to escape the unpleasantness", "sentence": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness ), and \"cognitive-evaluative\"", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness ), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" <hl> (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "paragraph_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and <hl> urge to escape the unpleasantness <hl>), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "sentence_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and <hl> urge to escape the unpleasantness <hl> ), and \"cognitive-evaluative\""}
{"question": "What did Melzack and Casey theorize could influence the perception of the magnitude of pain?", "paragraph": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "answer": "cognitive activities", "sentence": "They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). <hl> They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. <hl> Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "paragraph_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" <hl> cognitive activities <hl> can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "sentence_answer": "They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" <hl> cognitive activities <hl> can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness."}
{"question": "War game excitement appears to block what aspect of pain?", "paragraph": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "answer": "dimensions", "sentence": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions : \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions : \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). <hl> They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "paragraph_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three <hl> dimensions <hl>: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "sentence_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three <hl> dimensions <hl> : \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion)."}
{"question": "What did Melack's and Casey's paper end with a call towards?", "paragraph": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "answer": "action", "sentence": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distr action and hypnotic suggestion).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distr action and hypnotic suggestion). <hl> They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "paragraph_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distr<hl> action <hl> and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but \"higher\" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities \"may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed.\" (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: \"Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well.\" (p. 435)", "sentence_answer": "In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: \"sensory-discriminative\" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), \"affective-motivational\" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and \"cognitive-evaluative\" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distr <hl> action <hl> and hypnotic suggestion)."}
{"question": "What type of signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor?", "paragraph": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "answer": "pain", "sentence": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. <hl> Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "paragraph_answer": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a <hl> pain <hl> signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "sentence_answer": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a <hl> pain <hl> signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved."}
{"question": "What types of stimuli can't some sensory fibers differentiate between?", "paragraph": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "answer": "noxious and non-noxious", "sentence": "Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli.", "paragraph_sentence": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. <hl> Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. <hl> At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "paragraph_answer": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between <hl> noxious and non-noxious <hl> stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "sentence_answer": "Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between <hl> noxious and non-noxious <hl> stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli."}
{"question": "What type of stimuli do nociceptors response to?", "paragraph": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "answer": "noxious, high intensity", "sentence": "Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli.", "paragraph_sentence": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. <hl> Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. <hl> At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "paragraph_answer": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to <hl> noxious, high intensity <hl> stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "sentence_answer": "Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to <hl> noxious, high intensity <hl> stimuli."}
{"question": "How many different types of ion channels have so far been identified?", "paragraph": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "answer": "Dozens", "sentence": "Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "paragraph_sentence": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. <hl> Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. <hl> Dozens <hl> of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Dozens <hl> of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined."}
{"question": "What does stimuli generate to send signals along a nerve fiber?", "paragraph": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "answer": "currents", "sentence": "At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord.", "paragraph_sentence": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. <hl> At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. <hl> The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "paragraph_answer": "Wilhelm Erb's (1874) \"intensive\" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate <hl> currents <hl> that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The \"specificity\" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.", "sentence_answer": "At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate <hl> currents <hl> that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord."}
{"question": "How does the pain signal travel from the periphery to the spinal cord?", "paragraph": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "answer": "along an A-delta or C fiber", "sentence": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber . <hl> Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "paragraph_answer": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord <hl> along an A-delta or C fiber <hl>. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "sentence_answer": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord <hl> along an A-delta or C fiber <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which fiber is thicker?", "paragraph": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "answer": "A-delta", "sentence": "an A-delta or C fiber.", "paragraph_sentence": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along <hl> an A-delta or C fiber. <hl> Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "paragraph_answer": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an <hl> A-delta <hl> or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "sentence_answer": "an <hl> A-delta <hl> or C fiber."}
{"question": "What is the electrically insulting material that sheaths a-delta fiber?", "paragraph": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "answer": "myelin", "sentence": "Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material ( myelin ), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s).", "paragraph_sentence": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. <hl> Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material ( myelin ), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). <hl> Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "paragraph_answer": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (<hl> myelin <hl>), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "sentence_answer": "Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material ( <hl> myelin <hl> ), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s)."}
{"question": "How do first order neurons enter the spinal cord?", "paragraph": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "answer": "via Lissauer's tract", "sentence": "These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract .", "paragraph_sentence": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. <hl> These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord <hl> via Lissauer's tract <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "These first order neurons enter the spinal cord <hl> via Lissauer's tract <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is pain evoked by a-delta fibers described as?", "paragraph": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "answer": "sharp and is felt first", "sentence": "Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first .", "paragraph_sentence": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). <hl> Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first . <hl> This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "paragraph_answer": "The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5\u201330 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5\u20132 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as <hl> sharp and is felt first <hl>. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.", "sentence_answer": "Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as <hl> sharp and is felt first <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are some spinal cord fibers exclusive to?", "paragraph": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "answer": "A-delta", "sentence": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. <hl> Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "paragraph_answer": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying <hl> A-delta <hl> fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "sentence_answer": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying <hl> A-delta <hl> fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified."}
{"question": "Pain signals travel first to what region of the brain?", "paragraph": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "answer": "thalamus", "sentence": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. <hl> Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "paragraph_answer": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the <hl> thalamus <hl> in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "sentence_answer": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the <hl> thalamus <hl> in the brain have been identified."}
{"question": "What are dynamic range neurons?", "paragraph": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "answer": "spinal cord fibers", "sentence": "Other spinal cord fibers , known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals.", "paragraph_sentence": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. <hl> Other spinal cord fibers , known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. <hl> Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "paragraph_answer": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other <hl> spinal cord fibers <hl>, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "sentence_answer": "Other <hl> spinal cord fibers <hl> , known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals."}
{"question": "Where does pain-related activity in the thalamus spread to?", "paragraph": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "answer": "the insular cortex", "sentence": "Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices.", "paragraph_sentence": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. <hl> Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. <hl> Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "paragraph_answer": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to <hl> the insular cortex <hl> (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "sentence_answer": "Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to <hl> the insular cortex <hl> (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices."}
{"question": "Pain which is distinctly located also activates what cortices?", "paragraph": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "answer": "somatosensory", "sentence": "Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices.", "paragraph_sentence": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. <hl> Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. <hl> Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "paragraph_answer": "Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary <hl> somatosensory <hl> cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.", "sentence_answer": "Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary <hl> somatosensory <hl> cortices."}
{"question": "Who wrote \"The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution\"?", "paragraph": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "answer": "Richard Dawkins", "sentence": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. <hl> He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "paragraph_answer": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist <hl> Richard Dawkins <hl> grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "sentence_answer": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist <hl> Richard Dawkins <hl> grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful."}
{"question": "What does Dawkins explain must compete with each other in living begins?", "paragraph": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "answer": "drives", "sentence": "To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings.", "paragraph_sentence": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". <hl> To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. <hl> The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "paragraph_answer": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that <hl> drives <hl> must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "sentence_answer": "To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that <hl> drives <hl> must compete with each other within living beings."}
{"question": "What would be the most fit creature?", "paragraph": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "answer": "one whose pains are well balanced", "sentence": "The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced .", "paragraph_sentence": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. <hl> The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced . <hl> Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "paragraph_answer": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the <hl> one whose pains are well balanced <hl>. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "sentence_answer": "The most fit creature would be the <hl> one whose pains are well balanced <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of designer is natural selection?", "paragraph": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "answer": "poor", "sentence": "This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer.", "paragraph_sentence": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). <hl> This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. <hl> The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "paragraph_answer": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a <hl> poor <hl> designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "sentence_answer": "This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a <hl> poor <hl> designer."}
{"question": "What might the relative intensities of pain resemble?", "paragraph": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "answer": "risk", "sentence": "The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort).", "paragraph_sentence": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. <hl> The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). <hl> This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "paragraph_answer": "In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a \"red flag\". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that <hl> risk <hl> to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).", "sentence_answer": "The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that <hl> risk <hl> to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort)."}
{"question": "Along with with ethnicity and genetics, what is the other factor associated with differences in pain perception?", "paragraph": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "answer": "sex", "sentence": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex . <hl> People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "paragraph_answer": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and <hl> sex <hl>. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "sentence_answer": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and <hl> sex <hl> ."}
{"question": "What might some people of Mediterranean origin report as painful that people of this origin wouldn't?", "paragraph": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "answer": "Europeans", "sentence": "People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful.", "paragraph_sentence": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. <hl> People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. <hl> And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "paragraph_answer": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern <hl> Europeans <hl> describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "sentence_answer": "People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern <hl> Europeans <hl> describe as nonpainful."}
{"question": "What nationality can tolerate the least amount of electric shock?", "paragraph": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "answer": "Italian", "sentence": "And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women.", "paragraph_sentence": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. <hl> And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. <hl> Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "paragraph_answer": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And <hl> Italian <hl> women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "sentence_answer": "And <hl> Italian <hl> women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women."}
{"question": "What do some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal?", "paragraph": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "answer": "pain perception", "sentence": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. <hl> People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "paragraph_answer": "Differences in <hl> pain perception <hl> and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "sentence_answer": "Differences in <hl> pain perception <hl> and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex."}
{"question": "Patients who have painless heart attacks have higher what?", "paragraph": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "answer": "pain thresholds", "sentence": "For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "paragraph_sentence": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. <hl> For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher <hl> pain thresholds <hl> for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.", "sentence_answer": "For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher <hl> pain thresholds <hl> for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat."}
{"question": "What is the most reliable measure of pain?", "paragraph": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "answer": "person's self-report", "sentence": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. <hl> A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "paragraph_answer": "A <hl> person's self-report <hl> is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> person's self-report <hl> is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity."}
{"question": "What do health-care professionals tend to underestimate?", "paragraph": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "answer": "severity", "sentence": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity . <hl> A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "paragraph_answer": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate <hl> severity <hl>. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "sentence_answer": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate <hl> severity <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Margo McCaffery introduce in 1968?", "paragraph": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "answer": "definition of pain", "sentence": "A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\".", "paragraph_sentence": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. <hl> A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". <hl> To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "paragraph_answer": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A <hl> definition of pain <hl> widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> definition of pain <hl> widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\"."}
{"question": "What scale might a patient be asked to locate their pain on?", "paragraph": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "answer": "0 to 10", "sentence": "To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10 , with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt.", "paragraph_sentence": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". <hl> To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10 , with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. <hl> Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "paragraph_answer": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of <hl> 0 to 10 <hl>, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "sentence_answer": "To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of <hl> 0 to 10 <hl> , with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt."}
{"question": "What are patients asked to use the McGill Pain Questionnaire to indicate?", "paragraph": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.", "answer": "which words best describe their pain", "sentence": "Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain .", "paragraph_sentence": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. <hl> Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: \"Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does\". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating <hl> which words best describe their pain <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating <hl> which words best describe their pain <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is MPI an abbreviation for?", "paragraph": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "answer": "Multidimensional Pain Inventory", "sentence": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. <hl> Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> Multidimensional Pain Inventory <hl> (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Multidimensional Pain Inventory <hl> (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain."}
{"question": "How many classes of chronic pain patients are there?", "paragraph": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. <hl> Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" <hl> Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "paragraph_answer": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found <hl> three <hl> classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "sentence_answer": "Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found <hl> three <hl> classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\""}
{"question": "What do interpersonally distressed people feel their significant others aren't supportive of?", "paragraph": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "answer": "their pain problems", "sentence": "Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems ; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. <hl> Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems ; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" <hl> Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "paragraph_answer": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of <hl> their pain problems <hl>; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "sentence_answer": "Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of <hl> their pain problems <hl> ; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\""}
{"question": "What do dysfunctional people perceive the severity of their pain to be?", "paragraph": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "answer": "high", "sentence": "Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high , reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. <hl> Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high , reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" <hl> Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "paragraph_answer": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be <hl> high <hl>, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "sentence_answer": "Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be <hl> high <hl> , reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\""}
{"question": "What should MPI characterization of a person be combined with for deriving the most useful case descriptions?", "paragraph": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "answer": "their IASP five-category pain profile", "sentence": "Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" <hl> Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: \"(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity.\" Combining the MPI characterization of the person with <hl> their IASP five-category pain profile <hl> is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.", "sentence_answer": "Combining the MPI characterization of the person with <hl> their IASP five-category pain profile <hl> is recommended for deriving the most useful case description."}
{"question": "What become critical when a person is non-verbal?", "paragraph": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "answer": "observation", "sentence": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. <hl> Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "paragraph_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, <hl> observation <hl> becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "sentence_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, <hl> observation <hl> becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators."}
{"question": "What can be monitored as pain indicators?", "paragraph": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "answer": "specific behaviors", "sentence": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. <hl> Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "paragraph_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and <hl> specific behaviors <hl> can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "sentence_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and <hl> specific behaviors <hl> can be monitored as pain indicators."}
{"question": "What type of social behavior might patients experiencing pain exhibit?", "paragraph": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "answer": "withdrawn", "sentence": "Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake.", "paragraph_sentence": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. <hl> Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. <hl> A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "paragraph_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit <hl> withdrawn <hl> social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "sentence_answer": "Patients experiencing pain may exhibit <hl> withdrawn <hl> social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake."}
{"question": "How can patients with dementia indicate discomfort exists?", "paragraph": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "answer": "signal", "sentence": "In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "paragraph_sentence": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. <hl> In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may <hl> signal <hl> that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "sentence_answer": "In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may <hl> signal <hl> that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary."}
{"question": "Facial grimacing and guarding indicate what?", "paragraph": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "answer": "pain", "sentence": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain , observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain , observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. <hl> Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "paragraph_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report <hl> pain <hl>, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.", "sentence_answer": "When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report <hl> pain <hl> , observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators."}
{"question": "Why may older adults quit doing activities the love?", "paragraph": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "answer": "because it hurts too much", "sentence": "The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much .", "paragraph_sentence": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. <hl> The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much . <hl> Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "paragraph_answer": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love <hl> because it hurts too much <hl>. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "sentence_answer": "The older adult may also quit doing activities they love <hl> because it hurts too much <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does the experience of pain have throughout cultures?", "paragraph": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "answer": "dimensions", "sentence": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions . <hl> For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "paragraph_answer": "The experience of pain has many cultural <hl> dimensions <hl>. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "sentence_answer": "The experience of pain has many cultural <hl> dimensions <hl> ."}
{"question": "What might an aging adult not respond to the same way as a younger person would?", "paragraph": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "answer": "pain", "sentence": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. <hl> For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "paragraph_answer": "The experience of <hl> pain <hl> has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "sentence_answer": "The experience of <hl> pain <hl> has many cultural dimensions."}
{"question": "An older adult may also not report pain because they're scared they may be put on what?", "paragraph": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "answer": "a drug", "sentence": "The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to.", "paragraph_sentence": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. <hl> The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. <hl> They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "paragraph_answer": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on <hl> a drug <hl> they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "sentence_answer": "The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on <hl> a drug <hl> they might become addicted to."}
{"question": "Aging adult's ability to recognize pain may be blunted by what?", "paragraph": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "answer": "illness", "sentence": "Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs.", "paragraph_sentence": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. <hl> Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. <hl> Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "paragraph_answer": "The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by <hl> illness <hl> or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.", "sentence_answer": "Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by <hl> illness <hl> or the use of multiple prescription drugs."}
{"question": "What kind of barriers can prevent a person from telling someone they're in pain?", "paragraph": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "answer": "Cultural", "sentence": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. <hl> Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Cultural <hl> barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Cultural <hl> barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain."}
{"question": "How can religious beliefs contribute to a person remaining in pain?", "paragraph": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "answer": "prevent the individual from seeking help", "sentence": "may prevent the individual from seeking help .", "paragraph_sentence": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs <hl> may prevent the individual from seeking help . <hl> They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may <hl> prevent the individual from seeking help <hl>. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "sentence_answer": "may <hl> prevent the individual from seeking help <hl> ."}
{"question": "Some people may not report pain because they think it's a sign what is near?", "paragraph": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "answer": "death", "sentence": "They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. <hl> They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. <hl> Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that <hl> death <hl> is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "sentence_answer": "They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that <hl> death <hl> is near."}
{"question": "What do many people fear pain treatment will lead to?", "paragraph": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "answer": "potentially addicting drugs", "sentence": "Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs .", "paragraph_sentence": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. <hl> Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs . <hl> Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed <hl> potentially addicting drugs <hl>. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "sentence_answer": "Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed <hl> potentially addicting drugs <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is an issue of reporting pain specific to Asians?", "paragraph": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "answer": "do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain", "sentence": "Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. <hl> Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. <hl> Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians <hl> do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain <hl> and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.", "sentence_answer": "Many Asians <hl> do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain <hl> and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief."}
{"question": "What does the IASP advocate that the relief of pain should be recognized as?", "paragraph": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "answer": "a human right", "sentence": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right , that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right , that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. <hl> It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "paragraph_answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as <hl> a human right <hl>, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "sentence_answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as <hl> a human right <hl> , that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty."}
{"question": "What should chronic pain be considered in its own right?", "paragraph": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "answer": "a disease", "sentence": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. <hl> It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "paragraph_answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered <hl> a disease <hl> in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "sentence_answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered <hl> a disease <hl> in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty."}
{"question": "What two countries is treating pain a specialty in?", "paragraph": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "answer": "China and Australia", "sentence": "It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time.", "paragraph_sentence": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. <hl> It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. <hl> Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "paragraph_answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in <hl> China and Australia <hl> at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "sentence_answer": "It is a specialty only in <hl> China and Australia <hl> at this time."}
{"question": "What is pain medicine often under disciplines like physiatry, neurology, etc?", "paragraph": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "answer": "subspecialty", "sentence": "Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry.", "paragraph_sentence": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. <hl> Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. <hl> In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "paragraph_answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a <hl> subspecialty <hl> under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "sentence_answer": "Elsewhere, pain medicine is a <hl> subspecialty <hl> under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry."}
{"question": "As of 2011, how many people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain?", "paragraph": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "answer": "tens of millions", "sentence": "In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. <hl> In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that <hl> tens of millions <hl> of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.", "sentence_answer": "In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that <hl> tens of millions <hl> of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain."}
{"question": "What, when taken orally, can reduce total crying time of newsborns undergoing a painful procedure?", "paragraph": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "answer": "Sugar", "sentence": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). <hl> It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Sugar <hl> taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Sugar <hl> taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel)."}
{"question": "What doesn't sugar change the effect of pain on?", "paragraph": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "answer": "heart rate", "sentence": "It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure.", "paragraph_sentence": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). <hl> It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. <hl> Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "paragraph_answer": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on <hl> heart rate <hl> and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "sentence_answer": "It does not moderate the effect of pain on <hl> heart rate <hl> and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure."}
{"question": "Sugar also doesn't measurably change what type of electrical activity in the brains of newborns a second after the heel lance procedure?", "paragraph": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "answer": "pain-related", "sentence": "It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure.", "paragraph_sentence": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). <hl> It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. <hl> Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "paragraph_answer": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect <hl> pain-related <hl> electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "sentence_answer": "It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect <hl> pain-related <hl> electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure."}
{"question": "A sweet oral liquid does moderately reduce the incidence and duration of what?", "paragraph": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "answer": "crying", "sentence": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). <hl> It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "paragraph_answer": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total <hl> crying <hl> time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.", "sentence_answer": "Sugar taken orally reduces the total <hl> crying <hl> time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel)."}
{"question": "Clinical hypnosis may be effective in doing what with pain associated with surgical procedures in adults and children?", "paragraph": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "answer": "controlling", "sentence": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. <hl> A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "paragraph_answer": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in <hl> controlling <hl> pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "sentence_answer": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in <hl> controlling <hl> pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth."}
{"question": "How many studies in 2007 found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain?", "paragraph": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "answer": "13", "sentence": "A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation.", "paragraph_sentence": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. <hl> A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. <hl> The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "paragraph_answer": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of <hl> 13 <hl> studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "sentence_answer": "A 2007 review of <hl> 13 <hl> studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation."}
{"question": "What did the studies regarding the effectiveness of hypnosis lack?", "paragraph": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "answer": "credible controls for placebo and/or expectation", "sentence": "A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation .", "paragraph_sentence": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. <hl> A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation . <hl> The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "paragraph_answer": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked <hl> credible controls for placebo and/or expectation <hl>. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "sentence_answer": "A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked <hl> credible controls for placebo and/or expectation <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is considerable more research needed to determine for different chronic pain conditions?", "paragraph": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "answer": "effects of hypnosis", "sentence": "The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. <hl> The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the <hl> effects of hypnosis <hl> for different chronic-pain conditions.\"", "sentence_answer": "The authors concluded that \"although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the <hl> effects of hypnosis <hl> for different chronic-pain conditions.\""}
{"question": "What is the most common reason people seek out alternative medicine?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "answer": "Pain", "sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. <hl> An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Pain <hl> is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Pain <hl> is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine."}
{"question": "What did an analysis of the 13 studies of pain treatment conclude about the effect of real treament versus sham treatments?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "answer": "little difference in the effect", "sentence": "An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. <hl> An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. <hl> However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is <hl> little difference in the effect <hl> of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "sentence_answer": "An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is <hl> little difference in the effect <hl> of real, sham and no acupuncture."}
{"question": "What medicine is there tentative evidence for the efficacy of?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "answer": "herbal", "sentence": "Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. <hl> Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. <hl> There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few <hl> herbal <hl> medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "sentence_answer": "Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few <hl> herbal <hl> medicine."}
{"question": "Some contradictory reviews of 13 high quality studies found actual what?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "answer": "benefit", "sentence": "However other reviews have found benefit .", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. <hl> However other reviews have found benefit . <hl> Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found <hl> benefit <hl>. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "sentence_answer": "However other reviews have found <hl> benefit <hl> ."}
{"question": "Other than in osteomalacia, what is there no evidence of a relationship between pain and?", "paragraph": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "answer": "vitamin D", "sentence": "There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "paragraph_sentence": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. <hl> There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between <hl> vitamin D <hl> and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.", "sentence_answer": "There is interest in the relationship between <hl> vitamin D <hl> and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing."}
{"question": "What type of topic is physical pain important in relation to many issues?", "paragraph": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "answer": "political", "sentence": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. <hl> In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "paragraph_answer": "Physical pain is an important <hl> political <hl> topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "sentence_answer": "Physical pain is an important <hl> political <hl> topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance."}
{"question": "Corporal punishment is a form of what type of pain?", "paragraph": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "answer": "deliberate infliction", "sentence": "In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. <hl> In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. <hl> In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "paragraph_answer": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the <hl> deliberate infliction <hl> of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "sentence_answer": "In various contexts, the <hl> deliberate infliction <hl> of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable."}
{"question": "How does pain inform attitudes deemed unacceptable?", "paragraph": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "answer": "deter", "sentence": "In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. <hl> In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. <hl> In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "paragraph_answer": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to <hl> deter <hl> attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "sentence_answer": "In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to <hl> deter <hl> attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable."}
{"question": "What kind of practices do some cultures highly regard?", "paragraph": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "answer": "extreme", "sentence": "In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. <hl> In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, <hl> extreme <hl> practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "sentence_answer": "In some cultures, <hl> extreme <hl> practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded."}
{"question": "What is corporal punishment used as retribution for?", "paragraph": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "answer": "an offence", "sentence": "In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence , or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. <hl> In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence , or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. <hl> In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "paragraph_answer": "Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for <hl> an offence <hl>, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.", "sentence_answer": "In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for <hl> an offence <hl> , or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable."}
{"question": "What is the most reliable method of learning about pain in a human?", "paragraph": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "answer": "asking a question", "sentence": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question : a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question : a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. <hl> However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "paragraph_answer": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by <hl> asking a question <hl>: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "sentence_answer": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by <hl> asking a question <hl> : a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure."}
{"question": "What can't animals answer?", "paragraph": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "answer": "whether they feel pain", "sentence": "However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain ; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. <hl> However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain ; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. <hl> Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "paragraph_answer": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about <hl> whether they feel pain <hl>; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "sentence_answer": "However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about <hl> whether they feel pain <hl> ; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them."}
{"question": "What did Descartes argue animals lack?", "paragraph": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "answer": "consciousness", "sentence": "Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. <hl> Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. <hl> Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "paragraph_answer": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack <hl> consciousness <hl> and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "sentence_answer": "Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack <hl> consciousness <hl> and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do."}
{"question": "What university is Bernard Rollin associated with?", "paragraph": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "answer": "Colorado State University", "sentence": "Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University , the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain.", "paragraph_sentence": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. <hl> Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University , the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. <hl> In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "paragraph_answer": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of <hl> Colorado State University <hl>, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "sentence_answer": "Bernard Rollin of <hl> Colorado State University <hl> , the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain."}
{"question": "Can invertebrate species of animals like insects feel pain and suffering?", "paragraph": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.", "answer": "unclear", "sentence": "The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear .", "paragraph_sentence": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. <hl> The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning \"unable to speak\"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. Ren\u00e9 Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to \"prove\" that animals are conscious, and to provide \"scientifically acceptable\" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also <hl> unclear <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also <hl> unclear <hl> ."}
{"question": "What about pain in an animal isn't able to be known with certainty?", "paragraph": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "answer": "presence", "sentence": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. <hl> Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> presence <hl> of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> presence <hl> of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions."}
{"question": "An animals physical and behavioral reactions may be inferred to indicate the presence of what?", "paragraph": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "answer": "pain", "sentence": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. <hl> Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "paragraph_answer": "The presence of <hl> pain <hl> in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "sentence_answer": "The presence of <hl> pain <hl> in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions."}
{"question": "Who do specialists believe can feel pain?", "paragraph": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "answer": "vertebrates", "sentence": "Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too.", "paragraph_sentence": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. <hl> Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. <hl> As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "paragraph_answer": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all <hl> vertebrates <hl> can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "sentence_answer": "Specialists currently believe that all <hl> vertebrates <hl> can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too."}
{"question": "No mechanism is known by which what organisms would be able to have a feeling such as pain?", "paragraph": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "answer": "plants", "sentence": "As for other animals, plants , or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling.", "paragraph_sentence": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. <hl> As for other animals, plants , or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. <hl> In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "paragraph_answer": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, <hl> plants <hl>, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "sentence_answer": "As for other animals, <hl> plants <hl> , or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling."}
{"question": "What do fungi and fruit flies seem to lack?", "paragraph": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "answer": "nociceptors", "sentence": "In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "paragraph_sentence": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. <hl> In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known <hl> nociceptors <hl> in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.", "sentence_answer": "In particular, there are no known <hl> nociceptors <hl> in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies."}
{"question": "What does DBMS stand for?", "paragraph": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "answer": "database management system", "sentence": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. <hl> A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "paragraph_answer": "A <hl> database management system <hl> (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> database management system <hl> (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data."}
{"question": "What is the purpose of a DBMS?", "paragraph": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "answer": "to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases", "sentence": "A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases .", "paragraph_sentence": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. <hl> A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases . <hl> Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "paragraph_answer": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed <hl> to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases <hl>. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "sentence_answer": "A general-purpose DBMS is designed <hl> to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the most popular DBMS?", "paragraph": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "answer": "SQL language", "sentence": "Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language .[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "paragraph_sentence": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. <hl> Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language .[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the <hl> SQL language <hl>.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "sentence_answer": "Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the <hl> SQL language <hl> .[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'."}
{"question": "How are DBMSs classified?", "paragraph": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "answer": "according to the database model that they support", "sentence": "Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support ; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "paragraph_sentence": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. <hl> Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support ; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified <hl> according to the database model that they support <hl>; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.", "sentence_answer": "Database management systems are often classified <hl> according to the database model that they support <hl> ; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed \u2013 discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'."}
{"question": "How is data accessed?", "paragraph": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "answer": "by a \"database management system\" (DBMS)", "sentence": "Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data).", "paragraph_sentence": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. <hl> Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). <hl> The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "paragraph_answer": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided <hl> by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) <hl> consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "sentence_answer": "Access to these data is usually provided <hl> by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) <hl> consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data)."}
{"question": "How much data can a DBMS store?", "paragraph": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "answer": "large quantities", "sentence": "The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "paragraph_sentence": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). <hl> The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of <hl> large quantities <hl> of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "sentence_answer": "The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of <hl> large quantities <hl> of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized."}
{"question": "A DBMS consists of what?", "paragraph": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "answer": "an integrated set of computer software", "sentence": "Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data).", "paragraph_sentence": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. <hl> Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). <hl> The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "paragraph_answer": "Formally, a \"database\" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of <hl> an integrated set of computer software <hl> that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.", "sentence_answer": "Access to these data is usually provided by a \"database management system\" (DBMS) consisting of <hl> an integrated set of computer software <hl> that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data)."}
{"question": "What do most database applications contain?", "paragraph": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "answer": "DBMSs", "sentence": "DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. <hl> DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. <hl> DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. <hl> DBMSs <hl> are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "<hl> DBMSs <hl> are found at the heart of most database applications."}
{"question": "What is used to recover data if disks suffer a failure?", "paragraph": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "answer": "RAID", "sentence": "Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. <hl> Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. <hl> RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and <hl> RAID <hl> disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and <hl> RAID <hl> disk arrays used for stable storage."}
{"question": "How can large quantities of data be accessed?", "paragraph": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "answer": "Hardware database accelerators", "sentence": "Hardware database accelerators , connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. <hl> Hardware database accelerators , connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. <hl> DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. <hl> Hardware database accelerators <hl>, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Hardware database accelerators <hl> , connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments."}
{"question": "What is required for a modern DBMS to function?", "paragraph": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "answer": "standard operating system", "sentence": "a standard operating system to provide these functions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on <hl> a standard operating system to provide these functions. <hl> from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a <hl> standard operating system <hl> to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> standard operating system <hl> to provide these functions."}
{"question": "How long can it take to create a DBMS?", "paragraph": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "answer": "thousands of human years", "sentence": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. <hl> General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "paragraph_answer": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires <hl> thousands of human years <hl> of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "sentence_answer": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires <hl> thousands of human years <hl> of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s."}
{"question": "Name three DBMSs that have been used since the 1970s.", "paragraph": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "answer": "Adabas, Oracle and DB2", "sentence": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. <hl> General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "paragraph_answer": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as <hl> Adabas, Oracle and DB2 <hl> have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "sentence_answer": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as <hl> Adabas, Oracle and DB2 <hl> have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s."}
{"question": "How is the cost to create a DBMS distributed?", "paragraph": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "answer": "spread over a large number of users", "sentence": "However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach.", "paragraph_sentence": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. <hl> However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. <hl> However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "paragraph_answer": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be <hl> spread over a large number of users <hl> means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "sentence_answer": "However, the fact that their development cost can be <hl> spread over a large number of users <hl> means that they are often the most cost-effective approach."}
{"question": "Name an example of a general-purpose DBMS.", "paragraph": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "answer": "an email system", "sentence": "A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "paragraph_sentence": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. <hl> A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is <hl> an email system <hl> that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.", "sentence_answer": "A common example is <hl> an email system <hl> that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS."}
{"question": "How are many databases accessed?", "paragraph": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "answer": "application software", "sentence": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. <hl> Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "paragraph_answer": "Many other databases have <hl> application software <hl> that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "sentence_answer": "Many other databases have <hl> application software <hl> that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly."}
{"question": "How do administrators work with the DBMS?", "paragraph": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "answer": "through dedicated interfaces", "sentence": "Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. <hl> Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS <hl> through dedicated interfaces <hl> to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "sentence_answer": "Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS <hl> through dedicated interfaces <hl> to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters."}
{"question": "What is a way for programmers to use the DBMS?", "paragraph": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "answer": "wire protocol", "sentence": "Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. <hl> Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. <hl> Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "paragraph_answer": "Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a <hl> wire protocol <hl> directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.", "sentence_answer": "Application programmers may use a <hl> wire protocol <hl> directly, or more likely through an application programming interface."}
{"question": "Who created the relational model of DBMS?", "paragraph": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "answer": "Edgar F. Codd", "sentence": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd , departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd , departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. <hl> The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by <hl> Edgar F. Codd <hl>, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by <hl> Edgar F. Codd <hl> , departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links."}
{"question": "Instead of using links, how was information found in a relational model?", "paragraph": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "answer": "by content", "sentence": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content , rather than by following links.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content , rather than by following links. <hl> The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data <hl> by content <hl>, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data <hl> by content <hl> , rather than by following links."}
{"question": "In what decade did computer hardware become able to handle a relational system?", "paragraph": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "answer": "1980s", "sentence": "Only in the mid- 1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications).", "paragraph_sentence": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. <hl> Only in the mid- 1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). <hl> By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-<hl> 1980s <hl> did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Only in the mid- <hl> 1980s <hl> did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications)."}
{"question": "What type of system in still prominent to this day?", "paragraph": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "answer": "relational systems", "sentence": "Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications).", "paragraph_sentence": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. <hl> Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). <hl> By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of <hl> relational systems <hl> (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of <hl> relational systems <hl> (DBMSs plus applications)."}
{"question": "What database language is the most prominent?", "paragraph": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "answer": "SQL", "sentence": "My SQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS.", "paragraph_sentence": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, <hl> My SQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. <hl> The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, My<hl> SQL <hl> and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "My <hl> SQL <hl> and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS."}
{"question": "Why was COBOL created?", "paragraph": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "answer": "Interest in a standard", "sentence": "Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL.", "paragraph_sentence": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. <hl> Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. <hl> In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "paragraph_answer": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. <hl> Interest in a standard <hl> began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Interest in a standard <hl> began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL."}
{"question": "When were DBMSs first used commercially?", "paragraph": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "answer": "mid-1960s", "sentence": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. <hl> Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "paragraph_answer": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the <hl> mid-1960s <hl> a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "sentence_answer": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the <hl> mid-1960s <hl> a number of such systems had come into commercial use."}
{"question": "When was the standard protocol completed?", "paragraph": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "answer": "1971", "sentence": "In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "paragraph_sentence": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. <hl> In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In <hl> 1971 <hl> the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1971 <hl> the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market."}
{"question": "What group discovered COBOL?", "paragraph": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "answer": "Database Task Group", "sentence": "Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \" Database Task Group \" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL.", "paragraph_sentence": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. <hl> Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \" Database Task Group \" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. <hl> In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "paragraph_answer": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"<hl> Database Task Group <hl>\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "sentence_answer": "Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \" <hl> Database Task Group <hl> \" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL."}
{"question": "What was the standard protocol called?", "paragraph": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"CODASYL approach\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "answer": "CODASYL approach", "sentence": "In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \" CODASYL approach \", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "paragraph_sentence": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. <hl> In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \" CODASYL approach \", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the \"Database Task Group\" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \"<hl> CODASYL approach <hl>\", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.", "sentence_answer": "In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the \" <hl> CODASYL approach <hl> \", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market."}
{"question": "What was the DBMS created by IBM called?", "paragraph": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "answer": "Information Management System (IMS)", "sentence": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS) .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS) . <hl> IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "paragraph_answer": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as <hl> Information Management System (IMS) <hl>. IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "sentence_answer": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as <hl> Information Management System (IMS) <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the purpose of the IBM DBMS?", "paragraph": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "answer": "the Apollo program", "sentence": "IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360.", "paragraph_sentence": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). <hl> IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. <hl> IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "paragraph_answer": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for <hl> the Apollo program <hl> on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "sentence_answer": "IMS was a development of software written for <hl> the Apollo program <hl> on the System/360."}
{"question": "What is the classification of IMS?", "paragraph": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "answer": "hierarchical database", "sentence": "IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database .", "paragraph_sentence": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. <hl> IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database . <hl> IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "paragraph_answer": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a <hl> hierarchical database <hl>. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "sentence_answer": "IMS is classified[by whom?] as a <hl> hierarchical database <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the name of Bachman's Turing Award presentation in 1973?", "paragraph": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "answer": "The Programmer as Navigator", "sentence": "Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator .", "paragraph_sentence": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. <hl> Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator . <hl> IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "paragraph_answer": "IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was <hl> The Programmer as Navigator <hl>. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].", "sentence_answer": "Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was <hl> The Programmer as Navigator <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who proposed using a table to store data?", "paragraph": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "answer": "Codd", "sentence": "Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd 's", "paragraph_sentence": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. <hl> Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd 's <hl> idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "paragraph_answer": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, <hl> Codd <hl>'s idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "sentence_answer": "Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, <hl> Codd <hl> 's"}
{"question": "How is data accessed in a table?", "paragraph": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "answer": "A linked-list system", "sentence": "A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty.", "paragraph_sentence": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. <hl> A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. <hl> The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "paragraph_answer": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. <hl> A linked-list system <hl> would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> A linked-list system <hl> would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty."}
{"question": "What model solved the problem of databases where information was missing?", "paragraph": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "answer": "relational", "sentence": "The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed.", "paragraph_sentence": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. <hl> The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. <hl> Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "paragraph_answer": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The <hl> relational <hl> model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> relational <hl> model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed."}
{"question": "What system assists a user in seeing a table?", "paragraph": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "answer": "DBMS", "sentence": "Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "paragraph_sentence": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. <hl> Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a \"table\" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing \"sparse\" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the <hl> DBMS <hl> doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.", "sentence_answer": "Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the <hl> DBMS <hl> doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user."}
{"question": "How was the relational model able to improve over time?", "paragraph": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "answer": "without constant rewriting of links and pointers", "sentence": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers . <hl> The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve <hl> without constant rewriting of links and pointers <hl>. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "sentence_answer": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve <hl> without constant rewriting of links and pointers <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the relationship called in a hierarchical model?", "paragraph": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "answer": "one-to-many", "sentence": "The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model.", "paragraph_sentence": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. <hl> The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. <hl> Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as <hl> one-to-many <hl> relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "sentence_answer": "The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as <hl> one-to-many <hl> relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model."}
{"question": "What is the relationship called in a navigational model?", "paragraph": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "answer": "many-to-many", "sentence": "The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model.", "paragraph_sentence": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. <hl> The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. <hl> Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and <hl> many-to-many <hl> relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "sentence_answer": "The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and <hl> many-to-many <hl> relationship, like a navigational (network) model."}
{"question": "What is a third type of model that can be combined with heirarchical and navigation models?", "paragraph": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "answer": "tabular", "sentence": "Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "paragraph_sentence": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. <hl> Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native <hl> tabular <hl> model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.", "sentence_answer": "Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native <hl> tabular <hl> model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires."}
{"question": "How is information stored in a navigational system?", "paragraph": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "answer": "in a single record", "sentence": "In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record , and unused items would simply not be placed in the database.", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. <hl> In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record , and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. <hl> In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed <hl> in a single record <hl>, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "sentence_answer": "In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed <hl> in a single record <hl> , and unused items would simply not be placed in the database."}
{"question": "How is a database system frequently used?", "paragraph": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "answer": "to track information about users", "sentence": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users , their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users , their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. <hl> In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a common use of a database system is <hl> to track information about users <hl>, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "sentence_answer": "For instance, a common use of a database system is <hl> to track information about users <hl> , their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers."}
{"question": "How is information stored in a relational system?", "paragraph": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "answer": "normalized into a user table", "sentence": "In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table , an address table and a phone number table (for instance).", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. <hl> In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table , an address table and a phone number table (for instance). <hl> Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be <hl> normalized into a user table <hl>, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "sentence_answer": "In the relational approach, the data would be <hl> normalized into a user table <hl> , an address table and a phone number table (for instance)."}
{"question": "What happens to blank data fields in a navigational system?", "paragraph": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "answer": "not be placed in the database", "sentence": "In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database .", "paragraph_sentence": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. <hl> In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database . <hl> In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "paragraph_answer": "For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply <hl> not be placed in the database <hl>. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.", "sentence_answer": "In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply <hl> not be placed in the database <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a key used for?", "paragraph": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "answer": "uniquely defining a particular record", "sentence": "In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record .", "paragraph_sentence": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. <hl> In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record . <hl> When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "paragraph_answer": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", <hl> uniquely defining a particular record <hl>. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "sentence_answer": "In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", <hl> uniquely defining a particular record <hl> ."}
{"question": "What technique is used to collect into one place?", "paragraph": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "answer": "re-linking", "sentence": "This simple \" re-linking \" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "paragraph_sentence": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. <hl> This simple \" re-linking \" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"<hl> re-linking <hl>\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "sentence_answer": "This simple \" <hl> re-linking <hl> \" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for."}
{"question": "How is information accessed in a relational model?", "paragraph": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "answer": "a \"key\"", "sentence": "In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\" , uniquely defining a particular record.", "paragraph_sentence": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. <hl> In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\" , uniquely defining a particular record. <hl> When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "paragraph_answer": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as <hl> a \"key\" <hl>, uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "sentence_answer": "In the relational model, some bit of information was used as <hl> a \"key\" <hl> , uniquely defining a particular record."}
{"question": "How is data in an optional table accessed?", "paragraph": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "answer": "by searching for this key", "sentence": "When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key .", "paragraph_sentence": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. <hl> When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key . <hl> For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "paragraph_answer": "Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a \"key\", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found <hl> by searching for this key <hl>. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple \"re-linking\" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.", "sentence_answer": "When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found <hl> by searching for this key <hl> ."}
{"question": "How does a program collect information using a navigational system?", "paragraph": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "answer": "require programs to loop", "sentence": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. <hl> Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "paragraph_answer": "Just as the navigational approach would <hl> require programs to loop <hl> in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "sentence_answer": "Just as the navigational approach would <hl> require programs to loop <hl> in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record."}
{"question": "What is used to solve the problem of looping?", "paragraph": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "answer": "a set-oriented language", "sentence": "Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language , a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL.", "paragraph_sentence": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. <hl> Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language , a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. <hl> Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "paragraph_answer": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was <hl> a set-oriented language <hl>, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "sentence_answer": "Codd's solution to the necessary looping was <hl> a set-oriented language <hl> , a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL."}
{"question": "What computer language came about as a result of the looping problem?", "paragraph": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "answer": "SQL", "sentence": "Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL .", "paragraph_sentence": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. <hl> Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL . <hl> Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "paragraph_answer": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous <hl> SQL <hl>. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "sentence_answer": "Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous <hl> SQL <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of math was used to create a system to find data sets?", "paragraph": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "answer": "tuple calculus", "sentence": "Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus , he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. <hl> Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus , he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as <hl> tuple calculus <hl>, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "sentence_answer": "Using a branch of mathematics known as <hl> tuple calculus <hl> , he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation."}
{"question": "Who used tuple calculus to show the functionality of databases?", "paragraph": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "answer": "Codd", "sentence": "Codd 's", "paragraph_sentence": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. <hl> Codd 's <hl> solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "paragraph_answer": "Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. <hl> Codd <hl>'s solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Codd <hl> 's"}
{"question": "Who used Codd's paper at Berkeley to improve a geographical database?", "paragraph": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "answer": "Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker", "sentence": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker . <hl> They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "paragraph_answer": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, <hl> Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker <hl>. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "sentence_answer": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, <hl> Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the name of the project to create a geographical database?", "paragraph": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "answer": "INGRES", "sentence": "They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code.", "paragraph_sentence": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. <hl> They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. <hl> Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "paragraph_answer": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as <hl> INGRES <hl> using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "sentence_answer": "They started a project known as <hl> INGRES <hl> using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code."}
{"question": "When was INGRES first tested?", "paragraph": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "answer": "1973", "sentence": "Beginning in 1973 , INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979.", "paragraph_sentence": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. <hl> Beginning in 1973 , INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. <hl> INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "paragraph_answer": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in <hl> 1973 <hl>, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "sentence_answer": "Beginning in <hl> 1973 <hl> , INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979."}
{"question": "What computer language was used in INGRES to access data?", "paragraph": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "answer": "QUEL", "sentence": "INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL .", "paragraph_sentence": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. <hl> INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL . <hl> Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "paragraph_answer": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as <hl> QUEL <hl>. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "sentence_answer": "INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as <hl> QUEL <hl> ."}
{"question": "Is QUEL still used to access data in INGRES?", "paragraph": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.", "answer": "INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard", "sentence": "Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard .", "paragraph_sentence": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. <hl> Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a \"language\" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, <hl> INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Over time, <hl> INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a CAFS accelerator?", "paragraph": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "answer": "a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities", "sentence": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities . <hl> In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "paragraph_answer": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, <hl> a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities <hl>. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "sentence_answer": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, <hl> a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities <hl> ."}
{"question": "Did the CAFS accelerator work as planned?", "paragraph": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "answer": "efforts were generally unsuccessful", "sentence": "In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. <hl> In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. <hl> Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "paragraph_answer": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these <hl> efforts were generally unsuccessful <hl> because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "sentence_answer": "In the long term, these <hl> efforts were generally unsuccessful <hl> because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers."}
{"question": "How are today's database systems run?", "paragraph": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "answer": "general-purpose hardware", "sentence": "Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware , using general-purpose computer data storage.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. <hl> Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware , using general-purpose computer data storage. <hl> However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "paragraph_answer": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on <hl> general-purpose hardware <hl>, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "sentence_answer": "Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on <hl> general-purpose hardware <hl> , using general-purpose computer data storage."}
{"question": "Name a company that is still working on the CAFS accellerator?", "paragraph": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).", "answer": "Netezza and Oracle (Exadata)", "sentence": "However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata) .", "paragraph_sentence": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. <hl> However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata) . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like <hl> Netezza and Oracle (Exadata) <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like <hl> Netezza and Oracle (Exadata) <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the system IBM created using Codd's research?", "paragraph": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "answer": "System R", "sentence": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. <hl> The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "paragraph_answer": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as <hl> System R <hl> in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "sentence_answer": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as <hl> System R <hl> in the early 1970s."}
{"question": "When was IBM's system released?", "paragraph": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "answer": "1974/5", "sentence": "The first version was ready in 1974/5 , and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\".", "paragraph_sentence": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. <hl> The first version was ready in 1974/5 , and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". <hl> Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "paragraph_answer": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in <hl> 1974/5 <hl>, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "sentence_answer": "The first version was ready in <hl> 1974/5 <hl> , and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\"."}
{"question": "What did System R work on to change the way data was stored?", "paragraph": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "answer": "multi-table systems", "sentence": "The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\".", "paragraph_sentence": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. <hl> The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". <hl> Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "paragraph_answer": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on <hl> multi-table systems <hl> in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "sentence_answer": "The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on <hl> multi-table systems <hl> in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\"."}
{"question": "When customers first tested IBM's system, what computer language had been added?", "paragraph": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "answer": "SQL", "sentence": "Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL [citation needed] \u2013 had been added.", "paragraph_sentence": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". <hl> Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL [citation needed] \u2013 had been added. <hl> Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "paragraph_answer": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 <hl> SQL <hl>[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "sentence_answer": "Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 <hl> SQL <hl> [citation needed] \u2013 had been added."}
{"question": "What was the name of the database product created by IBM?", "paragraph": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).", "answer": "SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2)", "sentence": "Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2) .", "paragraph_sentence": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. <hl> Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2) . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large \"chunk\". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language \u2013 SQL[citation needed] \u2013 had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as <hl> SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2) <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as <hl> SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2) <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who created dBASE?", "paragraph": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "answer": "C. Wayne Ratliff", "sentence": "C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done.", "paragraph_sentence": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. <hl> C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. <hl> The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "paragraph_answer": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. <hl> C. Wayne Ratliff <hl> the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> C. Wayne Ratliff <hl> the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done."}
{"question": "Why was dBASE unique?", "paragraph": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "answer": "data manipulation is done by dBASE", "sentence": "The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. <hl> The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" <hl> dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "paragraph_answer": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The <hl> data manipulation is done by dBASE <hl> instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> data manipulation is done by dBASE <hl> instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\""}
{"question": "Why was dBASE successful?", "paragraph": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "answer": "lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box", "sentence": "The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box .", "paragraph_sentence": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. <hl> The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box . <hl> C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "paragraph_answer": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was <hl> lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box <hl>. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "sentence_answer": "The dBASE product was <hl> lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a benefit of using dBASE?", "paragraph": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "answer": "managing space allocation", "sentence": "The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation .\"", "paragraph_sentence": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. <hl> The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation .\" <hl> dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "paragraph_answer": "The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: \"dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and <hl> managing space allocation <hl>.\" dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.", "sentence_answer": "The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and <hl> managing space allocation <hl> .\""}
{"question": "In the 1990s, what type of programming changed the handling of databases?", "paragraph": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "answer": "object-oriented", "sentence": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. <hl> Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "paragraph_answer": "The 1990s, along with a rise in <hl> object-oriented <hl> programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "sentence_answer": "The 1990s, along with a rise in <hl> object-oriented <hl> programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled."}
{"question": "What term is used for the difficulty in database table and programmed object translation?", "paragraph": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "answer": "object-relational impedance mismatch", "sentence": "The term \" object-relational impedance mismatch \" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables.", "paragraph_sentence": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. <hl> The term \" object-relational impedance mismatch \" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. <hl> Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "paragraph_answer": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"<hl> object-relational impedance mismatch <hl>\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "sentence_answer": "The term \" <hl> object-relational impedance mismatch <hl> \" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables."}
{"question": "How is the problem of object-relational impedance mismatch corrected?", "paragraph": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "answer": "object-oriented language", "sentence": "Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL.", "paragraph_sentence": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. <hl> Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. <hl> On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "paragraph_answer": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an <hl> object-oriented language <hl> (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "sentence_answer": "Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an <hl> object-oriented language <hl> (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL."}
{"question": "What is the library programmers use to solve object-relational impedance mismatch?", "paragraph": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "answer": "object-relational mappings (ORMs)", "sentence": "On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.", "paragraph_sentence": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. <hl> On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term \"object-relational impedance mismatch\" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as <hl> object-relational mappings (ORMs) <hl> attempt to solve the same problem.", "sentence_answer": "On the programming side, libraries known as <hl> object-relational mappings (ORMs) <hl> attempt to solve the same problem."}
{"question": "What kind of database is XML?", "paragraph": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "answer": "structured document-oriented database", "sentence": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. <hl> XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "paragraph_answer": "XML databases are a type of <hl> structured document-oriented database <hl> that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "sentence_answer": "XML databases are a type of <hl> structured document-oriented database <hl> that allows querying based on XML document attributes."}
{"question": "Where are XML databases frequently used?", "paragraph": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "answer": "enterprise database management", "sentence": "XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management , where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard.", "paragraph_sentence": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. <hl> XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management , where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. <hl> XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "paragraph_answer": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in <hl> enterprise database management <hl>, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "sentence_answer": "XML databases are mostly used in <hl> enterprise database management <hl> , where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard."}
{"question": "What type of processing is used in enterprise database software?", "paragraph": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "answer": "ACID-compliant transaction processing", "sentence": "All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "paragraph_sentence": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. <hl> All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard <hl> ACID-compliant transaction processing <hl> with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "sentence_answer": "All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard <hl> ACID-compliant transaction processing <hl> with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security."}
{"question": "How is XML used in enterprise database management?", "paragraph": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "answer": "machine-to-machine data", "sentence": "XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard.", "paragraph_sentence": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. <hl> XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. <hl> XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "paragraph_answer": "XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the <hl> machine-to-machine data <hl> interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.", "sentence_answer": "XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the <hl> machine-to-machine data <hl> interoperability standard."}
{"question": "What is used to offer a balance in guarantees?", "paragraph": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "answer": "eventual consistency", "sentence": "For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "paragraph_sentence": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. <hl> For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called <hl> eventual consistency <hl> to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "sentence_answer": "For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called <hl> eventual consistency <hl> to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency."}
{"question": "What explains the difficulty in a system containing availability, consistency, and partition tolerance guarantees?", "paragraph": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "answer": "the CAP theorem", "sentence": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. <hl> A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "paragraph_answer": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to <hl> the CAP theorem <hl> it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "sentence_answer": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to <hl> the CAP theorem <hl> it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees."}
{"question": "How many guarantees will most databases tolerate?", "paragraph": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "answer": "two", "sentence": "A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three.", "paragraph_sentence": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. <hl> A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. <hl> For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "paragraph_answer": "In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any <hl> two <hl> of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.", "sentence_answer": "A distributed system can satisfy any <hl> two <hl> of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three."}
{"question": "What should a conceptual data model do?", "paragraph": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "answer": "reflects the structure of the information to be held", "sentence": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. <hl> A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "paragraph_answer": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that <hl> reflects the structure of the information to be held <hl> in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "sentence_answer": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that <hl> reflects the structure of the information to be held <hl> in the database."}
{"question": "What makes a successful data model?", "paragraph": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "answer": "accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled", "sentence": "A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled : for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. <hl> A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled : for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. <hl> Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "paragraph_answer": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will <hl> accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled <hl>: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "sentence_answer": "A successful data model will <hl> accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled <hl> : for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured."}
{"question": "Asking questions about an organization's needs will help to create what?", "paragraph": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "answer": "definitions of the terminology used for entities", "sentence": "The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". <hl> The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish <hl> definitions of the terminology used for entities <hl> (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "sentence_answer": "The answers to these questions establish <hl> definitions of the terminology used for entities <hl> (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes."}
{"question": "What must one understand in order to create a successful data model?", "paragraph": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "answer": "the application domain", "sentence": "Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain ; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\".", "paragraph_sentence": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. <hl> Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain ; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". <hl> The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "paragraph_answer": "The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of <hl> the application domain <hl>; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.", "sentence_answer": "Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of <hl> the application domain <hl> ; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like \"can a customer also be a supplier?\", or \"if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?\", or \"if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?\"."}
{"question": "A conceptual data model in separate from the choice of what?", "paragraph": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "answer": "database technology", "sentence": "Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology , the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS.", "paragraph_sentence": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. <hl> Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology , the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. <hl> (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "paragraph_answer": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of <hl> database technology <hl>, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "sentence_answer": "Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of <hl> database technology <hl> , the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS."}
{"question": "In what form is the output of a logical database design?", "paragraph": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "answer": "schema", "sentence": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. <hl> This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "paragraph_answer": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a <hl> schema <hl> that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "sentence_answer": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a <hl> schema <hl> that implements the relevant data structures within the database."}
{"question": "Which data model is displayed as a specific model that uses DBMS?", "paragraph": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "answer": "logical", "sentence": "This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema.", "paragraph_sentence": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. <hl> This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. <hl> Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "paragraph_answer": "Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called <hl> logical <hl> database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)", "sentence_answer": "This process is often called <hl> logical <hl> database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema."}
{"question": "What decisions must be made in the last stage of database design?", "paragraph": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "answer": "performance, scalability, recovery, security", "sentence": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security , and the like.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security , and the like. <hl> This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "paragraph_answer": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect <hl> performance, scalability, recovery, security <hl>, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "sentence_answer": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect <hl> performance, scalability, recovery, security <hl> , and the like."}
{"question": "What is an important goal in in this final stage?", "paragraph": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "answer": "data independence", "sentence": "A key goal during this stage is data independence , meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications.", "paragraph_sentence": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. <hl> A key goal during this stage is data independence , meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. <hl> Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "paragraph_answer": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is <hl> data independence <hl>, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "sentence_answer": "A key goal during this stage is <hl> data independence <hl> , meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications."}
{"question": "What factor is reflected in performance requirements?", "paragraph": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "answer": "Physical design", "sentence": "Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "paragraph_sentence": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. <hl> Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. <hl> Physical design <hl> is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Physical design <hl> is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS."}
{"question": "How many conceptual or physical views of data are there?", "paragraph": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "answer": "one", "sentence": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. <hl> This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "paragraph_answer": "While there is typically only <hl> one <hl> conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "sentence_answer": "While there is typically only <hl> one <hl> conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views."}
{"question": "How many different external views of data are there?", "paragraph": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "answer": "any number", "sentence": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. <hl> This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "paragraph_answer": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be <hl> any number <hl> of different external views. This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "sentence_answer": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be <hl> any number <hl> of different external views."}
{"question": "What is the benefit of external views of data?", "paragraph": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "answer": "see database information in a more business-related way", "sentence": "This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint.", "paragraph_sentence": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. <hl> This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. <hl> For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "paragraph_answer": "While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. This allows users to <hl> see database information in a more business-related way <hl> rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.", "sentence_answer": "This allows users to <hl> see database information in a more business-related way <hl> rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint."}
{"question": "What does the conceptual view offer?", "paragraph": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "answer": "a level of indirection between internal and external", "sentence": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external . <hl> On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "paragraph_answer": "The conceptual view provides <hl> a level of indirection between internal and external <hl>. On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "sentence_answer": "The conceptual view provides <hl> a level of indirection between internal and external <hl> ."}
{"question": "How does the conceptual view handle how data is managed?", "paragraph": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "answer": "abstracts away details", "sentence": "On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level).", "paragraph_sentence": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. <hl> On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). <hl> In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "paragraph_answer": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it <hl> abstracts away details <hl> of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "sentence_answer": "On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it <hl> abstracts away details <hl> of how the data are stored or managed (internal level)."}
{"question": "What type of view does the conceptual view offer?", "paragraph": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "answer": "common", "sentence": "On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level).", "paragraph_sentence": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. <hl> On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). <hl> In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "paragraph_answer": "The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. On one hand it provides a <hl> common <hl> view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.", "sentence_answer": "On one hand it provides a <hl> common <hl> view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level)."}
{"question": "What is responsible for putting information into permanent storage?", "paragraph": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "answer": "database engine", "sentence": "Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a.", "paragraph_sentence": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. <hl> Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. <hl> \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "paragraph_answer": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the <hl> database engine <hl> a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "sentence_answer": "Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the <hl> database engine <hl> a.k.a."}
{"question": "What do database administrators closely monitor?", "paragraph": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "answer": "storage properties and configuration setting", "sentence": "Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators.", "paragraph_sentence": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". <hl> Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. <hl> A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "paragraph_answer": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), <hl> storage properties and configuration setting <hl> are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "sentence_answer": "Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), <hl> storage properties and configuration setting <hl> are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators."}
{"question": "What is database storage?", "paragraph": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "answer": "physical materialization of a database", "sentence": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database . <hl> It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "paragraph_answer": "Database storage is the container of the <hl> physical materialization of a database <hl>. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "sentence_answer": "Database storage is the container of the <hl> physical materialization of a database <hl> ."}
{"question": "While working, does DBMS store information in one place?", "paragraph": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "answer": "several types of storage", "sentence": "A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage).", "paragraph_sentence": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. <hl> A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). <hl> The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "paragraph_answer": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in <hl> several types of storage <hl> (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "sentence_answer": "A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in <hl> several types of storage <hl> (e.g., memory and external storage)."}
{"question": "What are huge quantities of information stored as?", "paragraph": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "answer": "bits", "sentence": "The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits .", "paragraph_sentence": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). <hl> The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits . <hl> Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "paragraph_answer": "Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, \"data about the data\", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. \"storage engine\". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into <hl> bits <hl>. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).", "sentence_answer": "The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into <hl> bits <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does database access limit?", "paragraph": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "answer": "who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information", "sentence": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. <hl> The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "paragraph_answer": "Database access control deals with controlling <hl> who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information <hl> in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "sentence_answer": "Database access control deals with controlling <hl> who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information <hl> in the database."}
{"question": "What are examples of database objects?", "paragraph": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "answer": "record types, specific records, data structures", "sentence": "The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures ), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information).", "paragraph_sentence": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. <hl> The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures ), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). <hl> Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "paragraph_answer": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., <hl> record types, specific records, data structures <hl>), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "sentence_answer": "The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., <hl> record types, specific records, data structures <hl> ), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information)."}
{"question": "Who sets database access?", "paragraph": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "answer": "special authorized (by the database owner) personnel", "sentence": "Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "paragraph_sentence": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). <hl> Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by <hl> special authorized (by the database owner) personnel <hl> that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.", "sentence_answer": "Database access controls are set by <hl> special authorized (by the database owner) personnel <hl> that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces."}
{"question": "What does data security avoid?", "paragraph": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"subschemas\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.", "answer": "unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database", "sentence": "Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database .", "paragraph_sentence": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. <hl> Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database . <hl> Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"subschemas\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.", "paragraph_answer": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents <hl> unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database <hl>. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"subschemas\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.", "sentence_answer": "Data security prevents <hl> unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a subset of a database called that can be accessed by using a password?", "paragraph": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"subschemas\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.", "answer": "subschemas", "sentence": "Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \" subschemas \".", "paragraph_sentence": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. <hl> Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \" subschemas \". <hl> For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.", "paragraph_answer": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"<hl> subschemas <hl>\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.", "sentence_answer": "Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \" <hl> subschemas <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What is possible when a DBMS interrogate and update a database?", "paragraph": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"subschemas\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.", "answer": "managing personal databases", "sentence": "If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases .", "paragraph_sentence": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"subschemas\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. <hl> If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called \"subschemas\". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for <hl> managing personal databases <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for <hl> managing personal databases <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a unit of work called in a database?", "paragraph": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "answer": "transaction", "sentence": "Database transaction s can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Database transaction s can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. <hl> A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "paragraph_answer": "Database <hl> transaction <hl>s can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "sentence_answer": "Database <hl> transaction <hl> s can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash."}
{"question": "Are transactions limited?", "paragraph": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "answer": "Each transaction has well defined boundaries", "sentence": "Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "paragraph_sentence": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. <hl> Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. <hl> Each transaction has well defined boundaries <hl> in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Each transaction has well defined boundaries <hl> in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands)."}
{"question": "How can database transactions ensure accuracy after a crash?", "paragraph": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "answer": "fault tolerance", "sentence": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. <hl> A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "paragraph_answer": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of <hl> fault tolerance <hl> and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).", "sentence_answer": "Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of <hl> fault tolerance <hl> and data integrity after recovery from a crash."}
{"question": "Why would someone attempt to unite two different databases?", "paragraph": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "answer": "primarily economical", "sentence": "The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities).", "paragraph_sentence": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. <hl> The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). <hl> The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "paragraph_answer": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are <hl> primarily economical <hl> (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "sentence_answer": "The reasons are <hl> primarily economical <hl> (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities)."}
{"question": "In order to merge, what must the database maintain?", "paragraph": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "answer": "database related application", "sentence": "The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact.", "paragraph_sentence": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. <hl> The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. <hl> Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "paragraph_answer": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the <hl> database related application <hl> (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "sentence_answer": "The transformation should maintain (if possible) the <hl> database related application <hl> (i.e., all related application programs) intact."}
{"question": "What are the important parts of the database related application that should be moved?", "paragraph": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "answer": "conceptual and external architectural levels", "sentence": "Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation.", "paragraph_sentence": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. <hl> Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. <hl> It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "paragraph_answer": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's <hl> conceptual and external architectural levels <hl> should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "sentence_answer": "Thus, the database's <hl> conceptual and external architectural levels <hl> should be maintained in the transformation."}
{"question": "How can a DBMS database migration be made easier?", "paragraph": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "answer": "vendor provides tools", "sentence": "Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "paragraph_sentence": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. <hl> Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS <hl> vendor provides tools <hl> to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "sentence_answer": "Typically a DBMS <hl> vendor provides tools <hl> to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs."}
{"question": "Can a DBMS be transfered to a different DBMS?", "paragraph": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "answer": "ano", "sentence": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to ano ther DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A database built with one DBMS is not portable to ano ther DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). <hl> However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "paragraph_answer": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to <hl> ano <hl>ther DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.", "sentence_answer": "A database built with one DBMS is not portable to <hl> ano <hl> ther DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it)."}
{"question": "Name a reason to take a database backward in time?", "paragraph": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "answer": "database is found corrupted", "sentence": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). <hl> To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "paragraph_answer": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the <hl> database is found corrupted <hl> due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "sentence_answer": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the <hl> database is found corrupted <hl> due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data)."}
{"question": "Is each database backup kept in the same file?", "paragraph": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "answer": "dedicated backup files", "sentence": "To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively).", "paragraph_sentence": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). <hl> To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). <hl> When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "paragraph_answer": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within <hl> dedicated backup files <hl> (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "sentence_answer": "To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within <hl> dedicated backup files <hl> (many techniques exist to do this effectively)."}
{"question": "Who can restore a database that has been corrupted?", "paragraph": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "answer": "database administrator", "sentence": "a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "paragraph_sentence": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by <hl> a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a <hl> database administrator <hl> to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> database administrator <hl> to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state."}
{"question": "What parameter is requiret to restore a database?", "paragraph": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "answer": "desired point in time", "sentence": "When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "paragraph_sentence": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). <hl> When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a <hl> desired point in time <hl> when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.", "sentence_answer": "When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a <hl> desired point in time <hl> when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state."}
{"question": "How can static analysis be useful with query languages?", "paragraph": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "answer": "software verification", "sentence": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. <hl> In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "paragraph_answer": "Static analysis techniques for <hl> software verification <hl> can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "sentence_answer": "Static analysis techniques for <hl> software verification <hl> can be applied also in the scenario of query languages."}
{"question": "What do query languages support in abstract interpretation frameworks?", "paragraph": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "answer": "sound approximation techniques", "sentence": "In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques .", "paragraph_sentence": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. <hl> In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques . <hl> The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "paragraph_answer": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support <hl> sound approximation techniques <hl>. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "sentence_answer": "In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support <hl> sound approximation techniques <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a security measure that uses a relational database system?", "paragraph": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "answer": "watermarking", "sentence": "The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking , etc.", "paragraph_sentence": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. <hl> The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking , etc. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, <hl> watermarking <hl>, etc.", "sentence_answer": "The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, <hl> watermarking <hl> , etc."}
{"question": "Can query languages be adjusted?", "paragraph": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "answer": "according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data", "sentence": "The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data .", "paragraph_sentence": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. <hl> The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data . <hl> The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "paragraph_answer": "Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned <hl> according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data <hl>. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.", "sentence_answer": "The semantics of query languages can be tuned <hl> according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the largest populated city in Arizona?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "Phoenix", "sentence": "Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix , both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. <hl> Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix , both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. <hl> The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind <hl> Phoenix <hl>, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind <hl> Phoenix <hl> , both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor."}
{"question": "How many miles is Tuscon from the U.S.- Mexico border?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "60", "sentence": "The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. <hl> The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. <hl> Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and <hl> 60 <hl> mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and <hl> 60 <hl> mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border."}
{"question": "What nickname does Tuscon have because of their many companies involved in optics?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "Optics Valley", "sentence": "Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. <hl> Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname <hl> Optics Valley <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname <hl> Optics Valley <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the population of Tuscon according to the 2010 U.S. Census?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "520,116", "sentence": "The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116 , while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. <hl> The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116 , while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. <hl> The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at <hl> 520,116 <hl>, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "The 2010 United States Census put the population at <hl> 520,116 <hl> , while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544."}
{"question": "What was the estimated population of the entire Tuscan area in 2013?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "996,544", "sentence": "The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. <hl> The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544 . <hl> The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was <hl> 996,544 <hl>. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was <hl> 996,544 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which county is Tucson in?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "Pima County", "sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County , Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County , Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. <hl> The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of <hl> Pima County <hl>, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of <hl> Pima County <hl> , Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona."}
{"question": "Which university is in Tucson?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "University of Arizona", "sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona . <hl> The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the <hl> University of Arizona <hl>. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the <hl> University of Arizona <hl> ."}
{"question": "How far is Tucson from Phoenix?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "108 miles (174 km)", "sentence": "The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. <hl> The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. <hl> Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located <hl> 108 miles (174 km) <hl> southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "The city is located <hl> 108 miles (174 km) <hl> southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border."}
{"question": "How far is Tucson from Mexico?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "60 mi (97 km)", "sentence": "The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. <hl> The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. <hl> Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and <hl> 60 mi (97 km) <hl> north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "sentence_answer": "The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and <hl> 60 mi (97 km) <hl> north of the U.S.-Mexico border."}
{"question": "What industry-based nickname does Tucson have?", "paragraph": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.", "answer": "Optics Valley", "sentence": "Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. <hl> Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson (/\u02c8tu\u02d0s\u0252n/ /tu\u02d0\u02c8s\u0252n/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname <hl> Optics Valley <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname <hl> Optics Valley <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was Tuscon known as 12,000 years ago?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "southern Arizona", "sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. <hl> Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in <hl> southern Arizona <hl> about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in <hl> southern Arizona <hl> about 12,000 years ago."}
{"question": "What group lived in the area that were known for their red-on-brown pottery?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "Hohokam", "sentence": "The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. <hl> The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the <hl> Hohokam <hl> lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The groups designated as the <hl> Hohokam <hl> lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]"}
{"question": "Near what river was a village site dating from 2100 BC found?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "Santa Cruz River", "sentence": "Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. <hl> Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. <hl> These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the <hl> Santa Cruz River <hl> have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Recent archaeological excavations near the <hl> Santa Cruz River <hl> have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150."}
{"question": "Who were probably the first group of people in Tuscan?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "Paleo-Indians", "sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians , known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians , known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. <hl> Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by <hl> Paleo-Indians <hl>, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by <hl> Paleo-Indians <hl> , known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago."}
{"question": "How long ago did Tuscan have their first visitors?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "12,000 years ago", "sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago . <hl> Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about <hl> 12,000 years ago <hl>. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about <hl> 12,000 years ago <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long ago were Paleo-Indians known to be in the Tucson area?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "about 12,000 years ago", "sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago . <hl> Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona <hl> about 12,000 years ago <hl>. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona <hl> about 12,000 years ago <hl> ."}
{"question": "How old was the village site found near the Santa Cruz River?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "2100 BC", "sentence": "Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC .[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. <hl> Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC .[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. <hl> These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from <hl> 2100 BC <hl>.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from <hl> 2100 BC <hl> .[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150."}
{"question": "When was the Early Agricultural period?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "1200 BC to AD 150", "sentence": "Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. <hl> Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150 . <hl> These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa <hl> 1200 BC to AD 150 <hl>. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa <hl> 1200 BC to AD 150 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What happened in the Early Ceramic period?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage", "sentence": "The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. <hl> The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage . <hl> The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw <hl> the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage <hl>. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw <hl> the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the Hohokam live in the Tucson area?", "paragraph": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "answer": "from AD 600 to 1450", "sentence": "The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. <hl> The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area <hl> from AD 600 to 1450 <hl> and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area <hl> from AD 600 to 1450 <hl> and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]"}
{"question": "What year did Mexico gain independence from Spain?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "1821", "sentence": "Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. <hl> Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in <hl> 1821 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in <hl> 1821 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who is considered the founding father of Tuscan?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "Hugo O'Conor", "sentence": "Hugo O'Conor , the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse).", "paragraph_sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. <hl> Hugo O'Conor , the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). <hl> During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. <hl> Hugo O'Conor <hl>, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Hugo O'Conor <hl> , the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse)."}
{"question": "Who founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "Eusebio Francisco Kino", "sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. <hl> A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary <hl> Eusebio Francisco Kino <hl> visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "Jesuit missionary <hl> Eusebio Francisco Kino <hl> visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson."}
{"question": "How many miles was Mission San Xavier del Bac from Tuscon?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "7", "sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1 7 00 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1 7 00 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. <hl> A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1<hl> 7 <hl>00 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1 <hl> 7 <hl> 00 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson."}
{"question": "Which missionary came to the Santa Cruz River area in 1692?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "Eusebio Francisco Kino", "sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. <hl> A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary <hl> Eusebio Francisco Kino <hl> visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "Jesuit missionary <hl> Eusebio Francisco Kino <hl> visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson."}
{"question": "What religion was Kino?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "Jesuit", "sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. <hl> A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Jesuit <hl> missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Jesuit <hl> missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson."}
{"question": "What mission did Kino found?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "Mission San Xavier del Bac", "sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. <hl> A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the <hl> Mission San Xavier del Bac <hl> in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the <hl> Mission San Xavier del Bac <hl> in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson."}
{"question": "When did Kino found the del Bac mission?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "1700", "sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. <hl> A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in <hl> 1700 <hl> about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in <hl> 1700 <hl> about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson."}
{"question": "Who is Tucson's 'founding father'?", "paragraph": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "answer": "Hugo O'Conor", "sentence": "Hugo O'Conor , the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse).", "paragraph_sentence": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. <hl> Hugo O'Conor , the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). <hl> During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "paragraph_answer": "Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now \"A\" mountain. <hl> Hugo O'Conor <hl>, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called \"Tucson\" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Hugo O'Conor <hl> , the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agust\u00edn del Tucs\u00f3n, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse)."}
{"question": "What was the date when Arizona was bought?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "June 8, 1854", "sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854 . <hl> Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on <hl> June 8, 1854 <hl>. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on <hl> June 8, 1854 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What year did the Overland Mail Corporation end operations?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "1861", "sentence": "In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. <hl> In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861 . <hl> The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March <hl> 1861 <hl>. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March <hl> 1861 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Arizona is south of which river?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "Gila River", "sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. <hl> Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the <hl> Gila River <hl> was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Arizona, south of the <hl> Gila River <hl> was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854."}
{"question": "What was the name of the deal in which Arizona was bought?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "Gadsden Purchase", "sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. <hl> Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the <hl> Gadsden Purchase <hl> on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the <hl> Gadsden Purchase <hl> on June 8, 1854."}
{"question": "In what year did Tuscon become a stage station?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "1857", "sentence": "In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861.", "paragraph_sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. <hl> In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. <hl> The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In <hl> 1857 <hl> Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1857 <hl> Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861."}
{"question": "When was the Gadsden Purchase?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "June 8, 1854", "sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854 . <hl> Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on <hl> June 8, 1854 <hl>. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on <hl> June 8, 1854 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where did the US buy land from in the Gadsden Purchase?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "Mexico", "sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. <hl> Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from <hl> Mexico <hl> in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from <hl> Mexico <hl> in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854."}
{"question": "When did the US formally take control of the Tucson area?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "March 1856", "sentence": "Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. <hl> Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856 . <hl> In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until <hl> March 1856 <hl>. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until <hl> March 1856 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the mail stagecoaches stop running?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "August 1861", "sentence": "The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861 .[citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. <hl> The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861 .[citation needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in <hl> August 1861 <hl>.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in <hl> August 1861 <hl> .[citation needed]"}
{"question": "Why did the mail stagecoaches stop running?", "paragraph": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "answer": "devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches", "sentence": "The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "paragraph_sentence": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. <hl> The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed] <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, <hl> devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches <hl> ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]", "sentence_answer": "The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, <hl> devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches <hl> ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]"}
{"question": "What date did William Whitney Brazelton Die?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "August 19, 1878", "sentence": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878 , in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse.", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. <hl> Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878 , in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. <hl> Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday <hl> August 19, 1878 <hl>, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday <hl> August 19, 1878 <hl> , in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse."}
{"question": "What is the name of the sheriff who shot William Whitney Brazelton?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "Charles A. Shibell", "sentence": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse.", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. <hl> Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. <hl> Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff <hl> Charles A. Shibell <hl> and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff <hl> Charles A. Shibell <hl> and his citizen's posse."}
{"question": "What was Wyatt Earp's job title?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "Deputy U.S. Marshal", "sentence": ":250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California.", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. <hl> :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. <hl> They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 <hl> Deputy U.S. Marshal <hl> Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": ":250 <hl> Deputy U.S. Marshal <hl> Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California."}
{"question": "Who was held responsible for the murder of Morgan Earp?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "Frank Stilwell", "sentence": "In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting.", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. <hl> In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. <hl> The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, <hl> Frank Stilwell <hl> was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "In 1882, <hl> Frank Stilwell <hl> was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting."}
{"question": "What Deputy was responsible for the death of Frank Stiwell?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "Wyatt Earp", "sentence": ":250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California.", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. <hl> :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. <hl> They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal <hl> Wyatt Earp <hl> gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": ":250 Deputy U.S. Marshal <hl> Wyatt Earp <hl> gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California."}
{"question": "What crime increased in the Tucson area in 1877?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "stagecoach robberies", "sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies . <hl> Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of <hl> stagecoach robberies <hl>. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of <hl> stagecoach robberies <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was the most famous stagecoach robber in the Tucson area?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "William Whitney Brazelton", "sentence": "Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton .", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. <hl> Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton . <hl> Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent <hl> William Whitney Brazelton <hl>. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent <hl> William Whitney Brazelton <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was Brazelton killed?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "August 19, 1878", "sentence": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878 , in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse.", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. <hl> Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878 , in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. <hl> Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday <hl> August 19, 1878 <hl>, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday <hl> August 19, 1878 <hl> , in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse."}
{"question": "Who killed Brazelton?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse", "sentence": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse .", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. <hl> Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse . <hl> Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff <hl> Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse <hl>. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff <hl> Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was Shibell's job?", "paragraph": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "answer": "Pima County Sheriff", "sentence": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse.", "paragraph_sentence": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. <hl> Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. <hl> Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "paragraph_answer": "From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by <hl> Pima County Sheriff <hl> Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino \"Indian Charlie\" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.", "sentence_answer": "Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by <hl> Pima County Sheriff <hl> Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse."}
{"question": "What county is Tuscon located in?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "Pima County", "sentence": "In 2006 the population of Pima County , in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. <hl> In 2006 the population of Pima County , in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of <hl> Pima County <hl>, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "In 2006 the population of <hl> Pima County <hl> , in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000."}
{"question": "What was the population of Tuscon in 2006?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "535,000", "sentence": "In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000 .", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. <hl> In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was <hl> 535,000 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was <hl> 535,000 <hl> ."}
{"question": "what were veterans in need of after World War I?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "respiratory therapy", "sentence": "Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air.", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. <hl> Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. <hl> Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of <hl> respiratory therapy <hl> began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of <hl> respiratory therapy <hl> began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air."}
{"question": "What did the U.S. Veterans Administration build around 1910?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "Veterans Hospital", "sentence": "At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital .", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. <hl> At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital . <hl> Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present <hl> Veterans Hospital <hl>. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present <hl> Veterans Hospital <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the population of Tuscon in 1940?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "36,818", "sentence": "Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940.", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. <hl> Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. <hl> In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and <hl> 36,818 <hl> in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and <hl> 36,818 <hl> in 1940."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's population in 1900?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "7,531", "sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. <hl> The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, <hl> 7,531 <hl> people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "By 1900, <hl> 7,531 <hl> people lived in the city."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's population in 1910?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "13,913", "sentence": "The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910.", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. <hl> The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. <hl> At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to <hl> 13,913 <hl> in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "The population increased gradually to <hl> 13,913 <hl> in 1910."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's population in 1920?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "20,292", "sentence": "Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940.", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. <hl> Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. <hl> In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to <hl> 20,292 <hl> in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to <hl> 20,292 <hl> in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's population in 1940?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "36,818", "sentence": "Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940.", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. <hl> Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. <hl> In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and <hl> 36,818 <hl> in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "sentence_answer": "Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and <hl> 36,818 <hl> in 1940."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's population in 2006?", "paragraph": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.", "answer": "535,000", "sentence": "In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000 .", "paragraph_sentence": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. <hl> In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was <hl> 535,000 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was <hl> 535,000 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which Mountain has the Highest point surrounding Tuscon?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "Mount Wrightson", "sentence": "The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson , found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. <hl> The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson , found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is <hl> Mount Wrightson <hl>, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "The highest point in the area is <hl> Mount Wrightson <hl> , found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level."}
{"question": "Which desert is Tuscon in?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "Sonoran", "sentence": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the <hl> Sonoran <hl> desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the <hl> Sonoran <hl> desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west."}
{"question": "How many mountain ranges is Tuscon surrounded by?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "five", "sentence": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by <hl> five <hl> minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by <hl> five <hl> minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west."}
{"question": "How above sea level is Wasson Peak in feet?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "4,687 ft", "sentence": "The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. <hl> The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include <hl> 4,687 ft <hl> (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include <hl> 4,687 ft <hl> (1,429 m) Wasson Peak."}
{"question": "What direction are the Tortolita Mountains from Tuscon?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "north", "sentence": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north , the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north , the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the <hl> north <hl>, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the <hl> north <hl> , the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west."}
{"question": "How high is Tucson's airport?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level", "sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is <hl> 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level <hl> (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "The city's elevation is <hl> 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level <hl> (as measured at the Tucson International Airport)."}
{"question": "What desert is Tucson in?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "Sonoran", "sentence": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the <hl> Sonoran <hl> desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the <hl> Sonoran <hl> desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west."}
{"question": "What mountain range is east of Tucson?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "Rincon Mountains", "sentence": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the <hl> Rincon Mountains <hl> to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the <hl> Rincon Mountains <hl> to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west."}
{"question": "What mountain range is north of Tucson?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "Tortolita Mountains", "sentence": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the <hl> Tortolita Mountains <hl> to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the <hl> Tortolita Mountains <hl> to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west."}
{"question": "What mountain range is west of Tucson?", "paragraph": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "answer": "Tucson Mountains", "sentence": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west.", "paragraph_sentence": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). <hl> Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. <hl> The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "paragraph_answer": "The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the <hl> Tucson Mountains <hl> to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the <hl> Tucson Mountains <hl> to the west."}
{"question": "How many miles is Tuscon from Phoenix?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "118", "sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. <hl> The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located <hl> 118 <hl> mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is located <hl> 118 <hl> mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border."}
{"question": "How many miles is Tuscon from the US - Mexico border?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "60", "sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. <hl> The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and <hl> 60 <hl> mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and <hl> 60 <hl> mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border."}
{"question": "What is the second largest city in Arizona?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "Tucson", "sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. <hl> The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Tucson <hl> is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Tucson <hl> is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border."}
{"question": "Where does Tuscon rank in terms of the largest city in the U.S. in 2009?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "32nd", "sentence": "In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. <hl> In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. <hl> A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the <hl> 32nd <hl> largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "In 2009, Tucson ranked as the <hl> 32nd <hl> largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States."}
{"question": "What area exceeded 1 million people in 2015?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "Greater Tucson Metro", "sentence": "As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. <hl> As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The <hl> Greater Tucson Metro <hl> area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2015, The <hl> Greater Tucson Metro <hl> area has exceeded a population of 1 million."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's city population in 2010?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "520,116", "sentence": "The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. <hl> The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. <hl> In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at <hl> 520,116 <hl> with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at <hl> 520,116 <hl> with a metropolitan area population at 980,263."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's metro area population in 2010?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "980,263", "sentence": "The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. <hl> The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263 . <hl> In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at <hl> 980,263 <hl>. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at <hl> 980,263 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How does Tucson rank among US cities?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "32nd largest", "sentence": "In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. <hl> In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. <hl> A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the <hl> 32nd largest <hl> city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "In 2009, Tucson ranked as the <hl> 32nd largest <hl> city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States."}
{"question": "How does Tucson rank among US metro areas?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "52nd largest", "sentence": "In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. <hl> In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. <hl> A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and <hl> 52nd largest <hl> metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "sentence_answer": "In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and <hl> 52nd largest <hl> metropolitan area in the United States."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's metro area population in 2015?", "paragraph": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.", "answer": "1 million", "sentence": "As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. <hl> As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of <hl> 1 million <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of <hl> 1 million <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which interstate is the only one that uses kilometer posts instead of mileposts?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "I-19", "sentence": "I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. <hl> I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. <hl> I-19 <hl> runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> I-19 <hl> runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour."}
{"question": "Are the speed limits on I-19 marked in miles or kilometers?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "miles", "sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in <hl> miles <hl> per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in <hl> miles <hl> per hour instead of kilometers per hour."}
{"question": "What border does I-19 come close to?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "U.S.-Mexico border", "sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border . <hl> I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the <hl> U.S.-Mexico border <hl>. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the <hl> U.S.-Mexico border <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which interstate would you take to go to Jackson Florida from Tuscon Arizona?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "Interstate 10", "sentence": "Interstate 10 , which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10 , which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Interstate 10 <hl>, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Interstate 10 <hl> , which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour."}
{"question": "Which direction does I-10 run through Tucson?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "southeast to northwest", "sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs <hl> southeast to northwest <hl> through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs <hl> southeast to northwest <hl> through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour."}
{"question": "What is the next major town to the west on I-10?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "Phoenix", "sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to <hl> Phoenix <hl> to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to <hl> Phoenix <hl> to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour."}
{"question": "What is the next major town to the east on I-10?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "Las Cruces, New Mexico", "sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. <hl> I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to <hl> Las Cruces, New Mexico <hl> and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to <hl> Las Cruces, New Mexico <hl> and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida."}
{"question": "Which direction does I-19 run from Tucson?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "south", "sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs south east to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10, which runs south east to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs <hl> south <hl>east to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs <hl> south <hl> east to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour."}
{"question": "What is unusual about I-19?", "paragraph": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "answer": "the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\"", "sentence": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\" , although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\" , although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is <hl> the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\" <hl>, although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.", "sentence_answer": "Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is <hl> the only Interstate highway that uses \"kilometer posts\" instead of \"mileposts\" <hl> , although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour."}
{"question": "What was the Union Pacific once known as?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "Southern Pacific", "sentence": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific ) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. <hl> Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific ) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. <hl> Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly <hl> Southern Pacific <hl>) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly <hl> Southern Pacific <hl> ) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900."}
{"question": "What year was Locomotive #1673 made in?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "1900", "sentence": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900 .", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. <hl> Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900 . <hl> Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in <hl> 1900 <hl>. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in <hl> 1900 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was the name of the retail and community center that took longer than a decade to build?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "Rio Nuevo", "sentence": "The primary project was Rio Nuevo , a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. <hl> The primary project was Rio Nuevo , a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. <hl> Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was <hl> Rio Nuevo <hl>, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "The primary project was <hl> Rio Nuevo <hl> , a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years."}
{"question": "When did a revitalization of downtown Tucson begin?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century", "sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century , downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the end of the first decade of the 21st century , downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. <hl> The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> At the end of the first decade of the 21st century <hl>, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> At the end of the first decade of the 21st century <hl> , downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community."}
{"question": "What is Rio Nuevo?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "a large retail and community center", "sentence": "The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. <hl> The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. <hl> Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, <hl> a large retail and community center <hl> that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "The primary project was Rio Nuevo, <hl> a large retail and community center <hl> that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years."}
{"question": "What is the southern edge of Tucson's downtown?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "17th Street", "sentence": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. <hl> Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. <hl> Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by <hl> 17th Street <hl> to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by <hl> 17th Street <hl> to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900."}
{"question": "What is the western edge of Tucson's downtown?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "I-10", "sentence": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. <hl> Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. <hl> Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, <hl> I-10 <hl> to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, <hl> I-10 <hl> to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900."}
{"question": "What is the northern edge of Tucson's downtown?", "paragraph": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "answer": "6th Street", "sentence": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. <hl> Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. <hl> Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and <hl> 6th Street <hl> to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.", "sentence_answer": "Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and <hl> 6th Street <hl> to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and \"Locomotive #1673\", built in 1900."}
{"question": "Which architect designed the Broadway Village shopping Center?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "Josias Joesler", "sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. <hl> The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect <hl> Josias Joesler <hl> at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "sentence_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect <hl> Josias Joesler <hl> at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road."}
{"question": "Which part of Tuscon is Broadway Village shopping center located in?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "Central", "sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. <hl> The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, <hl> Central <hl> Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "sentence_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, <hl> Central <hl> Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road."}
{"question": "What mall is located in midtown?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "El Con Mall", "sentence": "The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "paragraph_sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. <hl> The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The <hl> El Con Mall <hl> is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> El Con Mall <hl> is also located in the eastern part of midtown."}
{"question": "Who designed the Broadway Village shopping center?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "Josias Joesler", "sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. <hl> The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect <hl> Josias Joesler <hl> at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "sentence_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect <hl> Josias Joesler <hl> at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road."}
{"question": "Where is Broadway Village shopping center?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road", "sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road . <hl> The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler <hl> at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road <hl>. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "sentence_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler <hl> at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the Lost Barrio?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "just East of downtown", "sentence": "The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown , also have many unique and popular stores.", "paragraph_sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. <hl> The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown , also have many unique and popular stores. <hl> Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio <hl> just East of downtown <hl>, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "sentence_answer": "The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio <hl> just East of downtown <hl> , also have many unique and popular stores."}
{"question": "Where is the El Con Mall?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "in the eastern part of midtown", "sentence": "The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown .", "paragraph_sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. <hl> The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located <hl> in the eastern part of midtown <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The El Con Mall is also located <hl> in the eastern part of midtown <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is the 4th Avenue Shopping District?", "paragraph": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "answer": "between downtown and the University", "sentence": "The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores.", "paragraph_sentence": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. <hl> The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. <hl> Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "paragraph_answer": "As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District <hl> between downtown and the University <hl> and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.", "sentence_answer": "The 4th Avenue Shopping District <hl> between downtown and the University <hl> and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores."}
{"question": "What is Tuscon's largest Park?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "Reid Park", "sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park , is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's largest park, Reid Park , is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, <hl> Reid Park <hl>, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's largest park, <hl> Reid Park <hl> , is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field."}
{"question": "What was once named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "Speedway Boulevard", "sentence": "Speedway Boulevard , a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard , a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. <hl> Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard <hl>, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Speedway Boulevard <hl> , a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett."}
{"question": "What mayor was quoted in calling Speedway Boulevard \"the ugliest street in America?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "James Corbett", "sentence": "Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett . <hl> Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor <hl> James Corbett <hl>. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor <hl> James Corbett <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which newspaper did David Leighton work for?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "Arizona Daily Star", "sentence": "According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. <hl> According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. <hl> The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the <hl> Arizona Daily Star <hl> newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "According to David Leighton, historical writer for the <hl> Arizona Daily Star <hl> newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City."}
{"question": "What city is the Harlem River Speedway in?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "New York City", "sentence": "According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. <hl> According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City . <hl> The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in <hl> New York City <hl>. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in <hl> New York City <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's biggest park?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "Reid Park", "sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park , is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's largest park, Reid Park , is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, <hl> Reid Park <hl>, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's largest park, <hl> Reid Park <hl> , is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field."}
{"question": "What sports field is in Reid Park?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "Hi Corbett Field", "sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field . <hl> Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and <hl> Hi Corbett Field <hl>. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and <hl> Hi Corbett Field <hl> ."}
{"question": "What zoo is in Reid Park?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "Reid Park Zoo", "sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes <hl> Reid Park Zoo <hl> and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes <hl> Reid Park Zoo <hl> and Hi Corbett Field."}
{"question": "What was the \"ugliest street in America\" in the 1970s?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "Speedway Boulevard", "sentence": "Speedway Boulevard , a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard , a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. <hl> Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. <hl> Speedway Boulevard <hl>, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Speedway Boulevard <hl> , a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett."}
{"question": "What was Speedway Blvd called in the 1990s?", "paragraph": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "answer": "\"Street of the Year\"", "sentence": "Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. <hl> Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded \"Street of the Year\" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. <hl> According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the \"ugliest street in America\" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded <hl> \"Street of the Year\" <hl> by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as \"The Harlem River Speedway,\" more commonly called \"The Speedway,\" in New York City. The street was called \"The Speedway,\" from 1904 to about 1906 before the word \"The\" was taken out.", "sentence_answer": "Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded <hl> \"Street of the Year\" <hl> by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s."}
{"question": "Where does E.University Blvd. lead to?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "Fourth Avenue Shopping District", "sentence": "To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District .", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. <hl> To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District . <hl> To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the <hl> Fourth Avenue Shopping District <hl>. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the <hl> Fourth Avenue Shopping District <hl> ."}
{"question": "What neighborhood has historic homes?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "Sam Hughes neighborhood", "sentence": "To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood .", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. <hl> To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood . <hl> To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the <hl> Sam Hughes neighborhood <hl>. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the <hl> Sam Hughes neighborhood <hl> ."}
{"question": "What mode of transport is encouraged in Central Tuscon?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "bicycle", "sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle -friendly.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Central Tucson is bicycle -friendly. <hl> To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is <hl> bicycle <hl>-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "Central Tucson is <hl> bicycle <hl> -friendly."}
{"question": "Of the 3.5 miles from N. Mountain Avenue to Rillito River Park, how many are bike-only?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "half", "sentence": "To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path.", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. <hl> To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. <hl> To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for <hl> half <hl> of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for <hl> half <hl> of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path."}
{"question": "Which Tucson street is devoted to bicycles?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "Third Street", "sentence": "To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood.", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. <hl> To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. <hl> To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, <hl> Third Street <hl> is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the east of the University of Arizona, <hl> Third Street <hl> is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood."}
{"question": "How long does N Mountain Ave have a bike lane?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park", "sentence": "To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path.", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. <hl> To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. <hl> To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for <hl> half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park <hl> bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for <hl> half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park <hl> bike and walk multi-use path."}
{"question": "Which park has a multi-use path?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "Rillito River Park", "sentence": "To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path.", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. <hl> To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. <hl> To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the <hl> Rillito River Park <hl> bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the <hl> Rillito River Park <hl> bike and walk multi-use path."}
{"question": "Which bike path does Highland lead to?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "Barraza-Aviation Parkway", "sentence": "To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. <hl> To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the <hl> Barraza-Aviation Parkway <hl> bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the <hl> Barraza-Aviation Parkway <hl> bicycle path."}
{"question": "Which shopping area is on East University?", "paragraph": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "answer": "Fourth Avenue Shopping District", "sentence": "To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District .", "paragraph_sentence": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. <hl> To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District . <hl> To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "paragraph_answer": "Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the <hl> Fourth Avenue Shopping District <hl>. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.", "sentence_answer": "To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the <hl> Fourth Avenue Shopping District <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the percentage of Native Americans in South Tuscon?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "10%", "sentence": "The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. <hl> South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and <hl> 10% <hl> Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and <hl> 10% <hl> Native American residents."}
{"question": "What kind of restaurants are widely known in South Tuscon?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "Mexican", "sentence": "The population consists of about 83% Mexican -American and 10% Native American residents.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican -American and 10% Native American residents. <hl> South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% <hl> Mexican <hl>-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "The population consists of about 83% <hl> Mexican <hl> -American and 10% Native American residents."}
{"question": "What are painted do to city policy?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "outdoor murals", "sentence": "South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals , many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. <hl> South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals , many of which have been painted over due to city policy. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright <hl> outdoor murals <hl>, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright <hl> outdoor murals <hl> , many of which have been painted over due to city policy."}
{"question": "What percentage of the South Tuscon Population is Mexican-American?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "83%", "sentence": "The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. <hl> South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about <hl> 83% <hl> Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "The population consists of about <hl> 83% <hl> Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents."}
{"question": "What year was South Tuscon reincorperated?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "1940", "sentence": "It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940 .", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. <hl> It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940 . <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in <hl> 1940 <hl>. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in <hl> 1940 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was South Tucson first incorporated?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "1936", "sentence": "It was first incorporated in 1936 , and later reincorporated in 1940.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. <hl> It was first incorporated in 1936 , and later reincorporated in 1940. <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in <hl> 1936 <hl>, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "It was first incorporated in <hl> 1936 <hl> , and later reincorporated in 1940."}
{"question": "When was South Tucson reincorporated?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "1940", "sentence": "It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940 .", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. <hl> It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940 . <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in <hl> 1940 <hl>. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in <hl> 1940 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How large is South Tucson?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "1 sq mi (2.6 km2)", "sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2) , completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2) , completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. <hl> South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of <hl> 1 sq mi (2.6 km2) <hl>, completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of <hl> 1 sq mi (2.6 km2) <hl> , completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown."}
{"question": "How much of South Tucson is Mexican-American?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "83%", "sentence": "The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. <hl> South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about <hl> 83% <hl> Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "The population consists of about <hl> 83% <hl> Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents."}
{"question": "How much of South Tucson is Native American?", "paragraph": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "answer": "10%", "sentence": "The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents.", "paragraph_sentence": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. <hl> The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. <hl> South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "paragraph_answer": "South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and <hl> 10% <hl> Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.", "sentence_answer": "The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and <hl> 10% <hl> Native American residents."}
{"question": "What interstate is the West side west of?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "I-10", "sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10 . <hl> Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of <hl> I-10 <hl>. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of <hl> I-10 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the name of the movie set in Old West Tuscon?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "Old Tucson Studios", "sentence": "the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and <hl> the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the <hl> Old Tucson Studios <hl> movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "the <hl> Old Tucson Studios <hl> movie set/theme park."}
{"question": "What is the name of the national park in Old West Tuscon?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "Saguaro National Park West", "sentence": "A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West , the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". <hl> A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West , the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including <hl> Saguaro National Park West <hl>, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including <hl> Saguaro National Park West <hl> , the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park."}
{"question": "What is the museum in Old West Tuscon?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum", "sentence": "A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum , and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". <hl> A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum , and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the <hl> Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum <hl>, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the <hl> Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum <hl> , and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park."}
{"question": "The Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa is located where?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "Starr Pass", "sentence": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. <hl> Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. <hl> Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott <hl> Starr Pass <hl> Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott <hl> Starr Pass <hl> Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass."}
{"question": "What part of Tucson is considered the West Side?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "the area west of I-10", "sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10 . <hl> Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as <hl> the area west of I-10 <hl>. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as <hl> the area west of I-10 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What museum is in Western Tucson?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "International Wildlife Museum", "sentence": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum , Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. <hl> Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum , Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. <hl> Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the <hl> International Wildlife Museum <hl>, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the <hl> International Wildlife Museum <hl> , Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass."}
{"question": "What resort is in Western Tucson?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa", "sentence": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa , located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. <hl> Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa , located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. <hl> Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the <hl> Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa <hl>, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the <hl> Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa <hl> , located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass."}
{"question": "What neighborhood is the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa in?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "Starr Pass", "sentence": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. <hl> Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. <hl> Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott <hl> Starr Pass <hl> Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott <hl> Starr Pass <hl> Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass."}
{"question": "What theme park is in Old West Tucson?", "paragraph": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "answer": "Old Tucson Studios", "sentence": "the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.", "paragraph_sentence": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and <hl> the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as \"west of\" Tucson or \"Old West Tucson\". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the <hl> Old Tucson Studios <hl> movie set/theme park.", "sentence_answer": "the <hl> Old Tucson Studios <hl> movie set/theme park."}
{"question": "What else is Sentinel Peak also known as?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "'A' Mountain", "sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \" 'A' Mountain \"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On Sentinel Peak (also known as \" 'A' Mountain \"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. <hl> Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"<hl> 'A' Mountain <hl>\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \" <hl> 'A' Mountain <hl> \"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona."}
{"question": "What is the giant letter downtown in honor of?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "University of Arizona", "sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona . <hl> Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the <hl> University of Arizona <hl>. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the <hl> University of Arizona <hl> ."}
{"question": "What year did the tradition of freshmen whitewashing the \"A\" begin?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "1916", "sentence": "Starting in about 1916 , a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles.", "paragraph_sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. <hl> Starting in about 1916 , a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. <hl> However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about <hl> 1916 <hl>, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "Starting in about <hl> 1916 <hl> , a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles."}
{"question": "during the Iraq war, what color did anti-war activists paint the \"A\"?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "black", "sentence": "However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black .", "paragraph_sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. <hl> However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black . <hl> This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it <hl> black <hl>. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it <hl> black <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who intervened when the \"A\" was painted various colors?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "city council", "sentence": "This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened.", "paragraph_sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. <hl> This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. <hl> It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the <hl> city council <hl> intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the <hl> city council <hl> intervened."}
{"question": "Why is there a giant letter A on a Tucson mountain?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "in honor of the University of Arizona", "sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona . <hl> Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" <hl> in honor of the University of Arizona <hl>. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" <hl> in honor of the University of Arizona <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is there a giant letter A on a Tucson mountain?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown", "sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown , there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown , there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. <hl> Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown <hl>, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown <hl> , there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona."}
{"question": "What color did college freshmen paint the A?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "white", "sentence": "Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to white wash the \"A\", which was visible for miles.", "paragraph_sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. <hl> Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to white wash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. <hl> However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to <hl> white <hl>wash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to <hl> white <hl> wash the \"A\", which was visible for miles."}
{"question": "What color did Iraq War protesters paint the A?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "black", "sentence": "However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black .", "paragraph_sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. <hl> However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black . <hl> This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it <hl> black <hl>. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it <hl> black <hl> ."}
{"question": "How did City Council decide to paint the A?", "paragraph": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "answer": "red, white and blue", "sentence": "It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election.", "paragraph_sentence": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. <hl> It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. <hl> Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "paragraph_answer": "On Sentinel Peak (also known as \"'A' Mountain\"), just west of downtown, there is a giant \"A\" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the \"A\", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the \"A\" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now <hl> red, white and blue <hl> except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.", "sentence_answer": "It is now <hl> red, white and blue <hl> except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election."}
{"question": "What is the Foothills west of?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "Sabino Creek", "sentence": "The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek .", "paragraph_sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. <hl> The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek . <hl> Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of <hl> Sabino Creek <hl>. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of <hl> Sabino Creek <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where are some of the major resorts of Tuscon?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "Catalina Foothills", "sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. <hl> This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of <hl> Catalina Foothills <hl>, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of <hl> Catalina Foothills <hl> , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits."}
{"question": "What is La Encantada?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "upscale outdoor shopping mall", "sentence": "La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall , is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. <hl> La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall , is also in the Foothills. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an <hl> upscale outdoor shopping mall <hl>, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "La Encantada, an <hl> upscale outdoor shopping mall <hl> , is also in the Foothills."}
{"question": "What is the Foothills east of?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "Oracle Road", "sentence": "The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road , and west of Sabino Creek.", "paragraph_sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. <hl> The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road , and west of Sabino Creek. <hl> Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of <hl> Oracle Road <hl>, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of <hl> Oracle Road <hl> , and west of Sabino Creek."}
{"question": "What community is north of Tucson's city limits?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "Catalina Foothills", "sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. <hl> This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of <hl> Catalina Foothills <hl>, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of <hl> Catalina Foothills <hl> , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits."}
{"question": "Where are the most expensive homes in the Tucson metro area?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "Catalina Foothills", "sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. <hl> This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of <hl> Catalina Foothills <hl>, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of <hl> Catalina Foothills <hl> , located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits."}
{"question": "What is the southern edge of the Catalina Foothills area?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "River Road", "sentence": "The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road , east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek.", "paragraph_sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. <hl> The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road , east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. <hl> Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of <hl> River Road <hl>, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "The Foothills area is generally defined as north of <hl> River Road <hl> , east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek."}
{"question": "What outdoor mall is in Catalina Foothills?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "La Encantada", "sentence": "La Encantada , an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. <hl> La Encantada , an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. <hl> La Encantada <hl>, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> La Encantada <hl> , an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills."}
{"question": "Which big resorts are in Catalina Foothills?", "paragraph": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "answer": "Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort", "sentence": "Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort .", "paragraph_sentence": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. <hl> Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort . <hl> La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "paragraph_answer": "Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the <hl> Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort <hl>. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.", "sentence_answer": "Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the <hl> Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many residents live in the master-planned communities?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "thousands", "sentence": "Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where <hl> thousands <hl> of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where <hl> thousands <hl> of residents live."}
{"question": "Which town is Rancho Vistoso located?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "Oro Valley", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of <hl> Oro Valley <hl> in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of <hl> Oro Valley <hl> in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "What mountains is Oro Valley next to?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "Santa Catalina Mountains", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains , and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains , and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the <hl> Santa Catalina Mountains <hl>, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the <hl> Santa Catalina Mountains <hl> , and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "Which town would you find Dove Mountain and Continental Ranch?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "Marana", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of <hl> Marana <hl>, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of <hl> Marana <hl> , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "Where is Oro Valley?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains , and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains , and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley <hl> in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains <hl>, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley <hl> in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains <hl> , and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "Where is the Continental Ranch planned community?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "Marana", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of <hl> Marana <hl>, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of <hl> Marana <hl> , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "Where is the Dove Mountain planned community?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "Marana", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of <hl> Marana <hl>, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of <hl> Marana <hl> , the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "Where is the Rancho Vistoso planned community?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "Oro Valley", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of <hl> Oro Valley <hl> in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of <hl> Oro Valley <hl> in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "Which direction from Tucson is Picture Rocks?", "paragraph": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "answer": "northwest", "sentence": "The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. <hl> Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "paragraph_answer": "The expansive area <hl> northwest <hl> of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.", "sentence_answer": "The expansive area <hl> northwest <hl> of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains."}
{"question": "What is considered Tuscon's first suburb?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "Casas Adobes", "sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. <hl> Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of <hl> Casas Adobes <hl> is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "The community of <hl> Casas Adobes <hl> is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s."}
{"question": "When was the Casas Adobes Plaza established?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "1948", "sentence": "Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948 ).", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. <hl> Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948 ). <hl> Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in <hl> 1948 <hl>). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in <hl> 1948 <hl> )."}
{"question": "What representative was almost assassinated at the La Toscana Village?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "Gabrielle Giffords", "sentence": "The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords , and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. <hl> The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords , and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. <hl> The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative <hl> Gabrielle Giffords <hl>, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "The attempted assassination of Representative <hl> Gabrielle Giffords <hl> , and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes."}
{"question": "What nature preserve is in Casas Adobes?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "Tohono Chul Park", "sentence": "Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road.", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). <hl> Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. <hl> The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to <hl> Tohono Chul Park <hl> (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "Casas Adobes is also home to <hl> Tohono Chul Park <hl> (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road."}
{"question": "What mall is located in Casas Adobes?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "Foothills Mall", "sentence": "The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. <hl> The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The <hl> Foothills Mall <hl> is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Foothills Mall <hl> is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes."}
{"question": "When was the Casas Adobes Plaza built?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "1948", "sentence": "Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948 ).", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. <hl> Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948 ). <hl> Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in <hl> 1948 <hl>). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in <hl> 1948 <hl> )."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's first suburb?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "Casas Adobes", "sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. <hl> Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of <hl> Casas Adobes <hl> is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "The community of <hl> Casas Adobes <hl> is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s."}
{"question": "Where is Tohono Chul Park?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road", "sentence": "Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road .", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). <hl> Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road . <hl> The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) <hl> near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road <hl>. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) <hl> near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was nearly assassinated in Casas Adobes?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "Representative Gabrielle Giffords", "sentence": "The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords , and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. <hl> The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords , and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. <hl> The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of <hl> Representative Gabrielle Giffords <hl>, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "The attempted assassination of <hl> Representative Gabrielle Giffords <hl> , and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes."}
{"question": "What was John Roll's job title?", "paragraph": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "answer": "chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona", "sentence": "The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona , John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. <hl> The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona , John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. <hl> The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "paragraph_answer": "The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of <hl> chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona <hl>, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.", "sentence_answer": "The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of <hl> chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona <hl> , John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes."}
{"question": "What park was developed between the 1950's and 1970's?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "Desert Palms Park", "sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park . <hl> It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as <hl> Desert Palms Park <hl>. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as <hl> Desert Palms Park <hl> ."}
{"question": "What park is in East Tuscon?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "Saguaro National Park East", "sentence": "East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East .", "paragraph_sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. <hl> East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East . <hl> Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes <hl> Saguaro National Park East <hl>. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "East Tucson includes <hl> Saguaro National Park East <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which estates were named after a ranch of a famous author?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "Harold Bell Wright Estates", "sentence": "Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates , named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club.", "paragraph_sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. <hl> Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates , named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. <hl> Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: <hl> Harold Bell Wright Estates <hl>, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: <hl> Harold Bell Wright Estates <hl> , named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club."}
{"question": "What year was Tuscon's largest office building built?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "1975", "sentence": "Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975 .", "paragraph_sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. <hl> Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975 . <hl> The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in <hl> 1975 <hl>. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in <hl> 1975 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What shopping center is located along Broadway?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "Park Place", "sentence": "Park Place , a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. <hl> Park Place , a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. <hl> Park Place <hl>, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Park Place <hl> , a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road)."}
{"question": "What part of Tucson is Saguaro National Park East in?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "East", "sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. <hl> It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> East <hl> Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> East <hl> Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park."}
{"question": "When was East Tucson developed?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "between the 1950s and the 1970s", "sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s ,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s ,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. <hl> It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed <hl> between the 1950s and the 1970s <hl>,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed <hl> between the 1950s and the 1970s <hl> ,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park."}
{"question": "What is the boundary of East Tucson?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "Swan Road", "sentence": "It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road , with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. <hl> It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road , with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. <hl> The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of <hl> Swan Road <hl>, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "It is generally classified as the area of the city east of <hl> Swan Road <hl> , with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city."}
{"question": "What is the biggest office building in Tucson?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "5151 East Broadway", "sentence": "Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975.", "paragraph_sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. <hl> Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. <hl> The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is <hl> 5151 East Broadway <hl> in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's largest office building is <hl> 5151 East Broadway <hl> in east Tucson, completed in 1975."}
{"question": "Where is Park Place?", "paragraph": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).", "answer": "along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road)", "sentence": "Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road) .", "paragraph_sentence": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. <hl> Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road) . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's \"Restaurant Row\" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located <hl> along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road) <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located <hl> along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road) <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who bought The sanitarium in 1928?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "Harvey Adkins", "sentence": "The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928.", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. <hl> The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. <hl> The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to <hl> Harvey Adkins <hl> in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "The sanitarium was then sold to <hl> Harvey Adkins <hl> in 1928."}
{"question": "What year where three officer building bought and used for a sanitarium?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "1900", "sentence": "In 1900 , three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium.", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. <hl> In 1900 , three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. <hl> The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In <hl> 1900 <hl>, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1900 <hl> , three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium."}
{"question": "Jack Kerouac authored what iconic book?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "On the Road", "sentence": "The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road .", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. <hl> The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road . <hl> This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book <hl> On the Road <hl>. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book <hl> On the Road <hl> ."}
{"question": "Alan Harrington is considered part of what generation?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "beat generation", "sentence": "The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road.", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. <hl> The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. <hl> This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including <hl> beat generation <hl> Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "The artist colony attracted writers and poets including <hl> beat generation <hl> Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road."}
{"question": "Which month does the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "February", "sentence": "Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. <hl> Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in <hl> February <hl> the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "Each year in <hl> February <hl> the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel."}
{"question": "When was Fort Lowell shut down?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "1891", "sentence": "In 1891 , the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin.", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. <hl> In 1891 , the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. <hl> In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In <hl> 1891 <hl>, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1891 <hl> , the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin."}
{"question": "What were some buildings of Fort Lowell bought to be used for in 1900?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "a sanitarium", "sentence": "In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium .", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. <hl> In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium . <hl> The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as <hl> a sanitarium <hl>. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as <hl> a sanitarium <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who bought the Fort Lowell sanitarium in 1928?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "Harvey Adkins", "sentence": "The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928.", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. <hl> The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. <hl> The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to <hl> Harvey Adkins <hl> in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "The sanitarium was then sold to <hl> Harvey Adkins <hl> in 1928."}
{"question": "Who renovated Fort Lowell's adobe buildings?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius", "sentence": "The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples.", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. <hl> The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. <hl> Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. <hl> The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius <hl> purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius <hl> purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples."}
{"question": "In what book did Jack Kerouac write about visiting Tucson?", "paragraph": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "answer": "On the Road", "sentence": "The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road .", "paragraph_sentence": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. <hl> The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road . <hl> This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "paragraph_answer": "Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort \u2013 transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book <hl> On the Road <hl>. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.", "sentence_answer": "The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book <hl> On the Road <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is a great place to bird watch in Southeast Tuscon?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "The Atterbury Wash", "sentence": "The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area.", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. <hl> The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. <hl> The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. <hl> The Atterbury Wash <hl> with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Atterbury Wash <hl> with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area."}
{"question": "Where do a lot of the families from Davis-Monthan Air Force Base live at?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Rita Ranch", "sentence": "The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits.", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. <hl> The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. <hl> Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of <hl> Rita Ranch <hl> houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "The suburban community of <hl> Rita Ranch <hl> houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits."}
{"question": "Rita Ranch also has a planned development called what?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Civano", "sentence": "Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano , a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. <hl> Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano , a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies <hl> Civano <hl>, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies <hl> Civano <hl> , a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles."}
{"question": "What is the name of the lake in Southeast Tuscon?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Lakeside Lake", "sentence": "It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake , Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. <hl> It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake , Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. <hl> The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), <hl> Lakeside Lake <hl>, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), <hl> Lakeside Lake <hl> , Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus."}
{"question": "What is the name of the High School in the area of Southeast Tuscon?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Santa Rita High School", "sentence": "It is the home of Santa Rita High School , Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. <hl> It is the home of Santa Rita High School , Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. <hl> The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of <hl> Santa Rita High School <hl>, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "It is the home of <hl> Santa Rita High School <hl> , Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus."}
{"question": "What Air Force base is in Tucson?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Davis-Monthan Air Force Base", "sentence": "The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base .", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. <hl> The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base . <hl> The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes <hl> Davis-Monthan Air Force Base <hl>. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "The area includes <hl> Davis-Monthan Air Force Base <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the alternate name of Chuck Ford Park?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Lakeside Park", "sentence": "It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park ( Lakeside Park ), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. <hl> It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park ( Lakeside Park ), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. <hl> The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (<hl> Lakeside Park <hl>), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park ( <hl> Lakeside Park <hl> ), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus."}
{"question": "What community college is in southeast Tucson?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Pima Community College East Campus", "sentence": "It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus .", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. <hl> It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus . <hl> The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and <hl> Pima Community College East Campus <hl>. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and <hl> Pima Community College East Campus <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where do many Air Force families live?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "Rita Ranch", "sentence": "The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits.", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. <hl> The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. <hl> Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of <hl> Rita Ranch <hl> houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "sentence_answer": "The suburban community of <hl> Rita Ranch <hl> houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits."}
{"question": "What is the goal of Civano?", "paragraph": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.", "answer": "showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles", "sentence": "Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles .", "paragraph_sentence": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. <hl> Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to <hl> showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to <hl> showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many miles is Catalina Highway?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "25", "sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. <hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches <hl> 25 <hl> miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches <hl> 25 <hl> miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing."}
{"question": "What town is near the top of Mt. Lemmon?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "Summerhaven", "sentence": "Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven .", "paragraph_sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. <hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven . <hl> In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of <hl> Summerhaven <hl>. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of <hl> Summerhaven <hl> ."}
{"question": "What area has a ski lift?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "Ski Valley", "sentence": "Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. <hl> Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to <hl> Ski Valley <hl> which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "Near Summerhaven is the road to <hl> Ski Valley <hl> which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant."}
{"question": "What two winter sports would you do at the mountain range?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "snowboarding and skiing", "sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing . <hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime <hl> snowboarding and skiing <hl>. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime <hl> snowboarding and skiing <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long is Catalina Highway?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "25 miles (40 km)", "sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. <hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches <hl> 25 miles (40 km) <hl> and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches <hl> 25 miles (40 km) <hl> and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing."}
{"question": "What activities are popular in the mountains of Tucson?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing", "sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing . <hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for <hl> cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing <hl>. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for <hl> cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where is Summerhaven?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "Near the top of Mt. Lemmon", "sentence": "Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven.", "paragraph_sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. <hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. <hl> In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. <hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon <hl> is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Near the top of Mt. Lemmon <hl> is the town of Summerhaven."}
{"question": "What is in Ski Valley?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant", "sentence": "Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant .", "paragraph_sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. <hl> Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts <hl> a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts <hl> a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is in Summerhaven?", "paragraph": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "answer": "log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails", "sentence": "In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails .", "paragraph_sentence": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. <hl> In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails . <hl> Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "paragraph_answer": "Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find <hl> log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails <hl>. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.", "sentence_answer": "In Summerhaven, visitors will find <hl> log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails <hl> ."}
{"question": "What kind of climate is Tuscon?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "desert", "sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. <hl> Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a <hl> desert <hl> climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson has a <hl> desert <hl> climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon."}
{"question": "What other city is similar to Tuscon in precipitation and climate?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "Alice Springs", "sentence": "A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs , Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs , Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in <hl> Alice Springs <hl>, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "A similar scenario is seen in <hl> Alice Springs <hl> , Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate."}
{"question": "What is the average amount of yearly precipitation in Tuscon in inches?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "11.8", "sentence": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. <hl> Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages <hl> 11.8 <hl> inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson averages <hl> 11.8 <hl> inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water."}
{"question": "What does Tuscon have more than most desert climates?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "precipitation", "sentence": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. <hl> Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of <hl> precipitation <hl> per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of <hl> precipitation <hl> per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water."}
{"question": "What does Tuscon have a high net loss of?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "water", "sentence": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. <hl> Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water . <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of <hl> water <hl>. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of <hl> water <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's climate type?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "desert", "sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. <hl> Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a <hl> desert <hl> climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson has a <hl> desert <hl> climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon."}
{"question": "How much rain does Tucson get each year?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "11.8 inches (299.7 mm)", "sentence": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. <hl> Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages <hl> 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) <hl> of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson averages <hl> 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) <hl> of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water."}
{"question": "What is evapotranspiration?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "net loss of water", "sentence": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. <hl> Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water . <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high <hl> net loss of water <hl>. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high <hl> net loss of water <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which Australian town has a similar climate as Tucson?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "Alice Springs", "sentence": "A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs , Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs , Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in <hl> Alice Springs <hl>, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "A similar scenario is seen in <hl> Alice Springs <hl> , Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate."}
{"question": "What is Alice Springs's average rainfall?", "paragraph": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "answer": "11 inches (279.4 mm)", "sentence": "A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. <hl> A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has a desert climate (K\u00f6ppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages <hl> 11 inches (279.4 mm) <hl> a year, but has a desert climate.", "sentence_answer": "A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages <hl> 11 inches (279.4 mm) <hl> a year, but has a desert climate."}
{"question": "What year did the \"Stupid Motorist Law\" come in effect?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "1995", "sentence": "Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways.", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. <hl> Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. <hl> If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in <hl> 1995 <hl> to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in <hl> 1995 <hl> to discourage people from entering flooded roadways."}
{"question": "A monsoon can last into what month?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "September", "sentence": "It typically continues through August and sometimes into September .", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. <hl> It typically continues through August and sometimes into September . <hl> During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into <hl> September <hl>. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "It typically continues through August and sometimes into <hl> September <hl> ."}
{"question": "How much can a motorist be charged for needing to be rescued after ignoring safety precautions?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "2000", "sentence": "If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $ 2000 for costs involved in rescuing them.", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. <hl> If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $ 2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. <hl> Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $<hl> 2000 <hl> for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $ <hl> 2000 <hl> for costs involved in rescuing them."}
{"question": "What could you say is the average start for a monsoon?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "July 3", "sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3 . <hl> It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around <hl> July 3 <hl>. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around <hl> July 3 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is usually higher during a monsoon compared throughout the rest of the year?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "humidity", "sentence": "During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year.", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. <hl> During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. <hl> It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the <hl> humidity <hl> is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "During the monsoon, the <hl> humidity <hl> is much higher than the rest of the year."}
{"question": "When was the \"Stupid Motorist Law\" passed?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "1995", "sentence": "Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways.", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. <hl> Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. <hl> If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in <hl> 1995 <hl> to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in <hl> 1995 <hl> to discourage people from entering flooded roadways."}
{"question": "What is the legal name of the \"Stupid Motorist Law\"?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "Arizona traffic code Title 28-910", "sentence": "Arizona traffic code Title 28-910 , the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways.", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. <hl> Arizona traffic code Title 28-910 , the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. <hl> If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. <hl> Arizona traffic code Title 28-910 <hl>, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Arizona traffic code Title 28-910 <hl> , the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways."}
{"question": "How much can the \"Stupid Motorist Law\" charge people for being rescued?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "up to $2000", "sentence": "If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them.", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. <hl> If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. <hl> Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged <hl> up to $2000 <hl> for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged <hl> up to $2000 <hl> for costs involved in rescuing them."}
{"question": "When does Tucson's monsoon usually start?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "around July 3", "sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3 . <hl> It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date <hl> around July 3 <hl>. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date <hl> around July 3 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long does Tucson's monsoon last?", "paragraph": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "answer": "through August and sometimes into September", "sentence": "It typically continues through August and sometimes into September .", "paragraph_sentence": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. <hl> It typically continues through August and sometimes into September . <hl> During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues <hl> through August and sometimes into September <hl>. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have \"feet of water\" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called \"Stupid Motorist Law\", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.", "sentence_answer": "It typically continues <hl> through August and sometimes into September <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are Tucson's typical winter high temperatures?", "paragraph": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "answer": "between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C)", "sentence": "Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C) , with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C).", "paragraph_sentence": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. <hl> Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C) , with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). <hl> Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "paragraph_answer": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range <hl> between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C) <hl>, with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "sentence_answer": "Daytime highs in the winter range <hl> between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C) <hl> , with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C)."}
{"question": "What are Tucson's typical winter low temperatures?", "paragraph": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "answer": "between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C)", "sentence": "Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C) .", "paragraph_sentence": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. <hl> Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C) . <hl> Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "paragraph_answer": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows <hl> between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C) <hl>. Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "sentence_answer": "Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows <hl> between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C) <hl> ."}
{"question": "What do Tucson's hard freeze temperatures dip to?", "paragraph": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "answer": "the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C)", "sentence": "Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C) , but this is typically limited to only a very few nights.", "paragraph_sentence": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). <hl> Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C) , but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. <hl> Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "paragraph_answer": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to <hl> the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C) <hl>, but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to <hl> the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C) <hl> , but this is typically limited to only a very few nights."}
{"question": "How much snow did Tucson get on Feb 20, 2013?", "paragraph": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "answer": "2.0 inches", "sentence": "The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "paragraph_sentence": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. <hl> The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when <hl> 2.0 inches <hl> of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "sentence_answer": "The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when <hl> 2.0 inches <hl> of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987."}
{"question": "When had Tucson last had as much snow as 2013?", "paragraph": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.", "answer": "1987", "sentence": "The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. <hl> The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 \u00b0F (18 and 24 \u00b0C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 \u00b0F (\u22121 and 7 \u00b0C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (\u22127 to \u22124 \u00b0C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since <hl> 1987 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since <hl> 1987 <hl> ."}
{"question": "On what two occasions was Tucson's record high?", "paragraph": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "answer": "June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995", "sentence": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995 , and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995 , and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. <hl> There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "paragraph_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on <hl> June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995 <hl>, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "sentence_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on <hl> June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995 <hl> , and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's record high?", "paragraph": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "answer": "115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C)", "sentence": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. <hl> There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "paragraph_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was <hl> 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) <hl> on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "sentence_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was <hl> 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) <hl> on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's record low?", "paragraph": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "answer": "6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C)", "sentence": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. <hl> There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "paragraph_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was <hl> 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) <hl> on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "sentence_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was <hl> 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) <hl> on January 7, 1913."}
{"question": "When was Tucson's record low?", "paragraph": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "answer": "January 7, 1913", "sentence": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913 . <hl> There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "paragraph_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on <hl> January 7, 1913 <hl>. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "sentence_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on <hl> January 7, 1913 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was Tucson's wettest year?", "paragraph": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "answer": "1905", "sentence": "The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm).", "paragraph_sentence": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. <hl> The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). <hl> The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "paragraph_answer": "At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 \u00b0F (46 \u00b0C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 \u00b0F (\u221214 \u00b0C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was <hl> 1905 <hl> with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.", "sentence_answer": "The wettest year was <hl> 1905 <hl> with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm)."}
{"question": "In what month did Tucson get the most rain?", "paragraph": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "answer": "August 1955", "sentence": "The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955 .", "paragraph_sentence": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). <hl> The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955 . <hl> The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "paragraph_answer": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in <hl> August 1955 <hl>. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "sentence_answer": "The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in <hl> August 1955 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Tucson get the most rain in 24 hours?", "paragraph": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "answer": "July 29, 1958", "sentence": "The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958 .", "paragraph_sentence": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. <hl> The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958 . <hl> Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "paragraph_answer": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on <hl> July 29, 1958 <hl>. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "sentence_answer": "The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on <hl> July 29, 1958 <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what month did Tucson get the most snow?", "paragraph": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "answer": "December 1971", "sentence": "The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971 .", "paragraph_sentence": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. <hl> The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in <hl> December 1971 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in <hl> December 1971 <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what year did Tucson get the most rain?", "paragraph": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "answer": "1983", "sentence": "The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm).", "paragraph_sentence": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. <hl> The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). <hl> The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "paragraph_answer": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was <hl> 1983 <hl> with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "sentence_answer": "The wettest year was <hl> 1983 <hl> with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm)."}
{"question": "In what year did Tucson get the least rain?", "paragraph": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "answer": "1953", "sentence": "The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm).", "paragraph_sentence": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. <hl> The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). <hl> The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "paragraph_answer": "At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 \u00b0F (47 \u00b0C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 \u00b0F (\u22129 \u00b0C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 \u00b0F (32 \u00b0C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was <hl> 1953 <hl> with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.", "sentence_answer": "The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was <hl> 1953 <hl> with 5.34 in (136 mm)."}
{"question": "How many households are there in Tucson as of 2010?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "answer": "229,762", "sentence": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. <hl> The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, <hl> 229,762 <hl> households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "sentence_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, <hl> 229,762 <hl> households, and 112,455 families residing in the city."}
{"question": "How many families are there in Tucson as of 2010?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "answer": "112,455", "sentence": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. <hl> The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and <hl> 112,455 <hl> families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "sentence_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and <hl> 112,455 <hl> families residing in the city."}
{"question": "How many residents are there in Tucson as of 2010?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "answer": "520,116", "sentence": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. <hl> The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were <hl> 520,116 <hl> people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "sentence_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were <hl> 520,116 <hl> people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city."}
{"question": "How many people per square mile are there in Tucson?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "answer": "2,500.1", "sentence": "The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2).", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. <hl> The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). <hl> There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was <hl> 2,500.1 <hl> inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "sentence_answer": "The population density was <hl> 2,500.1 <hl> inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2)."}
{"question": "How much of Tucson was non-Hispanic Whites in 1970?", "paragraph": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "answer": "72.8%", "sentence": "Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. <hl> Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km\u00b2). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km\u00b2). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from <hl> 72.8% <hl> in 1970.", "sentence_answer": "Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from <hl> 72.8% <hl> in 1970."}
{"question": "What is the second-largest employer in Tucson?", "paragraph": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "answer": "University of Arizona", "sentence": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona , which is currently the second largest employer in the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona , which is currently the second largest employer in the city. <hl> Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "paragraph_answer": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the <hl> University of Arizona <hl>, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "sentence_answer": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the <hl> University of Arizona <hl> , which is currently the second largest employer in the city."}
{"question": "Where is the US Army Intelligence Center?", "paragraph": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "answer": "Sierra Vista", "sentence": "Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista ), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area.", "paragraph_sentence": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. <hl> Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista ), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. <hl> The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "paragraph_answer": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby <hl> Sierra Vista <hl>), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "sentence_answer": "Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby <hl> Sierra Vista <hl> ), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area."}
{"question": "What railroad route passes through Tucson?", "paragraph": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "answer": "Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route", "sentence": "The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. <hl> The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the <hl> Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route <hl> that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "sentence_answer": "The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the <hl> Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route <hl> that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country."}
{"question": "Where does the Sunset Route connect to the west coast?", "paragraph": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "answer": "Los Angeles ports", "sentence": "The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. <hl> The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the <hl> Los Angeles ports <hl> with the South/Southeast regions of the country.", "sentence_answer": "The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the <hl> Los Angeles ports <hl> with the South/Southeast regions of the country."}
{"question": "What was Raytheon previously called?", "paragraph": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "answer": "Hughes Aircraft Co.", "sentence": "Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co. ), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. <hl> Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co. ), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. <hl> Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "paragraph_answer": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly <hl> Hughes Aircraft Co. <hl>), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "sentence_answer": "Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly <hl> Hughes Aircraft Co. <hl> ), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson."}
{"question": "What drug company has a major presence in Tucson?", "paragraph": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "answer": "Sanofi-Aventis", "sentence": "Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis , Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. <hl> Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis , Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. <hl> Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "paragraph_answer": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, <hl> Sanofi-Aventis <hl>, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "sentence_answer": "Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, <hl> Sanofi-Aventis <hl> , Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson."}
{"question": "How many optics-related companies are in Tucson?", "paragraph": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "answer": "150", "sentence": "Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "paragraph_sentence": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. <hl> Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly <hl> 150 <hl> Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "sentence_answer": "Roughly <hl> 150 <hl> Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\"."}
{"question": "What do the 'Optics Valley' companies do?", "paragraph": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "answer": "design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems", "sentence": "Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems , earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "paragraph_sentence": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. <hl> Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems , earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the <hl> design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems <hl>, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "sentence_answer": "Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the <hl> design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems <hl> , earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\"."}
{"question": "What accounting software company has a major presence in Tucson?", "paragraph": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "answer": "Intuit Inc.", "sentence": "Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc. , Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson.", "paragraph_sentence": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. <hl> Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc. , Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. <hl> Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "paragraph_answer": "The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, <hl> Intuit Inc. <hl>, Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname \"Optics Valley\".", "sentence_answer": "Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, <hl> Intuit Inc. <hl> , Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson."}
{"question": "When did the Tucson Festival of Books begin?", "paragraph": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "answer": "2009", "sentence": "Since 2009 , the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Since 2009 , the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. <hl> By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "paragraph_answer": "Since <hl> 2009 <hl>, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "sentence_answer": "Since <hl> 2009 <hl> , the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona."}
{"question": "When is the Tucson Festival of Books held?", "paragraph": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "answer": "a two-day period in March", "sentence": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. <hl> By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "paragraph_answer": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over <hl> a two-day period in March <hl> at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "sentence_answer": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over <hl> a two-day period in March <hl> at the University of Arizona."}
{"question": "How many people came to the Tucson Festival of Books in 2010?", "paragraph": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "answer": "80,000", "sentence": "By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees.", "paragraph_sentence": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. <hl> By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. <hl> In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "paragraph_answer": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and <hl> 80,000 <hl> attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "sentence_answer": "By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and <hl> 80,000 <hl> attendees."}
{"question": "What award did the Tucson Festival of Books give to R. L. Stine?", "paragraph": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "answer": "Founder's Award", "sentence": "a Founder's Award ; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "paragraph_sentence": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting <hl> a Founder's Award ; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a <hl> Founder's Award <hl>; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> Founder's Award <hl> ; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine."}
{"question": "When is the Tucson Folk Festival held?", "paragraph": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "answer": "the first Saturday and Sunday of May", "sentence": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. <hl> In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "paragraph_answer": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place <hl> the first Saturday and Sunday of May <hl> in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "sentence_answer": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place <hl> the first Saturday and Sunday of May <hl> in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park."}
{"question": "Where is the Tucson Folk Festival held?", "paragraph": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "answer": "El Presidio Park", "sentence": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park . <hl> In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "paragraph_answer": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's <hl> El Presidio Park <hl>. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "sentence_answer": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's <hl> El Presidio Park <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many performers are in the Tucson Folk Festival?", "paragraph": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "answer": "over 100", "sentence": "In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. <hl> In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. <hl> All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "paragraph_answer": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights <hl> over 100 <hl> local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "sentence_answer": "In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights <hl> over 100 <hl> local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country."}
{"question": "How much does the Tucson Folk Festival cost to get in?", "paragraph": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "answer": "free", "sentence": "In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. <hl> In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. <hl> All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "paragraph_answer": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest <hl> free <hl> festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "sentence_answer": "In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest <hl> free <hl> festivals in the country."}
{"question": "Who runs the Tucson Folk Festival?", "paragraph": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "answer": "Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association", "sentence": "Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association , volunteers make this festival possible.", "paragraph_sentence": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. <hl> Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association , volunteers make this festival possible. <hl> KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "paragraph_answer": "For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the <hl> Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association <hl>, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.", "sentence_answer": "Organized by the <hl> Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association <hl> , volunteers make this festival possible."}
{"question": "What season is February in Tucson?", "paragraph": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "answer": "spring", "sentence": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. <hl> While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "paragraph_answer": "Another popular event held in February, which is early <hl> spring <hl> in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "sentence_answer": "Another popular event held in February, which is early <hl> spring <hl> in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer."}
{"question": "What is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros?", "paragraph": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "answer": "rodeo week", "sentence": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week , founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week , founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. <hl> While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "paragraph_answer": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or <hl> rodeo week <hl>, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "sentence_answer": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or <hl> rodeo week <hl> , founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer."}
{"question": "What month is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros held in?", "paragraph": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "answer": "February", "sentence": "Another popular event held in February , which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another popular event held in February , which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. <hl> While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "paragraph_answer": "Another popular event held in <hl> February <hl>, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "sentence_answer": "Another popular event held in <hl> February <hl> , which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer."}
{"question": "Who started the Fiesta de los Vaqueros?", "paragraph": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "answer": "Leighton Kramer", "sentence": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer . <hl> While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "paragraph_answer": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, <hl> Leighton Kramer <hl>. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "sentence_answer": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, <hl> Leighton Kramer <hl> ."}
{"question": "How much time do Tucson schools give students off to attend the Fiesta de los Vaqueros?", "paragraph": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "answer": "two rodeo days off", "sentence": "The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day.", "paragraph_sentence": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". <hl> The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. <hl> The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "paragraph_answer": "Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as \"the world's largest non-mechanized parade\". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give <hl> two rodeo days off <hl> instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.", "sentence_answer": "The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give <hl> two rodeo days off <hl> instead of Presidents Day."}
{"question": "What time of day is The Procession?", "paragraph": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "answer": "sundown", "sentence": "The Procession, held at sundown , consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Procession, held at sundown , consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. <hl> The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "paragraph_answer": "The Procession, held at <hl> sundown <hl>, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "sentence_answer": "The Procession, held at <hl> sundown <hl> , consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate."}
{"question": "What is burned at The Procession?", "paragraph": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "answer": "an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators", "sentence": "The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. <hl> The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators . <hl> The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "paragraph_answer": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of <hl> an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators <hl>. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "sentence_answer": "The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of <hl> an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators <hl> ."}
{"question": "What group runs The Procession?", "paragraph": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "answer": "Many Mouths One Stomach", "sentence": "The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach , with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. <hl> The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach , with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization <hl> Many Mouths One Stomach <hl>, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "sentence_answer": "The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization <hl> Many Mouths One Stomach <hl> , with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses."}
{"question": "What kind of group runs The Procession?", "paragraph": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "answer": "non-profit arts organization", "sentence": "The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. <hl> The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the <hl> non-profit arts organization <hl> Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "sentence_answer": "The event is organized and funded by the <hl> non-profit arts organization <hl> Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses."}
{"question": "What kind of parade is The Procession?", "paragraph": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "answer": "non-motorized", "sentence": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. <hl> The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "paragraph_answer": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a <hl> non-motorized <hl> parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.", "sentence_answer": "The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a <hl> non-motorized <hl> parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate."}
{"question": "What famous writers have lived in Tucson?", "paragraph": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "answer": "Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace", "sentence": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace . <hl> Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "paragraph_answer": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include <hl> Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace <hl>. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "sentence_answer": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include <hl> Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the Chax Press?", "paragraph": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "answer": "a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions", "sentence": "Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions , and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "paragraph_sentence": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. <hl> Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions , and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, <hl> a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions <hl>, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "sentence_answer": "Examples are the Chax Press, <hl> a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions <hl> , and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops."}
{"question": "What does the University of Arizona Poetry Center offer?", "paragraph": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "answer": "a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops", "sentence": "Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops .", "paragraph_sentence": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. <hl> Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has <hl> a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has <hl> a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops <hl> ."}
{"question": "What university were some of Tucson's famous writers associated with?", "paragraph": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "answer": "University of Arizona", "sentence": "Some were associated with the University of Arizona , but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home.", "paragraph_sentence": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. <hl> Some were associated with the University of Arizona , but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. <hl> The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "paragraph_answer": "The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the <hl> University of Arizona <hl>, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.", "sentence_answer": "Some were associated with the <hl> University of Arizona <hl> , but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home."}
{"question": "Who is thought to have led to calling Tucson 'The Old Pueblo'?", "paragraph": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "answer": "Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood", "sentence": "While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". <hl> While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood . <hl> When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to <hl> Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood <hl>. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "sentence_answer": "While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to <hl> Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Tucson get a railroad?", "paragraph": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "answer": "March 20, 1880", "sentence": "When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880 , Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. <hl> When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880 , Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. <hl> The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on <hl> March 20, 1880 <hl>, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "sentence_answer": "When rail service was established to the city on <hl> March 20, 1880 <hl> , Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world."}
{"question": "What did Leatherwood call Tucson in a telegram?", "paragraph": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "answer": "\"ancient and honorable pueblo\"", "sentence": "When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. <hl> When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. <hl> The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the <hl> \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" <hl> of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "sentence_answer": "When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the <hl> \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" <hl> of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world."}
{"question": "How did newspapers abbreviate Leatherwood's phrase?", "paragraph": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "answer": "\"A. and H. Pueblo\"", "sentence": "The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\" .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. <hl> The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\" . <hl> This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as <hl> \"A. and H. Pueblo\" <hl>. This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "sentence_answer": "The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as <hl> \"A. and H. Pueblo\" <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who were among the recipients of Leatherwood's telegram?", "paragraph": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "answer": "the President of the United States and the Pope", "sentence": "When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope , announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. <hl> When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope , announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. <hl> The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is commonly known as \"The Old Pueblo\". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. \"Bob\" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including <hl> the President of the United States and the Pope <hl>, announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as \"A. and H. Pueblo\". This in turn transformed into the current form of \"The Old Pueblo\".", "sentence_answer": "When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including <hl> the President of the United States and the Pope <hl> , announcing that the \"ancient and honorable pueblo\" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world."}
{"question": "How many times has the University of Arizona men's basketball team won NCAA tournaments?", "paragraph": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "answer": "25", "sentence": "The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments", "paragraph_sentence": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. <hl> The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments <hl> and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "paragraph_answer": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made <hl> 25 <hl> straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "sentence_answer": "The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made <hl> 25 <hl> straight NCAA Tournaments"}
{"question": "How many times has the University of Arizona women's softball team gone to NCAA National Championships?", "paragraph": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "answer": "12", "sentence": "Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007.", "paragraph_sentence": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. <hl> Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. <hl> The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "paragraph_answer": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game <hl> 12 <hl> times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "sentence_answer": "Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game <hl> 12 <hl> times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007."}
{"question": "How many times has the University of Arizona women's softball team won NCAA National Championships?", "paragraph": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "answer": "8", "sentence": "Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007.", "paragraph_sentence": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. <hl> Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. <hl> The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "paragraph_answer": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won <hl> 8 <hl> times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "sentence_answer": "Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won <hl> 8 <hl> times, most recently in 2007."}
{"question": "Who coaches the University of Arizona's swim team?", "paragraph": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "answer": "Frank Busch", "sentence": "The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years.", "paragraph_sentence": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. <hl> The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. <hl> Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "paragraph_answer": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach <hl> Frank Busch <hl> who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "sentence_answer": "The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach <hl> Frank Busch <hl> who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years."}
{"question": "Who coaches the University of Arizona men's basketball team?", "paragraph": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "answer": "Sean Miller", "sentence": "The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller , has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship.", "paragraph_sentence": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. <hl> The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller , has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. <hl> Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "paragraph_answer": "The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by <hl> Sean Miller <hl>, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.", "sentence_answer": "The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by <hl> Sean Miller <hl> , has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship."}
{"question": "Where did the Tucson Sidewinders move to?", "paragraph": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "answer": "Reno, Nevada", "sentence": "The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. <hl> The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. <hl> They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to <hl> Reno, Nevada <hl> after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "sentence_answer": "The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to <hl> Reno, Nevada <hl> after the 2008 season."}
{"question": "What team played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium in 2011-2013?", "paragraph": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "answer": "Tucson Padres", "sentence": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. <hl> They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> Tucson Padres <hl> played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Tucson Padres <hl> played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013."}
{"question": "Why were the Tucson Padres temporarily in Tucson?", "paragraph": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "answer": "awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido", "sentence": "The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. <hl> The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido . <hl> Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while <hl> awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido <hl>. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "sentence_answer": "The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while <hl> awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where did the Padres move when the Escondido stadium fell through?", "paragraph": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "answer": "El Paso, Texas", "sentence": "Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. <hl> Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. <hl> Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to <hl> El Paso, Texas <hl> for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "sentence_answer": "Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to <hl> El Paso, Texas <hl> for the 2014 season."}
{"question": "What is the new name of the Tucson Sidewinders?", "paragraph": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.", "answer": "Reno Aces", "sentence": "They now compete as the Reno Aces .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. <hl> They now compete as the Reno Aces . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the <hl> Reno Aces <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "They now compete as the <hl> Reno Aces <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where does Tucson hold NASCAR races?", "paragraph": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "answer": "Tucson Raceway Park", "sentence": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. <hl> Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "paragraph_answer": "Tracks include <hl> Tucson Raceway Park <hl> and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "sentence_answer": "Tracks include <hl> Tucson Raceway Park <hl> and Rillito Downs."}
{"question": "What kind of races does Rillito Downs hold?", "paragraph": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "answer": "quarter horse races", "sentence": "This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. <hl> This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. <hl> The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "paragraph_answer": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized <hl> quarter horse races <hl> in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "sentence_answer": "This historic track held the first organized <hl> quarter horse races <hl> in the world, and they are still racing there."}
{"question": "What former Tucson horse racetrack no longer exists?", "paragraph": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "answer": "Moltacqua racetrack", "sentence": "The Moltacqua racetrack , was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. <hl> The Moltacqua racetrack , was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The <hl> Moltacqua racetrack <hl>, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Moltacqua racetrack <hl> , was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists."}
{"question": "What is on the former site of the Moltacqua track now?", "paragraph": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "answer": "Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail", "sentence": "The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail , but it no longer exists.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. <hl> The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail , but it no longer exists. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now <hl> Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail <hl>, but it no longer exists.", "sentence_answer": "The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now <hl> Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail <hl> , but it no longer exists."}
{"question": "How many asphalt short tracks are in Arizona?", "paragraph": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "answer": "two", "sentence": "Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. <hl> Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. <hl> Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "paragraph_answer": "Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only <hl> two <hl> asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only <hl> two <hl> asphalt short tracks in Arizona."}
{"question": "Who said Tucson is bicycle-friendly, in 2007?", "paragraph": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "answer": "The League of American Bicyclists", "sentence": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. <hl> Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The League of American Bicyclists <hl> gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The League of American Bicyclists <hl> gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007."}
{"question": "When does El Tour de Tucson happen?", "paragraph": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "answer": "in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving", "sentence": "The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving .", "paragraph_sentence": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. <hl> The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving . <hl> El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "paragraph_answer": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens <hl> in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving <hl>. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "sentence_answer": "The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens <hl> in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who runs El Tour de Tucson?", "paragraph": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "answer": "Perimeter Bicycling", "sentence": "El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually.", "paragraph_sentence": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. <hl> El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. <hl> Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "paragraph_answer": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by <hl> Perimeter Bicycling <hl> has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "sentence_answer": "El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by <hl> Perimeter Bicycling <hl> has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually."}
{"question": "How many people participate in El Tour de Tucson?", "paragraph": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "answer": "as many as 10,000", "sentence": "El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually.", "paragraph_sentence": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. <hl> El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. <hl> Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "paragraph_answer": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has <hl> as many as 10,000 <hl> participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "sentence_answer": "El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has <hl> as many as 10,000 <hl> participants from all over the world, annually."}
{"question": "How many US cities have at least a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness?", "paragraph": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "answer": "nine", "sentence": "Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists.", "paragraph_sentence": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. <hl> Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. <hl> The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "paragraph_answer": "The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called \"El Tour de Tucson\" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only <hl> nine <hl> cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson is one of only <hl> nine <hl> cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists."}
{"question": "Which political party does Tucson usually support?", "paragraph": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "answer": "Democratic", "sentence": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. <hl> Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "paragraph_answer": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the <hl> Democratic <hl> Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "sentence_answer": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the <hl> Democratic <hl> Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party."}
{"question": "Which political party does Phoenix usually support?", "paragraph": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "answer": "Republican", "sentence": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. <hl> Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "paragraph_answer": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the <hl> Republican <hl> Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "sentence_answer": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the <hl> Republican <hl> Party."}
{"question": "How many Federal Congressional districts was Tucson split into in 2013?", "paragraph": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona).", "paragraph_sentence": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. <hl> Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). <hl> The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "paragraph_answer": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into <hl> three <hl> Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "sentence_answer": "Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into <hl> three <hl> Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona)."}
{"question": "Who represents Tucson's city center in Congress?", "paragraph": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "answer": "Raul Grijalva", "sentence": "The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva , a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008.", "paragraph_sentence": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). <hl> The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva , a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. <hl> The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "paragraph_answer": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by <hl> Raul Grijalva <hl>, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "sentence_answer": "The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by <hl> Raul Grijalva <hl> , a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008."}
{"question": "Who represent's Tucson's wealthy areas in Congress?", "paragraph": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "answer": "Martha McSally", "sentence": "The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008.", "paragraph_sentence": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). <hl> The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. <hl> The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "paragraph_answer": "In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican <hl> Martha McSally <hl> since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.", "sentence_answer": "The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican <hl> Martha McSally <hl> since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008."}
{"question": "When is Tucson's city council primary?", "paragraph": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "answer": "September", "sentence": "Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September .", "paragraph_sentence": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. <hl> Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September . <hl> The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "paragraph_answer": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in <hl> September <hl>. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "sentence_answer": "Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in <hl> September <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long are Tucson's city council terms?", "paragraph": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "answer": "four-year", "sentence": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. <hl> Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "paragraph_answer": "Both the council members and the mayor serve <hl> four-year <hl> terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "sentence_answer": "Both the council members and the mayor serve <hl> four-year <hl> terms; none face term limits."}
{"question": "When is Tucson's city council general election?", "paragraph": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "answer": "November", "sentence": "The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot.", "paragraph_sentence": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. <hl> The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. <hl> In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "paragraph_answer": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the <hl> November <hl> ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "sentence_answer": "The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the <hl> November <hl> ballot."}
{"question": "Which wards elect city council members in the same year as the mayor?", "paragraph": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "answer": "1, 2, and 4", "sentence": "Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "paragraph_sentence": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. <hl> Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards <hl> 1, 2, and 4 <hl> (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "sentence_answer": "Council elections are severed: Wards <hl> 1, 2, and 4 <hl> (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013)."}
{"question": "Which wards elect city council members in the alternate year from the mayor?", "paragraph": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "answer": "3, 5, and 6", "sentence": "Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).", "paragraph_sentence": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. <hl> Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards <hl> 3, 5, and 6 <hl> share another year (most recently 2013).", "sentence_answer": "Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards <hl> 3, 5, and 6 <hl> share another year (most recently 2013)."}
{"question": "When did Tucson begin offering city council candidates public funding?", "paragraph": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "answer": "1985", "sentence": "Since 1985 , both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. <hl> Since 1985 , both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. <hl> To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since <hl> 1985 <hl>, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "sentence_answer": "Since <hl> 1985 <hl> , both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city."}
{"question": "What is the spending limit for Tucson city council candidates to get public funding?", "paragraph": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "answer": "33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter", "sentence": "Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter , or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003).", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). <hl> Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter , or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). <hl> In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to <hl> 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter <hl>, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "sentence_answer": "Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to <hl> 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter <hl> , or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003)."}
{"question": "What is the spending limit for Tucson mayoral candidates to get public funding?", "paragraph": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "answer": "64\u00a2 per registered voter", "sentence": "Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter , or $142,271 in 2003).", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). <hl> Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter , or $142,271 in 2003). <hl> In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are <hl> 64\u00a2 per registered voter <hl>, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "sentence_answer": "Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are <hl> 64\u00a2 per registered voter <hl> , or $142,271 in 2003)."}
{"question": "What major cities later adopted Tucson's city council public funding system?", "paragraph": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "answer": "San Francisco and New York City", "sentence": "Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City , have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. <hl> Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City , have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as <hl> San Francisco and New York City <hl>, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "sentence_answer": "Many cities, such as <hl> San Francisco and New York City <hl> , have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas."}
{"question": "How many $10+ donations must Tucson city council candidates receive to get public funding?", "paragraph": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "answer": "200", "sentence": "To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate)", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. <hl> To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate) <hl> . Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive <hl> 200 <hl> donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33\u00a2 for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64\u00a2 per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.", "sentence_answer": "To become eligible, council candidates must receive <hl> 200 <hl> donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate)"}
{"question": "What is Tucson's daily general newspaper?", "paragraph": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "answer": "Arizona Daily Star", "sentence": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star . <hl> Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning <hl> Arizona Daily Star <hl>. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning <hl> Arizona Daily Star <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's daily legal paper?", "paragraph": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "answer": "The Daily Territorial", "sentence": "Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial , while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. <hl> Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial , while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. <hl> TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper <hl> The Daily Territorial <hl>, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "sentence_answer": "Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper <hl> The Daily Territorial <hl> , while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer."}
{"question": "Who publishes Tucson Weekly?", "paragraph": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "answer": "10/13 Communications", "sentence": "Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. <hl> Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. <hl> TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based <hl> 10/13 Communications <hl> publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "sentence_answer": "Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based <hl> 10/13 Communications <hl> publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer."}
{"question": "Where is 10/13 based?", "paragraph": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "answer": "Boulder, Colo.", "sentence": "Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo. -based 10/13", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. <hl> Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo. -based 10/13 <hl> Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while <hl> Boulder, Colo. <hl>-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "sentence_answer": "Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while <hl> Boulder, Colo. <hl> -based 10/13"}
{"question": "What is the University of Arizona's student newspaper?", "paragraph": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "answer": "The Arizona Daily Wildcat", "sentence": "The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. <hl> The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. <hl> The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an \"alternative\" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Z\u00f3calo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. <hl> The Arizona Daily Wildcat <hl> is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Arizona Daily Wildcat <hl> is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's NBC station?", "paragraph": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "answer": "KVOA 4", "sentence": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) <hl> The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). <hl> KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: <hl> KVOA 4 <hl> (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "sentence_answer": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: <hl> KVOA 4 <hl> (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW)."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's ABC station?", "paragraph": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "answer": "KGUN 9", "sentence": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) <hl> The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). <hl> KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), <hl> KGUN 9 <hl> (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "sentence_answer": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), <hl> KGUN 9 <hl> (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW)."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's Fox station?", "paragraph": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "answer": "KMSB-TV 11", "sentence": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) <hl> The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). <hl> KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), <hl> KMSB-TV 11 <hl> (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "sentence_answer": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), <hl> KMSB-TV 11 <hl> (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW)."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's CBS station?", "paragraph": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "answer": "KOLD-TV 13", "sentence": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) <hl> The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). <hl> KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), <hl> KOLD-TV 13 <hl> (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "sentence_answer": "The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), <hl> KOLD-TV 13 <hl> (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW)."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's PBS station?", "paragraph": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "answer": "KUAT-TV 6", "sentence": "KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). <hl> KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). <hl> KUAT-TV 6 <hl> is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> KUAT-TV 6 <hl> is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27)."}
{"question": "Who runs Tucson's main power plant?", "paragraph": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "answer": "Tucson Electric Power", "sentence": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. <hl> The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by <hl> Tucson Electric Power <hl> that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by <hl> Tucson Electric Power <hl> that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10."}
{"question": "What highway is Tucson's main power plant near?", "paragraph": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "answer": "Interstate-10", "sentence": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10 . <hl> The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to <hl> Interstate-10 <hl>. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to <hl> Interstate-10 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does Tucson's main power plant use for fuel?", "paragraph": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "answer": "coal and natural gas", "sentence": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. <hl> The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a <hl> coal and natural gas <hl> power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a <hl> coal and natural gas <hl> power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10."}
{"question": "When did Tucson's main power plant begin operation?", "paragraph": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "answer": "1962", "sentence": "The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. <hl> The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. <hl> Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since <hl> 1962 <hl> as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "sentence_answer": "The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since <hl> 1962 <hl> as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age."}
{"question": "How many days of sunshine does Tucson get each year?", "paragraph": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "answer": "over 300", "sentence": "Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. <hl> Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. <hl> Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal <hl> over 300 <hl> days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.", "sentence_answer": "Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal <hl> over 300 <hl> days of sunshine climate."}
{"question": "How is most of Tucson's water used?", "paragraph": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "answer": "Agriculture (including golf courses)", "sentence": "The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses) , which consumes about 69% of all water.", "paragraph_sentence": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). <hl> The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses) , which consumes about 69% of all water. <hl> Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "paragraph_answer": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is <hl> Agriculture (including golf courses) <hl>, which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "sentence_answer": "The primary consumer of water is <hl> Agriculture (including golf courses) <hl> , which consumes about 69% of all water."}
{"question": "How much of Tucson's water is used on agriculture?", "paragraph": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "answer": "69%", "sentence": "The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water.", "paragraph_sentence": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). <hl> The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. <hl> Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "paragraph_answer": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about <hl> 69% <hl> of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "sentence_answer": "The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about <hl> 69% <hl> of all water."}
{"question": "How much of Tucson's water is used on residential/city use?", "paragraph": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "answer": "25%", "sentence": "Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use.", "paragraph_sentence": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. <hl> Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. <hl> Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "paragraph_answer": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about <hl> 25% <hl> of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "sentence_answer": "Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about <hl> 25% <hl> of use."}
{"question": "How many days of full sun does Tucson get each year?", "paragraph": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "answer": "over 300", "sentence": "However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "paragraph_sentence": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. <hl> However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with <hl> over 300 <hl> days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "sentence_answer": "However, with <hl> over 300 <hl> days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer."}
{"question": "What agency manages Tucson's water?", "paragraph": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "answer": "Arizona Department of Water Resources", "sentence": "The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR).", "paragraph_sentence": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. <hl> The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). <hl> The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "paragraph_answer": "Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its <hl> Arizona Department of Water Resources <hl> (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.", "sentence_answer": "The state manages all water in Arizona through its <hl> Arizona Department of Water Resources <hl> (ADWR)."}
{"question": "How is Tucson replenishing its groundwater?", "paragraph": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses.\" These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "answer": "running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer", "sentence": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer . <hl> Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses.\" These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "paragraph_answer": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by <hl> running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer <hl>. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses.\" These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "sentence_answer": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by <hl> running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does Tucson use reclaimed water for?", "paragraph": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses.\" These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "answer": "irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses", "sentence": "The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses .\"", "paragraph_sentence": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. <hl> The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses .\" <hl> These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "paragraph_answer": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as <hl> irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses <hl>.\" These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "sentence_answer": "The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as <hl> irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses <hl> .\""}
{"question": "How long has Tucson's water conservation efforts been underway?", "paragraph": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses.\" These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "answer": "more than 27 years", "sentence": "These resources have been in place for more than 27 years , and deliver to over 900 locations.", "paragraph_sentence": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses.\" <hl> These resources have been in place for more than 27 years , and deliver to over 900 locations. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for \"applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses.\" These resources have been in place for <hl> more than 27 years <hl>, and deliver to over 900 locations.", "sentence_answer": "These resources have been in place for <hl> more than 27 years <hl> , and deliver to over 900 locations."}
{"question": "What is the CAP?", "paragraph": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "answer": "Central Arizona Project Aqueduct", "sentence": "An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out.", "paragraph_sentence": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. <hl> An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. <hl> Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "paragraph_answer": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the <hl> Central Arizona Project Aqueduct <hl> (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "sentence_answer": "An allocation from the <hl> Central Arizona Project Aqueduct <hl> (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out."}
{"question": "How long is the CAP?", "paragraph": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "answer": "more than 300 mi (480 km)", "sentence": "An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out.", "paragraph_sentence": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. <hl> An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. <hl> Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "paragraph_answer": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes <hl> more than 300 mi (480 km) <hl> across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "sentence_answer": "An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes <hl> more than 300 mi (480 km) <hl> across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out."}
{"question": "What water source feeds the CAP?", "paragraph": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "answer": "Colorado River", "sentence": "An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River , has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out.", "paragraph_sentence": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. <hl> An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River , has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. <hl> Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "paragraph_answer": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the <hl> Colorado River <hl>, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "sentence_answer": "An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the <hl> Colorado River <hl> , has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out."}
{"question": "What aquifer is Tucson starting new wells in?", "paragraph": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "answer": "Avra Valley aquifer", "sentence": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer , northwest of the city.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer , northwest of the city. <hl> An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "paragraph_answer": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable <hl> Avra Valley aquifer <hl>, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "sentence_answer": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable <hl> Avra Valley aquifer <hl> , northwest of the city."}
{"question": "How many wells has Tucson stopped using since 2001?", "paragraph": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "answer": "over 80", "sentence": "Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.", "paragraph_sentence": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. <hl> Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of \"recharged\" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off <hl> over 80 <hl> wells.", "sentence_answer": "Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off <hl> over 80 <hl> wells."}
{"question": "How long is the Sun Link?", "paragraph": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "answer": "3.9-mile", "sentence": "A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. <hl> A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. <hl> Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A <hl> 3.9-mile <hl> streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> 3.9-mile <hl> streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River."}
{"question": "What is Tucson's bus system called?", "paragraph": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "answer": "Sun Tran", "sentence": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. <hl> It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's <hl> Sun Tran <hl> bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson's <hl> Sun Tran <hl> bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service."}
{"question": "What transit systems does Sun Link connect to?", "paragraph": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "answer": "the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service", "sentence": "The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. <hl> The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with <hl> the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with <hl> the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Tucson get a 'Best Transit System' award?", "paragraph": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "answer": "1988 and 2005", "sentence": "It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. <hl> It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005 . <hl> A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in <hl> 1988 and 2005 <hl>. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "sentence_answer": "It was awarded Best Transit System in <hl> 1988 and 2005 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What kind of vehicles operate on the Sun Link?", "paragraph": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "answer": "streetcar", "sentence": "A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River.", "paragraph_sentence": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. <hl> A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. <hl> Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "paragraph_answer": "Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile <hl> streetcar <hl> line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.", "sentence_answer": "A 3.9-mile <hl> streetcar <hl> line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River."}
{"question": "Why is cycling popular in Tucson?", "paragraph": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "answer": "its flat terrain and dry climate", "sentence": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate . <hl> Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "paragraph_answer": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to <hl> its flat terrain and dry climate <hl>. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "sentence_answer": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to <hl> its flat terrain and dry climate <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is The Loop?", "paragraph": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "answer": "a network of seven linear parks", "sentence": "The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. <hl> The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. <hl> The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "paragraph_answer": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is <hl> a network of seven linear parks <hl> comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "sentence_answer": "The Loop is <hl> a network of seven linear parks <hl> comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley."}
{"question": "How many miles of trails are in The Loop?", "paragraph": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "answer": "over 100", "sentence": "The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. <hl> The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. <hl> The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "paragraph_answer": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising <hl> over 100 <hl> mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "sentence_answer": "The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising <hl> over 100 <hl> mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley."}
{"question": "What organization advises the Tucson government on bike concerns?", "paragraph": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "answer": "Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee", "sentence": "The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. <hl> The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. <hl> Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "paragraph_answer": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The <hl> Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee <hl> (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee <hl> (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety."}
{"question": "What kind of places to ride bikes does Tucson have?", "paragraph": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "answer": "marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths", "sentence": "Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths .", "paragraph_sentence": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. <hl> Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths . <hl> The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "paragraph_answer": "Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of <hl> marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths <hl>. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.", "sentence_answer": "Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of <hl> marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths <hl> ."}
{"question": "What kind of government does Armenia have?", "paragraph": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "answer": "democratic", "sentence": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. <hl> Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, <hl> democratic <hl> nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, <hl> democratic <hl> nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage."}
{"question": "What religion did Armenia support?", "paragraph": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "answer": "Christianity", "sentence": "Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. <hl> Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. <hl> In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt <hl> Christianity <hl> as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt <hl> Christianity <hl> as its official religion."}
{"question": "Who brought Armenia to success in the 1st century BC?", "paragraph": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "answer": "Tigranes the Great", "sentence": "In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great .", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. <hl> In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great . <hl> Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under <hl> Tigranes the Great <hl>. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "sentence_answer": "In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under <hl> Tigranes the Great <hl> ."}
{"question": "What two empires did Armenia belong to in the beginning of the 5th century?", "paragraph": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "answer": "Byzantine and Sasanian", "sentence": "The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. <hl> The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the <hl> Byzantine and Sasanian <hl> Empires around the early 5th century.", "sentence_answer": "The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the <hl> Byzantine and Sasanian <hl> Empires around the early 5th century."}
{"question": "When was Urartu created?", "paragraph": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "answer": "860 BC", "sentence": "Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. <hl> Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. <hl> In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in <hl> 860 BC <hl> and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.", "sentence_answer": "Urartu was established in <hl> 860 BC <hl> and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia."}
{"question": "Which two empires ruled Armenia between the 16 and 19th Century?", "paragraph": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "answer": "Ottoman and successive Iranian empires", "sentence": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires , repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires , repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. <hl> By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the <hl> Ottoman and successive Iranian empires <hl>, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "sentence_answer": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the <hl> Ottoman and successive Iranian empires <hl> , repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries."}
{"question": "Who took over Eastern Armenia in the 19th century?", "paragraph": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "answer": "Russian Empire", "sentence": "By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire , while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule.", "paragraph_sentence": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. <hl> By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire , while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. <hl> During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the <hl> Russian Empire <hl>, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "sentence_answer": "By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the <hl> Russian Empire <hl> , while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule."}
{"question": "When did the Armenian Genocide occure?", "paragraph": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "answer": "World War I", "sentence": "During World War I , Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide.", "paragraph_sentence": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. <hl> During World War I , Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. <hl> In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During <hl> World War I <hl>, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "sentence_answer": "During <hl> World War I <hl> , Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide."}
{"question": "When did Armenia become part of the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic?", "paragraph": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "answer": "1920", "sentence": "By 1920 , the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union.", "paragraph_sentence": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. <hl> By 1920 , the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. <hl> In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By <hl> 1920 <hl>, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "sentence_answer": "By <hl> 1920 <hl> , the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union."}
{"question": "When did Armenia gain its independence?", "paragraph": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "answer": "1991", "sentence": "The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "paragraph_sentence": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. <hl> The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in <hl> 1991 <hl> during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.", "sentence_answer": "The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in <hl> 1991 <hl> during the dissolution of the Soviet Union."}
{"question": "What name did Armenia gain it's name from?", "paragraph": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "answer": "Aram", "sentence": "According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram , a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "paragraph_sentence": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. <hl> According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram , a lineal descendant of Hayk. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of <hl> Aram <hl>, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "sentence_answer": "According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of <hl> Aram <hl> , a lineal descendant of Hayk."}
{"question": "When did Xenophon visit Armenia?", "paragraph": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "answer": "401 BC", "sentence": "Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC .", "paragraph_sentence": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). <hl> Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC . <hl> He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "paragraph_answer": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around <hl> 401 BC <hl>. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "sentence_answer": "Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around <hl> 401 BC <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who first referenced the Armenians?", "paragraph": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "answer": "Hecataeus of Miletus", "sentence": "The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC).", "paragraph_sentence": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). <hl> The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). <hl> Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "paragraph_answer": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by <hl> Hecataeus of Miletus <hl> (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "sentence_answer": "The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by <hl> Hecataeus of Miletus <hl> (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC)."}
{"question": "What language does Armenias resemble most?", "paragraph": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "answer": "Persians", "sentence": "He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians .", "paragraph_sentence": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. <hl> He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians . <hl> According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "paragraph_answer": "The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina ( ). The ancient Greek terms \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03b5\u03bd\u03af\u03b1 (Armen\u00eda) and \u1f08\u03c1\u03bc\u03ad\u03bd\u03b9\u03bf\u03b9 (Arm\u00e9nioi, \"Armenians\") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC \u2013 c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the <hl> Persians <hl>. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.", "sentence_answer": "He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the <hl> Persians <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the capital of Armenia established?", "paragraph": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "answer": "782 BC", "sentence": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. <hl> A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of <hl> 782 BC <hl> by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "sentence_answer": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of <hl> 782 BC <hl> by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation."}
{"question": "What is the capital of Armenia?", "paragraph": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "answer": "Yerevan", "sentence": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. <hl> A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in <hl> Yerevan <hl> established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "sentence_answer": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in <hl> Yerevan <hl> established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation."}
{"question": "The founding of which city was the first to be ever recorded?", "paragraph": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "answer": "Yerevan", "sentence": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. <hl> A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in <hl> Yerevan <hl> established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "sentence_answer": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in <hl> Yerevan <hl> established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation."}
{"question": "Who ruled Armenia in 782 BC?", "paragraph": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "answer": "King Argishti I", "sentence": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I .", "paragraph_sentence": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. <hl> A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I . <hl> Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "paragraph_answer": "Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500\u20131200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000\u2013600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by <hl> King Argishti I <hl>. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.", "sentence_answer": "A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by <hl> King Argishti I <hl> ."}
{"question": "Under who did Areminia become fully sovereign?", "paragraph": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "answer": "King Artaxias I", "sentence": "The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. <hl> The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. <hl> Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "paragraph_answer": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under <hl> King Artaxias I <hl> and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "sentence_answer": "The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under <hl> King Artaxias I <hl> and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty."}
{"question": "What Empire did the Orontid Dynasty belong to?", "paragraph": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "answer": "Achaemenid Empire", "sentence": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire , as part of the latters' territories.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire , as part of the latters' territories. <hl> The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "paragraph_answer": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the <hl> Achaemenid Empire <hl>, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "sentence_answer": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the <hl> Achaemenid Empire <hl> , as part of the latters' territories."}
{"question": "When did Armenia reach it's peak?", "paragraph": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "answer": "between 95 and 66 BC", "sentence": "Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. <hl> Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height <hl> between 95 and 66 BC <hl> under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia reached its height <hl> between 95 and 66 BC <hl> under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic."}
{"question": "Which ruler is responsible for Armenias prosperity?", "paragraph": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "answer": "Tigranes the Great", "sentence": "Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great , becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. <hl> Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great , becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under <hl> Tigranes the Great <hl>, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under <hl> Tigranes the Great <hl> , becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic."}
{"question": "Who established the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia?", "paragraph": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "answer": "Tiridates I", "sentence": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I , the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I , the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. <hl> Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "paragraph_answer": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of <hl> Tiridates I <hl>, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "sentence_answer": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of <hl> Tiridates I <hl> , the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia."}
{"question": "What made Armenia so easily invadable?", "paragraph": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "answer": "strategic location between two continents", "sentence": "Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. <hl> Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its <hl> strategic location between two continents <hl> has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "sentence_answer": "Its <hl> strategic location between two continents <hl> has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians."}
{"question": "Who ruled the Assyrians between 669-627 BC?", "paragraph": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "answer": "Ashurbanipal", "sentence": "Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal , at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. <hl> Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal , at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under <hl> Ashurbanipal <hl>, at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.", "sentence_answer": "Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under <hl> Ashurbanipal <hl> , at around 669\u2013627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians."}
{"question": "When was the Marzpanate era?", "paragraph": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "answer": "428\u2013636", "sentence": "After the Marzpanate period ( 428\u2013636 ), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> After the Marzpanate period ( 428\u2013636 ), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. <hl> The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "paragraph_answer": "After the Marzpanate period (<hl> 428\u2013636 <hl>), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "sentence_answer": "After the Marzpanate period ( <hl> 428\u2013636 <hl> ), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well."}
{"question": "When did the Principality of Armenia end?", "paragraph": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "answer": "884", "sentence": "The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884 , when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "paragraph_sentence": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. <hl> The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884 , when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until <hl> 884 <hl>, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "sentence_answer": "The Principality of Armenia lasted until <hl> 884 <hl> , when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni."}
{"question": "Under which ruler did the Principality of Armenia gain its independence?", "paragraph": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "answer": "King Ashot I Bagratuni", "sentence": "The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni .", "paragraph_sentence": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. <hl> The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under <hl> King Ashot I Bagratuni <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under <hl> King Ashot I Bagratuni <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where was the Principality of Armenia centered?", "paragraph": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "answer": "Dvin", "sentence": "It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin .", "paragraph_sentence": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. <hl> It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin . <hl> The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "paragraph_answer": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, <hl> Dvin <hl>. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "sentence_answer": "It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, <hl> Dvin <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who ruled the Emirate of Armenia?", "paragraph": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "answer": "Prince of Armenia", "sentence": "The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia , and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor.", "paragraph_sentence": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. <hl> The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia , and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. <hl> It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "paragraph_answer": "After the Marzpanate period (428\u2013636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the <hl> Prince of Armenia <hl>, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.", "sentence_answer": "The principality was ruled by the <hl> Prince of Armenia <hl> , and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor."}
{"question": "Who vanquished Bagratid Armenia?", "paragraph": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "answer": "the Byzantine Empire", "sentence": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. <hl> Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1045, <hl> the Byzantine Empire <hl> conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "sentence_answer": "In 1045, <hl> the Byzantine Empire <hl> conquered Bagratid Armenia."}
{"question": "When did the Seljuk Turks beat the Byzantines?", "paragraph": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "answer": "1071", "sentence": "The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. <hl> The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. <hl> To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in <hl> 1071 <hl> Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "sentence_answer": "The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in <hl> 1071 <hl> Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire."}
{"question": "When was Cilicia founded?", "paragraph": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "answer": "6 January 1198", "sentence": "The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. <hl> The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on <hl> 6 January 1198 <hl> under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "sentence_answer": "The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on <hl> 6 January 1198 <hl> under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen."}
{"question": "What was the outcome of the Battle of Manzikert for the Seljuk Turks?", "paragraph": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "answer": "conquered Armenia", "sentence": "The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. <hl> The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. <hl> To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and <hl> conquered Armenia <hl> at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "sentence_answer": "The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and <hl> conquered Armenia <hl> at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire."}
{"question": "Where did Roupen find refuge?", "paragraph": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "answer": "Tarsus of Cilicia", "sentence": "To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. <hl> To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia . <hl> The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into <hl> Tarsus of Cilicia <hl>. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.", "sentence_answer": "To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into <hl> Tarsus of Cilicia <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which family overthrew the Seljuk Turks?", "paragraph": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "answer": "the Zakarid", "sentence": "In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. <hl> In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. <hl> The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "paragraph_answer": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of <hl> the Zakarid <hl> noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "sentence_answer": "In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of <hl> the Zakarid <hl> noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom."}
{"question": "What principality did the Zakarid family form?", "paragraph": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "answer": "Zakarid Armenia", "sentence": "In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia , which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. <hl> In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia , which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. <hl> The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "paragraph_answer": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as <hl> Zakarid Armenia <hl>, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "sentence_answer": "In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as <hl> Zakarid Armenia <hl> , which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom."}
{"question": "What area did the Orbelians and Zakarids command together?", "paragraph": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "answer": "Syunik and Vayots Dzor", "sentence": "The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor , while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. <hl> The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor , while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in <hl> Syunik and Vayots Dzor <hl>, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "sentence_answer": "The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in <hl> Syunik and Vayots Dzor <hl> , while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh."}
{"question": "What area did the Hasan-jalalians command?", "paragraph": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "answer": "Artsakh and Utik", "sentence": "The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. <hl> The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of <hl> Artsakh and Utik <hl> as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "sentence_answer": "The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of <hl> Artsakh and Utik <hl> as the Kingdom of Artsakh."}
{"question": "When did the Seljuk Empire experience it's decline?", "paragraph": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "answer": "early 12th century", "sentence": "In the early 12th century , Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. <hl> In the early 12th century , Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. <hl> The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "paragraph_answer": "The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the <hl> early 12th century <hl>, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.", "sentence_answer": "In the <hl> early 12th century <hl> , Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom."}
{"question": "Which empires seperated Armenia?", "paragraph": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "answer": "Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire", "sentence": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. <hl> From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "paragraph_answer": "In the 16th century, the <hl> Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire <hl> divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "sentence_answer": "In the 16th century, the <hl> Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire <hl> divided Armenia."}
{"question": "Who controlled Western Armenia between the 16 and 19th Century?", "paragraph": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "answer": "Ottoman", "sentence": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. <hl> From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "paragraph_answer": "In the 16th century, the <hl> Ottoman <hl> Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "sentence_answer": "In the 16th century, the <hl> Ottoman <hl> Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia."}
{"question": "Who controlled Eastern Armenia between the 16 and 19th Century?", "paragraph": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "answer": "Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires", "sentence": "From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires , while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. <hl> From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires , while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive <hl> Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires <hl>, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "sentence_answer": "From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive <hl> Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires <hl> , while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule."}
{"question": "How long did the Turco-Iranian rivalry last?", "paragraph": "In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "answer": "century", "sentence": "In the 16th century , the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the 16th century , the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. <hl> From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "paragraph_answer": "In the 16th <hl> century <hl>, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.", "sentence_answer": "In the 16th <hl> century <hl> , the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia."}
{"question": "How many Armenians were slaughtered between 1894-1896", "paragraph": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "answer": "80,000 to 300,000", "sentence": "When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people.", "paragraph_sentence": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. <hl> When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. <hl> The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "paragraph_answer": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of <hl> 80,000 to 300,000 <hl> people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "sentence_answer": "When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of <hl> 80,000 to 300,000 <hl> people."}
{"question": "What prompted the state-sponsored slaughter of Armenians?", "paragraph": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "answer": "pushing for more rights", "sentence": "When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people.", "paragraph_sentence": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. <hl> When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. <hl> The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "paragraph_answer": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began <hl> pushing for more rights <hl> within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "sentence_answer": "When they began <hl> pushing for more rights <hl> within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people."}
{"question": "What nicknames was Sultan 'Abdu'l-Hamid II given?", "paragraph": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "answer": "\"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "sentence": "The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. <hl> The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the <hl> \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\" <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the <hl> \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\" <hl>"}
{"question": "What was the name given to the slaughter of the Armenians between 1894-1896?", "paragraph": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "answer": "Hamidian massacres", "sentence": "The Hamidian massacres , as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. <hl> The Hamidian massacres , as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The <hl> Hamidian massacres <hl>, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Hamidian massacres <hl> , as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\""}
{"question": "What type of social system was in place under the Ottoman Empire?", "paragraph": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "answer": "Muslim", "sentence": "However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination.", "paragraph_sentence": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). <hl> However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. <hl> When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "paragraph_answer": "While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict <hl> Muslim <hl> social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan \u2018Abdu\u2019l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the \"Red Sultan\" or \"Bloody Sultan.\"", "sentence_answer": "However, as Christians under a strict <hl> Muslim <hl> social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination."}
{"question": "What is another name for the Armenian Revolutionary Federation?", "paragraph": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "answer": "Dashnaktsutyun", "sentence": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun , became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun , became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. <hl> Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "paragraph_answer": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as <hl> Dashnaktsutyun <hl>, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "sentence_answer": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as <hl> Dashnaktsutyun <hl> , became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire."}
{"question": "What was the Dashnaks objective?", "paragraph": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "answer": "creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia", "sentence": "The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia , although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. <hl> The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia , although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of <hl> creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia <hl>, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "sentence_answer": "The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of <hl> creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia <hl> , although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy."}
{"question": "Which Dashnak groups helped protect Armenian citizens?", "paragraph": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "answer": "fedayi", "sentence": "Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. <hl> Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. <hl> The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "paragraph_answer": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed <hl> fedayi <hl> groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "sentence_answer": "Dashnaktsutyun members also formed <hl> fedayi <hl> groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance."}
{"question": "When did the Dashnaktsutyun originate?", "paragraph": "During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "answer": "1890s", "sentence": "During the 1890s , the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> During the 1890s , the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. <hl> Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "paragraph_answer": "During the <hl> 1890s <hl>, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a \"free, independent and unified\" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.", "sentence_answer": "During the <hl> 1890s <hl> , the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire."}
{"question": "When did the Adana massacre take place?", "paragraph": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "answer": "April 1909", "sentence": "In April 1909 , the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. <hl> In April 1909 , the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. <hl> The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "paragraph_answer": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In <hl> April 1909 <hl>, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> April 1909 <hl> , the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians."}
{"question": "How many Armenians died in the Adana Massacre?", "paragraph": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "answer": "20,000\u201330,000", "sentence": "In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. <hl> In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. <hl> The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "paragraph_answer": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as <hl> 20,000\u201330,000 <hl> Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "sentence_answer": "In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as <hl> 20,000\u201330,000 <hl> Armenians."}
{"question": "When was Sultan Hamid unseated?", "paragraph": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "answer": "1908", "sentence": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908 , the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908 , the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. <hl> In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "paragraph_answer": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in <hl> 1908 <hl>, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "sentence_answer": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in <hl> 1908 <hl> , the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid."}
{"question": "Who unseated Sultan Hamid?", "paragraph": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "answer": "Young Turk Revolution", "sentence": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. <hl> In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "paragraph_answer": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the <hl> Young Turk Revolution <hl> overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "sentence_answer": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the <hl> Young Turk Revolution <hl> overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid."}
{"question": "When was the Armenian Reform package introduced?", "paragraph": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "answer": "1914", "sentence": "Armenian reform package ( 1914 ) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. <hl> Armenian reform package ( 1914 ) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000\u201330,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (<hl> 1914 <hl>) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.", "sentence_answer": "Armenian reform package ( <hl> 1914 <hl> ) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues."}
{"question": "What instigated conflict between the Ottoman and Russian Empire?", "paragraph": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "answer": "World War I", "sentence": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. <hl> This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "paragraph_answer": "When <hl> World War I <hl> broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "sentence_answer": "When <hl> World War I <hl> broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion."}
{"question": "When did the Tehcir Law come to fruition?", "paragraph": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "answer": "29 May 1915", "sentence": "On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law ( 29 May 1915 ), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "paragraph_sentence": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. <hl> On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law ( 29 May 1915 ), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (<hl> 29 May 1915 <hl>), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "sentence_answer": "On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law ( <hl> 29 May 1915 <hl> ), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide."}
{"question": "Which army had a group of Armenian volunteers fighting for them?", "paragraph": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "answer": "Russian Army", "sentence": "This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers.", "paragraph_sentence": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. <hl> This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. <hl> On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "paragraph_answer": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial <hl> Russian Army <hl> contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "sentence_answer": "This was because the Imperial <hl> Russian Army <hl> contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers."}
{"question": "Where did the Armenian Genocide occur?", "paragraph": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "answer": "Anatolia", "sentence": "On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "paragraph_sentence": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. <hl> On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in <hl> Anatolia <hl> perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.", "sentence_answer": "On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in <hl> Anatolia <hl> perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide."}
{"question": "What do the Armenians see the events of 1915-1917 as?", "paragraph": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "answer": "state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide", "sentence": "The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide .", "paragraph_sentence": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. <hl> The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been <hl> state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been <hl> state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many phases were there to the Armenian Genocide?", "paragraph": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "answer": "two phases", "sentence": "The genocide was implemented in two phases : the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The genocide was implemented in two phases : the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. <hl> Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "paragraph_answer": "The genocide was implemented in <hl> two phases <hl>: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "sentence_answer": "The genocide was implemented in <hl> two phases <hl> : the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert."}
{"question": "What did the first phase of the Armenian Genocide involve?", "paragraph": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "answer": "killing of the able-bodied male population", "sentence": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. <hl> Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "paragraph_answer": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale <hl> killing of the able-bodied male population <hl> through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "sentence_answer": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale <hl> killing of the able-bodied male population <hl> through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert."}
{"question": "What did the second phase of the Armenian Genocide involve?", "paragraph": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "answer": "deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm", "sentence": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. <hl> Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "paragraph_answer": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the <hl> deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm <hl> on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "sentence_answer": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the <hl> deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm <hl> on death marches leading to the Syrian desert."}
{"question": "Where did the Armenian Genocide death marches push the deportees to?", "paragraph": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "answer": "Syrian desert", "sentence": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert . <hl> Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "paragraph_answer": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the <hl> Syrian desert <hl>. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.", "sentence_answer": "The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the <hl> Syrian desert <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many Armenians died during the second phase of the Armenian Genocide between 1915-1916??", "paragraph": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "answer": "600,000", "sentence": "According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316).", "paragraph_sentence": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. <hl> According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). <hl> This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated <hl> 600,000 <hl> Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "sentence_answer": "According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated <hl> 600,000 <hl> Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316)."}
{"question": "Who contests the existence of the Armenian Genocide?", "paragraph": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "answer": "Turkish authorities", "sentence": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. <hl> The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Turkish authorities <hl> deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Turkish authorities <hl> deny the genocide took place to this day."}
{"question": "What is the estimated sum of people who died during the Armenian Genocide?", "paragraph": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "answer": "between 1 and 1.5 million", "sentence": "The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million .", "paragraph_sentence": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". <hl> The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at <hl> between 1 and 1.5 million <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at <hl> between 1 and 1.5 million <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who put together a report about the Armenian Genocide?", "paragraph": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "answer": "Arnold J. Toynbee", "sentence": "According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee , an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316).", "paragraph_sentence": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. <hl> According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee , an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). <hl> This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by <hl> Arnold J. Toynbee <hl>, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "sentence_answer": "According to the research conducted by <hl> Arnold J. Toynbee <hl> , an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316)."}
{"question": "When was Toynbee's report put together?", "paragraph": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "answer": "24th May 1916", "sentence": "This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). <hl> This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916 . <hl> The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "paragraph_answer": "Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915\u201316). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the <hl> 24th May 1916 <hl>. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at \"more than a million\". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.", "sentence_answer": "This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the <hl> 24th May 1916 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was in charge of the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces?", "paragraph": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "answer": "Nikolai Yudenich", "sentence": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. <hl> This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by <hl> Nikolai Yudenich <hl> and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "sentence_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by <hl> Nikolai Yudenich <hl> and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic."}
{"question": "Who was the leader of the Armenian militia?", "paragraph": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "answer": "Andranik Ozanian", "sentence": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. <hl> This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by <hl> Andranik Ozanian <hl> and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "sentence_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by <hl> Andranik Ozanian <hl> and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic."}
{"question": "When was the Bolshevik Revolution?", "paragraph": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "answer": "1917", "sentence": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917 .[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917 .[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. <hl> This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of <hl> 1917 <hl>.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "sentence_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of <hl> 1917 <hl> .[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic."}
{"question": "Who formed the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic?", "paragraph": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "answer": "Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan", "sentence": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. <hl> This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled <hl> Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan <hl> attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "sentence_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled <hl> Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan <hl> attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic."}
{"question": "When did the Dashnaktsutyun declare independence?", "paragraph": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "answer": "May 1918", "sentence": "This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918 , when all three parties decided to dissolve it.", "paragraph_sentence": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. <hl> This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918 , when all three parties decided to dissolve it. <hl> As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "paragraph_answer": "Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to <hl> May 1918 <hl>, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.", "sentence_answer": "This federation, however, lasted from only February to <hl> May 1918 <hl> , when all three parties decided to dissolve it."}
{"question": "When was the Treaty of Sevres signed?", "paragraph": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "answer": "10 August 1920", "sentence": "Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920 , the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. <hl> Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920 , the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. <hl> Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on <hl> 10 August 1920 <hl>, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "sentence_answer": "Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on <hl> 10 August 1920 <hl> , the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it."}
{"question": "What is another name for Ottoman Armenia?", "paragraph": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "answer": "Wilsonian Armenia", "sentence": "Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \" Wilsonian Armenia .\"", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. <hl> Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \" Wilsonian Armenia .\" <hl> In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"<hl> Wilsonian Armenia <hl>.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "sentence_answer": "Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \" <hl> Wilsonian Armenia <hl> .\""}
{"question": "Which US president specified the new Armenian borders?", "paragraph": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "answer": "President Woodrow Wilson", "sentence": "Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson , Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. <hl> Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson , Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" <hl> In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States <hl> President Woodrow Wilson <hl>, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "sentence_answer": "Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States <hl> President Woodrow Wilson <hl> , Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\""}
{"question": "When did Cilicia declare independence?", "paragraph": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "answer": "5 August 1920", "sentence": "In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920 , Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" <hl> In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920 , Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on <hl> 5 August 1920 <hl>, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "sentence_answer": "In addition, just days prior, on <hl> 5 August 1920 <hl> , Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate."}
{"question": "Who signed the Treaty of Sevres?", "paragraph": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "answer": "Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire", "sentence": "Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. <hl> Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. <hl> Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "paragraph_answer": "At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the <hl> Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire <hl> at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as \"Wilsonian Armenia.\" In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.", "sentence_answer": "Signed between the <hl> Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire <hl> at S\u00e8vres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of S\u00e8vres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it."}
{"question": "When was the Treaty of Alexandropol sanctioned?", "paragraph": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "answer": "2 December 1920", "sentence": "The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920 .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). <hl> The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920 . <hl> The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on <hl> 2 December 1920 <hl>. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "sentence_answer": "The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on <hl> 2 December 1920 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What city did current day Gyumri used to be called?", "paragraph": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "answer": "Alexandropol", "sentence": "Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri).", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. <hl> Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). <hl> The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of <hl> Alexandropol <hl> (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "sentence_answer": "Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of <hl> Alexandropol <hl> (present-day Gyumri)."}
{"question": "When did the Armenian republic breakdown?", "paragraph": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "answer": "4 December", "sentence": "By 4 December , Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. <hl> By 4 December , Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By <hl> 4 December <hl>, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "sentence_answer": "By <hl> 4 December <hl> , Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed."}
{"question": "Who led the Soviet Eleventh Army?", "paragraph": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "answer": "Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze", "sentence": "Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze , invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. <hl> Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze , invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. <hl> By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of <hl> Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze <hl>, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "sentence_answer": "Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of <hl> Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze <hl> , invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November."}
{"question": "What year did Turkish nationalists seize the Armenian Republic?", "paragraph": "In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "answer": "1920", "sentence": "In 1920 , Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1920 , Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. <hl> Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 1920 <hl>, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kaz\u0131m Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877\u20131878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of S\u00e8vres, and to give up all the \"Wilsonian Armenia\" granted to it at the S\u00e8vres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1920 <hl> , Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east."}
{"question": "When was the Transcaucasian SFSR formed?", "paragraph": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "answer": "4 March 1922", "sentence": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922 . <hl> With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on <hl> 4 March 1922 <hl>. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on <hl> 4 March 1922 <hl> ."}
{"question": "The Soviet Union gained control over which city following the Treaty of Kars?", "paragraph": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "answer": "Batumi", "sentence": "In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. <hl> In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of <hl> Batumi <hl> in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of <hl> Batumi <hl> in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia."}
{"question": "What did Turkey gain from the Treaty of Kars?", "paragraph": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "answer": "sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r", "sentence": "In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r , all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. <hl> In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r , all of which were part of Russian Armenia. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for <hl> sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r <hl>, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for <hl> sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r <hl> , all of which were part of Russian Armenia."}
{"question": "Who annexed Armenia?", "paragraph": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "answer": "Bolshevist Russia", "sentence": "Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. <hl> With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia was annexed by <hl> Bolshevist Russia <hl> and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and I\u011fd\u0131r, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia was annexed by <hl> Bolshevist Russia <hl> and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922."}
{"question": "Who provided the Armenians with supplies?", "paragraph": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "answer": "Moscow", "sentence": "They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow , and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. <hl> They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow , and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. <hl> The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "paragraph_answer": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from <hl> Moscow <hl>, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "sentence_answer": "They received medicine, food, and other provisions from <hl> Moscow <hl> , and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire."}
{"question": "Who succeeded Vladimir Lenin?", "paragraph": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "answer": "Joseph Stalin", "sentence": "After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "paragraph_sentence": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. <hl> After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, <hl> Joseph Stalin <hl> took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "sentence_answer": "After the death of Vladimir Lenin, <hl> Joseph Stalin <hl> took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians."}
{"question": "Which three parts make up the TSFSR?", "paragraph": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "answer": "Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR", "sentence": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities ( Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR ).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities ( Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR ). <hl> Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "paragraph_answer": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (<hl> Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR <hl>). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "sentence_answer": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities ( <hl> Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR <hl> )."}
{"question": "When did the TSFSR break up into three parts?", "paragraph": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "answer": "1936", "sentence": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936 , when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936 , when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). <hl> Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "paragraph_answer": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to <hl> 1936 <hl>, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.", "sentence_answer": "The TSFSR existed from 1922 to <hl> 1936 <hl> , when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR)."}
{"question": "Who succeeded Stalin?", "paragraph": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "answer": "Nikita Khruschev", "sentence": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. <hl> Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "paragraph_answer": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and <hl> Nikita Khruschev <hl> emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "sentence_answer": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and <hl> Nikita Khruschev <hl> emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader."}
{"question": "When was the Armenian Genocide Memorial constructed?", "paragraph": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "answer": "1967", "sentence": "In 1967 , a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan.", "paragraph_sentence": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. <hl> In 1967 , a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. <hl> This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "paragraph_answer": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In <hl> 1967 <hl>, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1967 <hl> , a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan."}
{"question": "When did Vazgen acquire his position?", "paragraph": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "answer": "1955", "sentence": "The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. <hl> The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955 . <hl> In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "paragraph_answer": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in <hl> 1955 <hl>. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "sentence_answer": "The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in <hl> 1955 <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Stalin pass away?", "paragraph": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "answer": "1953", "sentence": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. <hl> Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "paragraph_answer": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in <hl> 1953 <hl> and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "sentence_answer": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in <hl> 1953 <hl> and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader."}
{"question": "Where is the memorial for the Armenian Genocide?", "paragraph": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "answer": "Yerevan", "sentence": "In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan .", "paragraph_sentence": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. <hl> In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan . <hl> This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "paragraph_answer": "Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in <hl> Yerevan <hl>. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.", "sentence_answer": "In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in <hl> Yerevan <hl> ."}
{"question": "In what year did Armenia suffer from a catastrophic earthquake?", "paragraph": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "answer": "1988", "sentence": "Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. <hl> Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in <hl> 1988 <hl> with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "sentence_answer": "Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in <hl> 1988 <hl> with a moment magnitude of 7.2."}
{"question": "How man Armenians resided in Azerbaijan in 1970?", "paragraph": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "answer": "484,000", "sentence": "About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. <hl> About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. <hl> The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About <hl> 484,000 <hl> Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "sentence_answer": "About <hl> 484,000 <hl> Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970."}
{"question": "When was Nagorno-Karabakh removed from Armenia?", "paragraph": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "answer": "1923", "sentence": "Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923 .", "paragraph_sentence": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. <hl> Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923 . <hl> About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in <hl> 1923 <hl>. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "sentence_answer": "Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in <hl> 1923 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who partitioned Nagorno-Karabakh from Armenia?", "paragraph": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "answer": "Stalin", "sentence": "Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923.", "paragraph_sentence": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. <hl> Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. <hl> About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "paragraph_answer": "During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by <hl> Stalin <hl> from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.", "sentence_answer": "Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by <hl> Stalin <hl> from Armenia in 1923."}
{"question": "What does NAA stand for?", "paragraph": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "answer": "New Armenian Army", "sentence": "In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. <hl> In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. <hl> Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "paragraph_answer": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the <hl> New Armenian Army <hl> (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "sentence_answer": "In May 1990, the <hl> New Armenian Army <hl> (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army."}
{"question": "When was the NAA formed?", "paragraph": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "answer": "May 1990", "sentence": "In May 1990 , the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. <hl> In May 1990 , the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. <hl> Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "paragraph_answer": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In <hl> May 1990 <hl>, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> May 1990 <hl> , the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army."}
{"question": "Who started the fight between the MVD and the NAA in 1918?", "paragraph": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "answer": "the MVD", "sentence": "The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. <hl> The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. <hl> Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "paragraph_answer": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with <hl> the MVD <hl> at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "sentence_answer": "The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with <hl> the MVD <hl> at the railway station."}
{"question": "How many people died as a result of the MVD and NAA clash in 1918?", "paragraph": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "answer": "five Armenians", "sentence": "The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. <hl> The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. <hl> Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "paragraph_answer": "Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of <hl> five Armenians <hl> killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.", "sentence_answer": "The violence resulted in the deaths of <hl> five Armenians <hl> killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station."}
{"question": "Continued fighting transpired between the Armenians and Soviets in which city?", "paragraph": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "answer": "Sovetashen", "sentence": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen , near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen , near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. <hl> The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "paragraph_answer": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in <hl> Sovetashen <hl>, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "sentence_answer": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in <hl> Sovetashen <hl> , near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians."}
{"question": "Where did the Armenians living in Baku escape to during the January 1990 massacre?", "paragraph": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "answer": "Armenia", "sentence": "Further firefights between Armenia n militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Further firefights between Armenia n militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. <hl> The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "paragraph_answer": "Further firefights between <hl> Armenia <hl>n militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "sentence_answer": "Further firefights between <hl> Armenia <hl> n militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians."}
{"question": "When did Armenia reject the referendum proposing the retention of the Soviet Union?", "paragraph": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "answer": "17 March 1991", "sentence": "On 17 March 1991 , Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "paragraph_sentence": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. <hl> On 17 March 1991 , Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On <hl> 17 March 1991 <hl>, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 17 March 1991 <hl> , Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form."}
{"question": "When did Turkey decide to become part of the blockade against Armenia?", "paragraph": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "answer": "1993", "sentence": "In 1993 , Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "paragraph_sentence": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. <hl> In 1993 , Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In <hl> 1993 <hl>, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1993 <hl> , Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan."}
{"question": "How does Armenia get most of it's commodities?", "paragraph": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "answer": "rail traffic", "sentence": "This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic .", "paragraph_sentence": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. <hl> This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic . <hl> In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "paragraph_answer": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through <hl> rail traffic <hl>. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "sentence_answer": "This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through <hl> rail traffic <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who did Armenia fight in teh Nagorno-Karabakh War?", "paragraph": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "answer": "Azerbaijan", "sentence": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan . <hl> The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "paragraph_answer": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring <hl> Azerbaijan <hl>. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "sentence_answer": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring <hl> Azerbaijan <hl> ."}
{"question": "What prevented Armenia from getting it's commodities?", "paragraph": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "answer": "a railway and air blockade", "sentence": "The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. <hl> The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. <hl> This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "paragraph_answer": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate <hl> a railway and air blockade <hl> against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "sentence_answer": "The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate <hl> a railway and air blockade <hl> against Armenia."}
{"question": "What percent of Armenias commodities were transported via rail traffic?", "paragraph": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "answer": "85%", "sentence": "This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic.", "paragraph_sentence": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. <hl> This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. <hl> In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "paragraph_answer": "Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as <hl> 85% <hl> of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.", "sentence_answer": "This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as <hl> 85% <hl> of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic."}
{"question": "When did the Karabakh War end?", "paragraph": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "answer": "1994", "sentence": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994 . <hl> The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "paragraph_answer": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in <hl> 1994 <hl>. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "sentence_answer": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in <hl> 1994 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What does OSCE stand for?", "paragraph": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "answer": "Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe", "sentence": "Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. <hl> Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). <hl> The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "paragraph_answer": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the <hl> Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe <hl> (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "sentence_answer": "Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the <hl> Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe <hl> (OSCE)."}
{"question": "Armenia has closed borders with which two countries?", "paragraph": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "answer": "Turkey and Azerbaijan", "sentence": "The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. <hl> The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. <hl> By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "paragraph_answer": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with <hl> Turkey and Azerbaijan <hl> remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "sentence_answer": "The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with <hl> Turkey and Azerbaijan <hl> remain closed."}
{"question": "How many people died as a result of the fighting betwen Armenia and Azerbaijan?", "paragraph": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "answer": "30,000", "sentence": "By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. <hl> By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated <hl> 30,000 <hl> people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "sentence_answer": "By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated <hl> 30,000 <hl> people had been killed and over a million had been displaced."}
{"question": "Who gained the most from the Karabakh War?", "paragraph": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "answer": "Karabakh Armenian forces", "sentence": "The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. <hl> The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. <hl> Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "paragraph_answer": "The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the <hl> Karabakh Armenian forces <hl> who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.", "sentence_answer": "The war was a success for the <hl> Karabakh Armenian forces <hl> who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself."}
{"question": "What is the lowest score on the Democracy Score scale?", "paragraph": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "answer": "7", "sentence": "Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "paragraph_sentence": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. <hl> Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of <hl> 7 <hl> (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "sentence_answer": "Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of <hl> 7 <hl> (7 represents the lowest democratic progress)."}
{"question": "What Democracy Score does Armenia have?", "paragraph": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "answer": "5.21", "sentence": "Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "paragraph_sentence": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. <hl> Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of <hl> 5.21 <hl> out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "sentence_answer": "Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of <hl> 5.21 <hl> out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress)."}
{"question": "What does the Freedom House classify Armenia as?", "paragraph": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "answer": "Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime", "sentence": "Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \" Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime \" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "paragraph_sentence": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. <hl> Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \" Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime \" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"<hl> Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime <hl>\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "sentence_answer": "Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \" <hl> Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime <hl> \" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress)."}
{"question": "What makes Armenia's presidential elections faulty?", "paragraph": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "answer": "polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places", "sentence": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places . <hl> Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "paragraph_answer": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing <hl> polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places <hl>. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a \"Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime\" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).", "sentence_answer": "International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing <hl> polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places <hl> ."}
{"question": "With who does Armenia have bad relations?", "paragraph": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "answer": "Turkey and Azerbaijan", "sentence": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan . <hl> Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, <hl> Turkey and Azerbaijan <hl>. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, <hl> Turkey and Azerbaijan <hl> ."}
{"question": "Is the border between Armenia and Azerbaijan open or closed?", "paragraph": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "answer": "closed", "sentence": "The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. <hl> The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. The border between the two rival countries remains <hl> closed <hl> up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "sentence_answer": "The border between the two rival countries remains <hl> closed <hl> up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE."}
{"question": "When was the Nagorno-Karabakh War?", "paragraph": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "answer": "1990s", "sentence": "The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s .", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. <hl> The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s . <hl> The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the <hl> 1990s <hl>. The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.", "sentence_answer": "The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the <hl> 1990s <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Turkey close off its border with Armenia?", "paragraph": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "answer": "1993", "sentence": "During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. <hl> During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993 . <hl> It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "paragraph_answer": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in <hl> 1993 <hl>. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "sentence_answer": "During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in <hl> 1993 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which country claims the Armenian Genocide didn't occur?", "paragraph": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "answer": "Turkey", "sentence": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. <hl> Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Turkey <hl> also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Turkey <hl> also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide."}
{"question": "When did Armenia gain independence from the USSR?", "paragraph": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "answer": "1991", "sentence": "Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. <hl> Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991 . <hl> Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "paragraph_answer": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in <hl> 1991 <hl>. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "sentence_answer": "Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in <hl> 1991 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who wants the border between Turkey and Armenia opened?", "paragraph": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "answer": "Turkish business lobby", "sentence": "It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.", "paragraph_sentence": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. <hl> It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful <hl> Turkish business lobby <hl> interested in Armenian markets.", "sentence_answer": "It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful <hl> Turkish business lobby <hl> interested in Armenian markets."}
{"question": "When did Armenia and Turkey initiate an attempt to reopen their border?", "paragraph": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "answer": "10 October 2009", "sentence": "On 10 October 2009 , Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On 10 October 2009 , Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. <hl> The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "paragraph_answer": "On <hl> 10 October 2009 <hl>, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 10 October 2009 <hl> , Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border."}
{"question": "Who made it difficult to ratify the protocols to reopen the Armenian/Turkey border?", "paragraph": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "answer": "Turkey", "sentence": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. <hl> The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "paragraph_answer": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and <hl> Turkey <hl> signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "sentence_answer": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and <hl> Turkey <hl> signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border."}
{"question": "Who ratifies protocols in Armenia?", "paragraph": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "answer": "national parliaments", "sentence": "The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments .", "paragraph_sentence": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. <hl> The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments . <hl> In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "paragraph_answer": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the <hl> national parliaments <hl>. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "sentence_answer": "The ratification of those had to be made in the <hl> national parliaments <hl> ."}
{"question": "How did Turkey thwart the ratification of these protocols?", "paragraph": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "answer": "continuously added more preconditions to its ratification", "sentence": "Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "paragraph_sentence": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. <hl> Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\". <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey <hl> continuously added more preconditions to its ratification <hl> and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\".", "sentence_answer": "Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey <hl> continuously added more preconditions to its ratification <hl> and also \"delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period\"."}
{"question": "Russia has a military base in which city in Armenia?", "paragraph": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "answer": "Gyumri", "sentence": "At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. <hl> At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. <hl> It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of <hl> Gyumri <hl> as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "sentence_answer": "At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of <hl> Gyumri <hl> as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years."}
{"question": "How many Armenians reside in the United States?", "paragraph": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "answer": "427,822", "sentence": "According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. <hl> According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are <hl> 427,822 <hl> Armenians living in the country.", "sentence_answer": "According to the US Census Bureau, there are <hl> 427,822 <hl> Armenians living in the country."}
{"question": "Why does Russia have a miltary base In Gyumri?", "paragraph": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "answer": "as a deterrent against Turkey", "sentence": "At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey .[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. <hl> At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey .[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. <hl> It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri <hl> as a deterrent against Turkey <hl>.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "sentence_answer": "At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri <hl> as a deterrent against Turkey <hl> .[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years."}
{"question": "Who gave Russia permission to have a military base in Gyumri?", "paragraph": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "answer": "Armenian government", "sentence": "At the request of the Armenian government , Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. <hl> At the request of the Armenian government , Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. <hl> It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the <hl> Armenian government <hl>, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.", "sentence_answer": "At the request of the <hl> Armenian government <hl> , Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years."}
{"question": "How many of Armenias inhabitants approve of becoming part of the EU?", "paragraph": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "answer": "64%", "sentence": "A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. <hl> A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. <hl> Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that <hl> 64% <hl> of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "sentence_answer": "A 2005 survey reported that <hl> 64% <hl> of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU."}
{"question": "What is KFOR?", "paragraph": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "answer": "a NATO-led international force in Kosovo", "sentence": "Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo .", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. <hl> Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo . <hl> It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, <hl> a NATO-led international force in Kosovo <hl>. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "sentence_answer": "Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, <hl> a NATO-led international force in Kosovo <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are some states join Armenia in the Council of Europe?", "paragraph": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "answer": "France and Greece", "sentence": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece . <hl> A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as <hl> France and Greece <hl>. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as <hl> France and Greece <hl> ."}
{"question": "When can the EU expect Armenia to attempt to join it?", "paragraph": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "answer": "in a few years", "sentence": "Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years .[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. <hl> Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years .[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. <hl> It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership <hl> in a few years <hl>.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.", "sentence_answer": "Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership <hl> in a few years <hl> .[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo."}
{"question": "When was the Armenian military created?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "answer": "1991", "sentence": "The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. <hl> The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. <hl> The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "paragraph_answer": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in <hl> 1991 <hl> and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "sentence_answer": "The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in <hl> 1991 <hl> and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992."}
{"question": "When was the Ministry of Defence founded?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "answer": "1992", "sentence": "The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. <hl> The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992 . <hl> The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "paragraph_answer": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in <hl> 1992 <hl>. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "sentence_answer": "The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in <hl> 1992 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the four branches of the Armenian Armed Forces?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "answer": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard", "sentence": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. <hl> The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard <hl> comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard <hl> comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia."}
{"question": "Who is in charge of the the Armenian military?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "answer": "Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov", "sentence": "The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. <hl> The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently <hl> Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently <hl> Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who is in charge of the Ministry of Defence?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "answer": "Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan", "sentence": "The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan , while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. <hl> The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan , while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by <hl> Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan <hl>, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.", "sentence_answer": "The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by <hl> Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan <hl> , while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov."}
{"question": "What does CSTO stand for?", "paragraph": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "answer": "Collective Security Treaty Organisation", "sentence": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. <hl> It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is member of <hl> Collective Security Treaty Organisation <hl> (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia is member of <hl> Collective Security Treaty Organisation <hl> (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan."}
{"question": "What does EAPC stand for?", "paragraph": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "answer": "Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council", "sentence": "It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC).", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. <hl> It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). <hl> Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called <hl> Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council <hl> (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "sentence_answer": "It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called <hl> Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council <hl> (EAPC)."}
{"question": "Who else joins Armenia in the CSTO?", "paragraph": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "answer": "Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan", "sentence": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan . <hl> It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with <hl> Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan <hl>. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with <hl> Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Armenia remove its peacekeepers from Iraq?", "paragraph": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.", "answer": "October 2008", "sentence": "Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. <hl> Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until <hl> October 2008 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until <hl> October 2008 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many hamaynkner does Armenia have?", "paragraph": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "answer": "915", "sentence": "As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural.", "paragraph_sentence": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). <hl> As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. <hl> The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "paragraph_answer": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes <hl> 915 <hl> communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2007[update], Armenia includes <hl> 915 <hl> communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural."}
{"question": "How many districts does Yerevan have?", "paragraph": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "answer": "twelve", "sentence": "Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "paragraph_sentence": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. <hl> Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into <hl> twelve <hl> semi-autonomous districts.", "sentence_answer": "Additionally, Yerevan is divided into <hl> twelve <hl> semi-autonomous districts."}
{"question": "Does Armenia have more rural or uban hamaynker?", "paragraph": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "answer": "rural", "sentence": "As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural .", "paragraph_sentence": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). <hl> As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural . <hl> The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "paragraph_answer": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered <hl> rural <hl>. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "sentence_answer": "As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered <hl> rural <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the Armenian term for settlment?", "paragraph": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "answer": "bnakavayr", "sentence": "Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements ( bnakavayr er, singular bnakavayr).", "paragraph_sentence": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). <hl> Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements ( bnakavayr er, singular bnakavayr). <hl> Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "paragraph_answer": "Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (<hl> bnakavayr <hl>er, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.", "sentence_answer": "Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements ( <hl> bnakavayr <hl> er, singular bnakavayr)."}
{"question": "What group is opening a research center in Armenia?", "paragraph": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "answer": "Intel Corporation", "sentence": "Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. <hl> Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the <hl> Intel Corporation <hl> agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "Recently, the <hl> Intel Corporation <hl> agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia."}
{"question": "As opposed to an industry-based economy, what industry is Armenia moving to?", "paragraph": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "answer": "technology industry", "sentence": "Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. <hl> Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the <hl> technology industry <hl> in Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the <hl> technology industry <hl> in Armenia."}
{"question": "The Arnmenian economy depends primarily on what?", "paragraph": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "answer": "investment and support from Armenians abroad", "sentence": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad . <hl> Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "paragraph_answer": "The economy relies heavily on <hl> investment and support from Armenians abroad <hl>. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "The economy relies heavily on <hl> investment and support from Armenians abroad <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did Armenias industry-based economy consist of?", "paragraph": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "answer": "chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile", "sentence": "Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources.", "paragraph_sentence": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. <hl> Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. <hl> The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "paragraph_answer": "The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 <hl> chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile <hl> \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.", "sentence_answer": "Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based \u2013 <hl> chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile <hl> \u2013 and highly dependent on outside resources."}
{"question": "Was agriculture more important before or after Armenia left the Soviet Union?", "paragraph": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "answer": "After", "sentence": "After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment.", "paragraph_sentence": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. <hl> After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. <hl> This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. <hl> After <hl> independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> After <hl> independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment."}
{"question": "Why did agriculture become so significant for Armenia's economy?", "paragraph": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "answer": "food security needs", "sentence": "This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s.", "paragraph_sentence": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. <hl> This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. <hl> As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to <hl> food security needs <hl> of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "sentence_answer": "This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to <hl> food security needs <hl> of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s."}
{"question": "How much of total employment did agriculture account for at the end of the 1990s?", "paragraph": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "answer": "40%", "sentence": "After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment.", "paragraph_sentence": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. <hl> After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. <hl> This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than <hl> 40% <hl> of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "sentence_answer": "After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than <hl> 40% <hl> of total employment."}
{"question": "How much of the GDP has agriculture accounted for most recently?", "paragraph": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "answer": "20%", "sentence": "Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. <hl> After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "paragraph_answer": "Agriculture accounted for less than <hl> 20% <hl> of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.", "sentence_answer": "Agriculture accounted for less than <hl> 20% <hl> of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991."}
{"question": "How many people died because of the Spitak earthquake?", "paragraph": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "answer": "more than 25,000", "sentence": "In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt.", "paragraph_sentence": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. <hl> In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. <hl> The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "paragraph_answer": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed <hl> more than 25,000 <hl> people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "sentence_answer": "In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed <hl> more than 25,000 <hl> people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt."}
{"question": "When was the Spitak earthquake?", "paragraph": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "answer": "1988", "sentence": "In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt.", "paragraph_sentence": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. <hl> In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. <hl> The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "paragraph_answer": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the <hl> 1988 <hl> Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "sentence_answer": "In addition, the effects of the <hl> 1988 <hl> Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt."}
{"question": "How much did the Armenian GDP decrease from 1989-1993", "paragraph": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "answer": "60%", "sentence": "The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. <hl> The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. <hl> The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "paragraph_answer": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly <hl> 60% <hl> between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "sentence_answer": "The GDP fell nearly <hl> 60% <hl> between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth."}
{"question": "What is the national currency of Armenia?", "paragraph": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "answer": "the dram", "sentence": "The national currency, the dram , suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "paragraph_sentence": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. <hl> The national currency, the dram , suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, <hl> the dram <hl>, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.", "sentence_answer": "The national currency, <hl> the dram <hl> , suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993."}
{"question": "What did Armenia declare a cease-fire to in 1994?", "paragraph": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "answer": "Nagorno-Karabakh conflict", "sentence": "The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy.", "paragraph_sentence": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. <hl> The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. <hl> Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "paragraph_answer": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the <hl> Nagorno-Karabakh conflict <hl> has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "sentence_answer": "The 1994 cease-fire in the <hl> Nagorno-Karabakh conflict <hl> has also helped the economy."}
{"question": "Since when has Armenia experienced a positive growth in their economy?", "paragraph": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "answer": "1995", "sentence": "Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995 , building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years.", "paragraph_sentence": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. <hl> Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995 , building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. <hl> New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "paragraph_answer": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since <hl> 1995 <hl>, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia has had strong economic growth since <hl> 1995 <hl> , building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years."}
{"question": "What helped Armenia decrease inflation and create study growth in the economy?", "paragraph": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "answer": "economic reforms", "sentence": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. <hl> The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "paragraph_answer": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging <hl> economic reforms <hl> that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "sentence_answer": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging <hl> economic reforms <hl> that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth."}
{"question": "What is one of the newer sectors Armenia has in addition to agriculture?", "paragraph": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "answer": "precious-stone processing", "sentence": "New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "paragraph_sentence": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. <hl> New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as <hl> precious-stone processing <hl> and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.", "sentence_answer": "New sectors, such as <hl> precious-stone processing <hl> and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture."}
{"question": "What does IMF stand for?", "paragraph": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "answer": "International Monetary Fund", "sentence": "The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans.", "paragraph_sentence": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. <hl> The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. <hl> Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "paragraph_answer": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The <hl> International Monetary Fund <hl> (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> International Monetary Fund <hl> (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans."}
{"question": "What dos EBRD stand for?", "paragraph": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "answer": "European Bank for Reconstruction and Development", "sentence": "The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans.", "paragraph_sentence": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. <hl> The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. <hl> Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "paragraph_answer": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, <hl> European Bank for Reconstruction and Development <hl> (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "sentence_answer": "The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, <hl> European Bank for Reconstruction and Development <hl> (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans."}
{"question": "What does IFI stand for?", "paragraph": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "answer": "international financial institutions", "sentence": "The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans.", "paragraph_sentence": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. <hl> The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. <hl> Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "paragraph_answer": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other <hl> international financial institutions <hl> (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "sentence_answer": "The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other <hl> international financial institutions <hl> (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans."}
{"question": "How much in loans has Armenia received since 1993?", "paragraph": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "answer": "$1.1 billion", "sentence": "Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion .", "paragraph_sentence": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. <hl> Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion . <hl> These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "paragraph_answer": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed <hl> $1.1 billion <hl>. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "sentence_answer": "Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed <hl> $1.1 billion <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Armenia become a part of the World Trade Organization?", "paragraph": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "answer": "5 February 2003", "sentence": "The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003 .", "paragraph_sentence": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. <hl> The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003 . <hl> But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "paragraph_answer": "This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on <hl> 5 February 2003 <hl>. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.", "sentence_answer": "The government joined the World Trade Organization on <hl> 5 February 2003 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the unemployment rate in Armenia?", "paragraph": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "answer": "15%", "sentence": "However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15% , still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "paragraph_sentence": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. <hl> However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15% , still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around <hl> 15% <hl>, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "sentence_answer": "However, unemployment, which currently stands at around <hl> 15% <hl> , still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict."}
{"question": "To what does Armenia attribute it's high unemployment rate?", "paragraph": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "answer": "refugees from the Karabakh conflict", "sentence": "However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict .", "paragraph_sentence": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. <hl> However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of <hl> refugees from the Karabakh conflict <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of <hl> refugees from the Karabakh conflict <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Armenia establish a foreign investment law?", "paragraph": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "answer": "June 1994", "sentence": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994 , and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994 , and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. <hl> Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "paragraph_answer": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in <hl> June 1994 <hl>, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "sentence_answer": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in <hl> June 1994 <hl> , and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation."}
{"question": "When did Armenia establish a law on privatisation?", "paragraph": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "answer": "1997", "sentence": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997 , as well as a program of state property privatisation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997 , as well as a program of state property privatisation. <hl> Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "paragraph_answer": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in <hl> 1997 <hl>, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.", "sentence_answer": "A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in <hl> 1997 <hl> , as well as a program of state property privatisation."}
{"question": "What percent of Armenian children go to preschool?", "paragraph": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "answer": "35%", "sentence": "In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. <hl> In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. <hl> In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "paragraph_answer": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, <hl> 35% <hl> of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "sentence_answer": "In addition, <hl> 35% <hl> of eligible children attended preschools."}
{"question": "What is Armenia's biggest University?", "paragraph": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "answer": "Yerevan State University", "sentence": "In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University , had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. <hl> In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University , had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. <hl> Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "paragraph_answer": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, <hl> Yerevan State University <hl>, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "sentence_answer": "In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, <hl> Yerevan State University <hl> , had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law."}
{"question": "When did the National Polytechnic University of Armenia open?", "paragraph": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "answer": "1933", "sentence": "The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933 .", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. <hl> The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933 . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since <hl> 1933 <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since <hl> 1933 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many students did Yerevan State University have in 1992?", "paragraph": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "answer": "10,000", "sentence": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. <hl> In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "paragraph_answer": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per <hl> 10,000 <hl> population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "sentence_answer": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per <hl> 10,000 <hl> population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average."}
{"question": "How many teachers did Yerevan State University have in 1992?", "paragraph": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "answer": "1,300", "sentence": "Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. <hl> Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. <hl> The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "paragraph_answer": "In the 1988\u201389 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990\u201391 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about <hl> 1,300 <hl> teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.", "sentence_answer": "Its faculty numbered about <hl> 1,300 <hl> teachers and its student population about 10,000 students."}
{"question": "When was Yerevan State Medical University awarded the Order of Labor red Banner?", "paragraph": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "answer": "1980", "sentence": "In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. <hl> In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. <hl> In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In <hl> 1980 <hl> Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1980 <hl> Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science."}
{"question": "When was the Medical Institute formed?", "paragraph": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "answer": "1930", "sentence": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. <hl> In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in <hl> 1930 <hl> which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "sentence_answer": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in <hl> 1930 <hl> which was set up on the basis of medical faculty."}
{"question": "When was Yerevan State Medical Institute renamed to Yerevan State Medical University?", "paragraph": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "answer": "1995", "sentence": "In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. <hl> In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. <hl> Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In <hl> 1995 <hl> YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1995 <hl> YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor."}
{"question": "Who founded the Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia?", "paragraph": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "answer": "Mkhitar Heratsi", "sentence": "In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi , the famous medieval doctor.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. <hl> In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi , the famous medieval doctor. <hl> Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after <hl> Mkhitar Heratsi <hl>, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "sentence_answer": "In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after <hl> Mkhitar Heratsi <hl> , the famous medieval doctor."}
{"question": "Which doctor did the YSMU rename itself after?", "paragraph": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "answer": "Mkhitar Heratsi", "sentence": "In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi , the famous medieval doctor.", "paragraph_sentence": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. <hl> In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi , the famous medieval doctor. <hl> Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "paragraph_answer": "On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR \u2013 the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after <hl> Mkhitar Heratsi <hl>, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn S\u012bn\u0101 in Arabic medicine.", "sentence_answer": "In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after <hl> Mkhitar Heratsi <hl> , the famous medieval doctor."}
{"question": "Who is in charge of releasing the World Directory of Medical Schools?", "paragraph": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.", "answer": "WHO", "sentence": "Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO .", "paragraph_sentence": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. <hl> Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the <hl> WHO <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the <hl> WHO <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the foreign student department for Armenian diaspora created?", "paragraph": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.", "answer": "1957", "sentence": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. <hl> Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.", "paragraph_answer": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in <hl> 1957 <hl> later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.", "sentence_answer": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in <hl> 1957 <hl> later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began."}
{"question": "Armenian students attend YMSU with foreign students from where?", "paragraph": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.", "answer": "India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation", "sentence": "A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students.", "paragraph_sentence": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. <hl> A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. <hl> Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.", "paragraph_answer": "Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from <hl> India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation <hl> study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.", "sentence_answer": "A great number of foreign students from <hl> India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation <hl> study together with Armenian students."}
{"question": "What does OLPC stand for?", "paragraph": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "answer": "One Laptopschool Per child", "sentence": "Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "paragraph_sentence": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. <hl> Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 <hl> One Laptopschool Per child <hl> XO laptop-tablet schools.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 <hl> One Laptopschool Per child <hl> XO laptop-tablet schools."}
{"question": "What are the names of some of the other higher education organizations in Armenia?", "paragraph": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "answer": "American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan", "sentence": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan . <hl> The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "paragraph_answer": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the <hl> American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan <hl>. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "sentence_answer": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the <hl> American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are some of the graduate programs available at AUA?", "paragraph": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "answer": "Business and Law", "sentence": "The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law , among others.", "paragraph_sentence": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. <hl> The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law , among others. <hl> The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "paragraph_answer": "Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in <hl> Business and Law <hl>, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC \u2013 One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.", "sentence_answer": "The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in <hl> Business and Law <hl> , among others."}
{"question": "What are some examples of Armenian folk music instruments?", "paragraph": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "answer": "the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun", "sentence": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. <hl> Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "paragraph_answer": "Instruments like <hl> the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun <hl> are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "sentence_answer": "Instruments like <hl> the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun <hl> are commonly found in Armenian folk music."}
{"question": "Who created the Armenian alphabet?", "paragraph": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "answer": "Saint Mesrop Mashtots", "sentence": "Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots , the inventor of the Armenian alphabet.", "paragraph_sentence": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. <hl> Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots , the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. <hl> Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "paragraph_answer": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by <hl> Saint Mesrop Mashtots <hl>, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "sentence_answer": "Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by <hl> Saint Mesrop Mashtots <hl> , the inventor of the Armenian alphabet."}
{"question": "Who composed the Sabre Dance?", "paragraph": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "answer": "Aram Khatchaturian", "sentence": "Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "paragraph_sentence": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. <hl> Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer <hl> Aram Khatchaturian <hl> became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "sentence_answer": "Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer <hl> Aram Khatchaturian <hl> became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane."}
{"question": "What is known as one of the most prolific type of religious music in Armenia?", "paragraph": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "answer": "the Armenian chant", "sentence": "One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. <hl> One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. <hl> Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "paragraph_answer": "Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is <hl> the Armenian chant <hl> which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.", "sentence_answer": "One of the oldest types of Armenian music is <hl> the Armenian chant <hl> which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia."}
{"question": "What is kef?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "answer": "Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments", "sentence": "In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. <hl> In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. <hl> This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "paragraph_answer": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style <hl> Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments <hl> (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "sentence_answer": "In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style <hl> Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments <hl> (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular."}
{"question": "What did kef help do?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "answer": "preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia", "sentence": "This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia , and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. <hl> This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia , and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style <hl> preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia <hl>, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "sentence_answer": "This style <hl> preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia <hl> , and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated."}
{"question": "Where did the Armenians emigrate from?", "paragraph": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "answer": "Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries", "sentence": "This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. <hl> This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called \"kef\" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of <hl> Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries <hl> from which the Armenians emigrated.", "sentence_answer": "This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of <hl> Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries <hl> from which the Armenians emigrated."}
{"question": "Who is the most well know kef artist?", "paragraph": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "answer": "Richard Hagopian", "sentence": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. <hl> Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Richard Hagopian <hl> is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Richard Hagopian <hl> is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time."}
{"question": "What type of music had the biggest impact on the kef of the Vosbikian Band?", "paragraph": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "answer": "American Big Band Jazz", "sentence": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. <hl> Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "paragraph_answer": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular <hl> American Big Band Jazz <hl> of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "sentence_answer": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular <hl> American Big Band Jazz <hl> of the time."}
{"question": "When did Armenian pop music become popular?", "paragraph": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "answer": "the 1960s and 1970s", "sentence": "Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "paragraph_sentence": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. <hl> Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in <hl> the 1960s and 1970s <hl> with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "sentence_answer": "Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in <hl> the 1960s and 1970s <hl> with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry."}
{"question": "Who were some Armenian pop artists?", "paragraph": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "answer": "Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian", "sentence": "Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "paragraph_sentence": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. <hl> Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional \"kef\" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of \"kef music\" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as <hl> Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian <hl> performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.", "sentence_answer": "Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as <hl> Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian <hl> performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry."}
{"question": "What type of musician is Sahan Arzruni?", "paragraph": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "answer": "pianist", "sentence": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. <hl> Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "paragraph_answer": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, <hl> pianist <hl> Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "sentence_answer": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, <hl> pianist <hl> Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan."}
{"question": "What type of band was System of a Down?", "paragraph": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "answer": "heavy metal", "sentence": "Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher.", "paragraph_sentence": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. <hl> Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. <hl> In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "paragraph_answer": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the <hl> heavy metal <hl> band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "sentence_answer": "Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the <hl> heavy metal <hl> band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher."}
{"question": "What type of songs do armenian youth prefer?", "paragraph": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "answer": "Armenian revolutionary songs", "sentence": "In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. <hl> In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. <hl> These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "paragraph_answer": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, <hl> Armenian revolutionary songs <hl> are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "sentence_answer": "In the Armenian diaspora, <hl> Armenian revolutionary songs <hl> are popular with the youth."}
{"question": "What topics do armenian revolutionary songs usually encompass?", "paragraph": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.", "answer": "Armenian history and national heroes", "sentence": "These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes .", "paragraph_sentence": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. <hl> These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about <hl> Armenian history and national heroes <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about <hl> Armenian history and national heroes <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is Obsidian used for?", "paragraph": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "answer": "jewellery and ornamental objects", "sentence": "Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects .", "paragraph_sentence": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. <hl> Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects . <hl> Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "paragraph_answer": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of <hl> jewellery and ornamental objects <hl>. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "sentence_answer": "Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of <hl> jewellery and ornamental objects <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are some examples of soviet memorabilia that can be purchased at Vernissage?", "paragraph": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "answer": "nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes", "sentence": "Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "paragraph_sentence": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. <hl> Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 <hl> nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes <hl> and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "sentence_answer": "Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 <hl> nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes <hl> and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage."}
{"question": "What types of crafts can be purchased at Vernissage?", "paragraph": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "answer": "woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims", "sentence": "The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty.", "paragraph_sentence": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). <hl> The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. <hl> Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "paragraph_answer": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers <hl> woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims <hl> that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "sentence_answer": "The market offers <hl> woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims <hl> that are a Caucasus specialty."}
{"question": "What is Vernissage?", "paragraph": "Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "answer": "arts and crafts market", "sentence": "Yerevan Vernissage ( arts and crafts market ), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Yerevan Vernissage ( arts and crafts market ), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). <hl> The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "paragraph_answer": "Yerevan Vernissage (<hl> arts and crafts market <hl>), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture \u2013 nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on \u2013 are also available at the Vernisage.", "sentence_answer": "Yerevan Vernissage ( <hl> arts and crafts market <hl> ), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week)."}
{"question": "How many pieces can be found in the Yerevan National Art Gallery?", "paragraph": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "answer": "more than 16,000", "sentence": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. <hl> It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "paragraph_answer": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has <hl> more than 16,000 <hl> works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "sentence_answer": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has <hl> more than 16,000 <hl> works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times."}
{"question": "Where other than the National Art Gallery can one find art on display in Yerevan?", "paragraph": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "answer": "The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum", "sentence": "The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan.", "paragraph_sentence": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. <hl> The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. <hl> Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "paragraph_answer": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. <hl> The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum <hl> are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum <hl> are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan."}
{"question": "What is the earliest period the National Art Gallery has pieces from?", "paragraph": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "answer": "the Middle Ages", "sentence": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages , which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages , which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. <hl> It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "paragraph_answer": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to <hl> the Middle Ages <hl>, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children\u2019s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.", "sentence_answer": "The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to <hl> the Middle Ages <hl> , which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times."}
{"question": "Which lake is most popular for water sports in Armenia?", "paragraph": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "answer": "Lake Sevan", "sentence": "Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan .", "paragraph_sentence": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. <hl> Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan . <hl> Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "paragraph_answer": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably <hl> Lake Sevan <hl>. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "sentence_answer": "Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably <hl> Lake Sevan <hl> ."}
{"question": "What international sports has Armenia done well at?", "paragraph": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "answer": "chess, weightlifting and wrestling", "sentence": "Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level.", "paragraph_sentence": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. <hl> Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. <hl> Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "paragraph_answer": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in <hl> chess, weightlifting and wrestling <hl> at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "sentence_answer": "Competitively, Armenia has been successful in <hl> chess, weightlifting and wrestling <hl> at the international level."}
{"question": "What does IIHF stand for?", "paragraph": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "answer": "Ice Hockey Federation", "sentence": "Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF).", "paragraph_sentence": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. <hl> Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). <hl> It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "paragraph_answer": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International <hl> Ice Hockey Federation <hl> (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International <hl> Ice Hockey Federation <hl> (IIHF)."}
{"question": "Which Games does Armenia hold?", "paragraph": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.", "answer": "Pan-Armenian Games", "sentence": "It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games .", "paragraph_sentence": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). <hl> It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the <hl> Pan-Armenian Games <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "It also hosts the <hl> Pan-Armenian Games <hl> ."}
{"question": "What Olympic Sport did Hrant Shahinyan compete in?", "paragraph": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "answer": "gymnastics", "sentence": "The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki.", "paragraph_sentence": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. <hl> The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. <hl> To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "paragraph_answer": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in <hl> gymnastics <hl> at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "sentence_answer": "The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in <hl> gymnastics <hl> at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki."}
{"question": "What medals did Hrant Shahinyan win at the 1952 Summer Olympics?", "paragraph": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "answer": "two golds and two silvers", "sentence": "The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki.", "paragraph_sentence": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. <hl> The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. <hl> To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "paragraph_answer": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won <hl> two golds and two silvers <hl> in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "sentence_answer": "The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won <hl> two golds and two silvers <hl> in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki."}
{"question": "Where were the 1952 Summer Olympics held?", "paragraph": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "answer": "Helsinki", "sentence": "The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki .", "paragraph_sentence": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. <hl> The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki . <hl> To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "paragraph_answer": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in <hl> Helsinki <hl>. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "sentence_answer": "The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in <hl> Helsinki <hl> ."}
{"question": "What year did Armenia begin competiting in the Olympics seperate from the USSR?", "paragraph": "Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "answer": "1992", "sentence": "Prior to 1992 , Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Prior to 1992 , Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. <hl> As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "paragraph_answer": "Prior to <hl> 1992 <hl>, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:", "sentence_answer": "Prior to <hl> 1992 <hl> , Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR."}
{"question": "What team won the Soviet football Cup in 1973 and 1975?", "paragraph": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "answer": "FC Ararat Yerevan team", "sentence": "The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973.", "paragraph_sentence": "Football is also popular in Armenia. <hl> The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. <hl> The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "paragraph_answer": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the <hl> FC Ararat Yerevan team <hl> of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "sentence_answer": "The most successful team was the <hl> FC Ararat Yerevan team <hl> of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973."}
{"question": "Which team did the FC Ararat lose to in the European Cup?", "paragraph": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "answer": "FC Bayern Munich", "sentence": "The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich .", "paragraph_sentence": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. <hl> The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich . <hl> Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "paragraph_answer": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner <hl> FC Bayern Munich <hl>. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "sentence_answer": "The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner <hl> FC Bayern Munich <hl> ."}
{"question": "What FIFA ranking did Armenia hold in 2011?", "paragraph": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "answer": "44th", "sentence": "Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011.", "paragraph_sentence": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. <hl> Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. <hl> The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "paragraph_answer": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve <hl> 44th <hl> position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "sentence_answer": "Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve <hl> 44th <hl> position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011."}
{"question": "How many teams does the Armenian Premier League have?", "paragraph": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "answer": "eight teams", "sentence": "The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "paragraph_sentence": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. <hl> The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where \u2013 despite a home victory in the second leg \u2013 they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of <hl> eight teams <hl> and relegates to the Armenian First League.", "sentence_answer": "The league currently consists of <hl> eight teams <hl> and relegates to the Armenian First League."}
{"question": "Who provided the funds to rebuild the Armenian sports schools?", "paragraph": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "answer": "the Armenian government", "sentence": "The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government .", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. <hl> The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government . <hl> $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by <hl> the Armenian government <hl>. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "sentence_answer": "The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by <hl> the Armenian government <hl> ."}
{"question": "What year did Yerevan create a cyclying center?", "paragraph": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "answer": "2005", "sentence": "In 2005 , a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. <hl> In 2005 , a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. <hl> The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In <hl> 2005 <hl>, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 2005 <hl> , a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists."}
{"question": "What prize do Armenians receive from the government if they win a gold medal?", "paragraph": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "answer": "$700,000", "sentence": "The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. <hl> The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of <hl> $700,000 <hl> to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "sentence_answer": "The government has also promised a cash reward of <hl> $700,000 <hl> to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics."}
{"question": "How much money was spent to revamp Tsaghkadzor for winter sports?", "paragraph": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "answer": "$9.3 million", "sentence": "$9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. <hl> $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. <hl> In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. <hl> $9.3 million <hl> has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> $9.3 million <hl> has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events."}
{"question": "How much did Armenia spend to fix up their sports schools?", "paragraph": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "answer": "$1.9 million", "sentence": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million . <hl> The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of <hl> $1.9 million <hl>. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.", "sentence_answer": "Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of <hl> $1.9 million <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of food is Armenian food most similair to?", "paragraph": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "answer": "eastern and Mediterranean cuisine", "sentence": "Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine , various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. <hl> Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine , various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. <hl> The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to <hl> eastern and Mediterranean cuisine <hl>, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "sentence_answer": "Closely related to <hl> eastern and Mediterranean cuisine <hl> , various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes."}
{"question": "What does Armenian cuisine place an emphasis on?", "paragraph": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "answer": "quality of the ingredients", "sentence": "The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. <hl> The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the <hl> quality of the ingredients <hl> rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "sentence_answer": "The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the <hl> quality of the ingredients <hl> rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves."}
{"question": "What does Armenian cuisine use to create its distinctive dishes?", "paragraph": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "answer": "various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits", "sentence": "Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. <hl> Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. <hl> The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "paragraph_answer": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, <hl> various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits <hl> combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "sentence_answer": "Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, <hl> various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits <hl> combine to present unique dishes."}
{"question": "What different uses does fruit have in Armenian food?", "paragraph": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "answer": "main ingredient as well as to sour food", "sentence": "The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food ), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "paragraph_sentence": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. <hl> The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food ), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a <hl> main ingredient as well as to sour food <hl>), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.", "sentence_answer": "The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a <hl> main ingredient as well as to sour food <hl> ), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves."}
{"question": "What is a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms?", "paragraph": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "answer": "Bacteria", "sentence": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. <hl> Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Bacteria <hl> (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Bacteria <hl> (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms."}
{"question": "What configurations can bacteria can bacteria take?", "paragraph": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "answer": "spheres to rods and spirals", "sentence": "Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. <hl> Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals . <hl> Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from <hl> spheres to rods and spirals <hl>. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "sentence_answer": "Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from <hl> spheres to rods and spirals <hl> ."}
{"question": "When is the typical lenght for bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "answer": "few micrometres", "sentence": "Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. <hl> Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. <hl> Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a <hl> few micrometres <hl> in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "sentence_answer": "Typically a <hl> few micrometres <hl> in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals."}
{"question": "What environments can bacteria live?", "paragraph": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "answer": "present in most of its habitats", "sentence": "Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. <hl> Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats . <hl> Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are <hl> present in most of its habitats <hl>. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are <hl> present in most of its habitats <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the relationships between plants animals and bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "answer": "symbiotic and parasitic relationships", "sentence": "Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. <hl> Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. <hl> They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria (i/b\u00e6k\u02c8t\u026a\u0259ri\u0259/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in <hl> symbiotic and parasitic relationships <hl> with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria also live in <hl> symbiotic and parasitic relationships <hl> with plants and animals."}
{"question": "What amount of bacteria can be found in a gram of soil?", "paragraph": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "answer": "40 million bacterial cells", "sentence": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. <hl> There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "paragraph_answer": "There are typically <hl> 40 million bacterial cells <hl> in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "sentence_answer": "There are typically <hl> 40 million bacterial cells <hl> in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water."}
{"question": "How many bacteria cells can be in a milliltre of fresh water?", "paragraph": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "answer": "million bacterial cells", "sentence": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. <hl> There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "paragraph_answer": "There are typically 40 <hl> million bacterial cells <hl> in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "sentence_answer": "There are typically 40 <hl> million bacterial cells <hl> in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water."}
{"question": "How does bacteria help to sustain life in hydrothermal vents and cold seeps?", "paragraph": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "answer": "by converting dissolved compounds", "sentence": "In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds , such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. <hl> In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds , such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. <hl> On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "paragraph_answer": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life <hl> by converting dissolved compounds <hl>, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "sentence_answer": "In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life <hl> by converting dissolved compounds <hl> , such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy."}
{"question": "What deepest part of the ocean was bacteria found?", "paragraph": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "answer": "Mariana Trench", "sentence": "On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench , which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. <hl> On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench , which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. <hl> Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "paragraph_answer": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the <hl> Mariana Trench <hl>, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "sentence_answer": "On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the <hl> Mariana Trench <hl> , which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans."}
{"question": "Can bacteria survive inside rocks under the sea level?", "paragraph": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "answer": "thrive inside rocks", "sentence": "Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. <hl> Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. <hl> According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "paragraph_answer": "There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5\u00d71030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes <hl> thrive inside rocks <hl> up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, \"You can find microbes everywhere \u2014 they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are.\"", "sentence_answer": "Other researchers reported related studies that microbes <hl> thrive inside rocks <hl> up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States."}
{"question": "What is the ratio of human/bacteria cells in human flora?", "paragraph": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "answer": "ten times as many bacterial cells", "sentence": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. <hl> The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "There are approximately <hl> ten times as many bacterial cells <hl> in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "sentence_answer": "There are approximately <hl> ten times as many bacterial cells <hl> in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin."}
{"question": "What keeps bacteria at bay in human body?", "paragraph": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "answer": "the immune system", "sentence": "The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system , and some are beneficial.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. <hl> The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system , and some are beneficial. <hl> However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of <hl> the immune system <hl>, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "sentence_answer": "The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of <hl> the immune system <hl> , and some are beneficial."}
{"question": "What type of bacteria can cause infectious diseases?", "paragraph": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "answer": "pathogenic", "sentence": "However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. <hl> However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. <hl> The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are <hl> pathogenic <hl> and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "sentence_answer": "However, several species of bacteria are <hl> pathogenic <hl> and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague."}
{"question": "What are the deadliest diseases caused by bacteria?", "paragraph": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "answer": "respiratory infections", "sentence": "The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections , with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. <hl> The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections , with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. <hl> In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are <hl> respiratory infections <hl>, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "sentence_answer": "The most common fatal bacterial diseases are <hl> respiratory infections <hl> , with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa."}
{"question": "What makes bacteria resistant to antibiotic treatment?", "paragraph": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "answer": "farming", "sentence": "In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming , making antibiotic resistance a growing problem.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. <hl> In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming , making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. <hl> In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in <hl> farming <hl>, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.", "sentence_answer": "In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in <hl> farming <hl> , making antibiotic resistance a growing problem."}
{"question": "What living organisms are bacteria being reffered as?", "paragraph": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "answer": "prokaryotes", "sentence": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes . <hl> Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "paragraph_answer": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as <hl> prokaryotes <hl>. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "sentence_answer": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as <hl> prokaryotes <hl> ."}
{"question": "What vital part is missing in bacteria to eukaryotes?", "paragraph": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "answer": "nucleus", "sentence": "Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles.", "paragraph_sentence": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. <hl> Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. <hl> Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "paragraph_answer": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a <hl> nucleus <hl> and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "sentence_answer": "Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a <hl> nucleus <hl> and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles."}
{"question": "When did the scientific classification change?", "paragraph": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "answer": "1990s", "sentence": "Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor.", "paragraph_sentence": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. <hl> Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. <hl> These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "paragraph_answer": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the <hl> 1990s <hl> that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "sentence_answer": "Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the <hl> 1990s <hl> that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor."}
{"question": "What are two main groups prokaryotes can be divided into?", "paragraph": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.", "answer": "Bacteria and Archaea", "sentence": "These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea .", "paragraph_sentence": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. <hl> These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called <hl> Bacteria and Archaea <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "These evolutionary domains are called <hl> Bacteria and Archaea <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the first antecedents of bacteria appear on Earth?", "paragraph": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "answer": "4 billion years ago", "sentence": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago . <hl> For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "paragraph_answer": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about <hl> 4 billion years ago <hl>. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "sentence_answer": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about <hl> 4 billion years ago <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why were bacteria and archaea dominant forms of life?", "paragraph": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "answer": "most organisms were microscopic", "sentence": "For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic , and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. <hl> For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic , and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. <hl> In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "paragraph_answer": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, <hl> most organisms were microscopic <hl>, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "sentence_answer": "For about 3 billion years, <hl> most organisms were microscopic <hl> , and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life."}
{"question": "What are Stromatolites?", "paragraph": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "answer": "bacterial fossils", "sentence": "Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. <hl> Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. <hl> However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "paragraph_answer": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although <hl> bacterial fossils <hl> exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "sentence_answer": "Although <hl> bacterial fossils <hl> exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species."}
{"question": "What pre-historic group did bacteria evolve from?", "paragraph": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "answer": "archaeal/eukaryotic lineage", "sentence": "However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage .", "paragraph_sentence": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. <hl> However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage . <hl> Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "paragraph_answer": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the <hl> archaeal/eukaryotic lineage <hl>. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "sentence_answer": "However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the <hl> archaeal/eukaryotic lineage <hl> ."}
{"question": "How did chloroplast appear in first vegetation?", "paragraph": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "answer": "mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms", "sentence": "Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms .", "paragraph_sentence": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). <hl> Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms . <hl> This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "paragraph_answer": "The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient \"amitochondrial\" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained <hl> mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms <hl>. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a \"second-generation\" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.", "sentence_answer": "Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained <hl> mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms <hl> ."}
{"question": "Are bacteria cells smaller than eukaryotic cells?", "paragraph": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "answer": "one-tenth the size", "sentence": "Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. <hl> Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. <hl> However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about <hl> one-tenth the size <hl> of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial cells are about <hl> one-tenth the size <hl> of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length."}
{"question": "What is the common name for shapes and forms of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "answer": "morphologies", "sentence": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies . <hl> Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called <hl> morphologies <hl>. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called <hl> morphologies <hl> ."}
{"question": "How big is Epulopiscium bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "answer": "0.7 mm", "sentence": "However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. <hl> However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm . <hl> Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches <hl> 0.7 mm <hl>. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "sentence_answer": "However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches <hl> 0.7 mm <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are one of the smallest bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "answer": "genus Mycoplasma", "sentence": "Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma , which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. <hl> Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma , which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. <hl> Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the <hl> genus Mycoplasma <hl>, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "sentence_answer": "Among the smallest bacteria are members of the <hl> genus Mycoplasma <hl> , which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses."}
{"question": "Is ultramicrobacteria is well examined?", "paragraph": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.", "answer": "not well-studied", "sentence": "Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. <hl> Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5\u20135.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye \u2014 for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are <hl> not well-studied <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are <hl> not well-studied <hl> ."}
{"question": "What shape does usually cocci type of bacteria can be?", "paragraph": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "answer": "spherical", "sentence": "Most bacterial species are either spherical , called cocci (sing.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Most bacterial species are either spherical , called cocci (sing. <hl> coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacterial species are either <hl> spherical <hl>, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "sentence_answer": "Most bacterial species are either <hl> spherical <hl> , called cocci (sing."}
{"question": "What type of bacteria usually takes rod-shaped form?", "paragraph": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "answer": "bacilli", "sentence": "coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. <hl> coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. <hl> bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called <hl> bacilli <hl> (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "sentence_answer": "coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called <hl> bacilli <hl> (sing."}
{"question": "What shape Spirochaetes are?", "paragraph": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "answer": "tightly coiled", "sentence": "Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled , called spirochaetes.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. <hl> Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled , called spirochaetes. <hl> A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or <hl> tightly coiled <hl>, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "sentence_answer": "Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or <hl> tightly coiled <hl> , called spirochaetes."}
{"question": "What shape was newly discovered bacteria from deep under Earth?", "paragraph": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "answer": "branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section", "sentence": "More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section .", "paragraph_sentence": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. <hl> More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section . <hl> The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as <hl> branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section <hl>. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "sentence_answer": "More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as <hl> branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section <hl> ."}
{"question": "Can shape of bacteria be beneficial to their survival?", "paragraph": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "answer": "can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients", "sentence": "This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients , attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. <hl> This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients , attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek k\u00f3kkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it <hl> can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients <hl>, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.", "sentence_answer": "This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it <hl> can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients <hl> , attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators."}
{"question": "What is the usual form for Neiserria bacteria?", "paragraph": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "answer": "diploids (pairs)", "sentence": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs) , Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs) , Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. <hl> Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "paragraph_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form <hl> diploids (pairs) <hl>, Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "sentence_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form <hl> diploids (pairs) <hl> , Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters."}
{"question": "What type of bacteria is surrounded by a capsule?", "paragraph": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "answer": "Filamentous bacteria", "sentence": "Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. <hl> Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. <hl> Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "paragraph_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. <hl> Filamentous bacteria <hl> are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Filamentous bacteria <hl> are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells."}
{"question": "What well known bacteria structure chains?", "paragraph": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "answer": "Streptococcus", "sentence": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. <hl> Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "paragraph_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), <hl> Streptococcus <hl> form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "sentence_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), <hl> Streptococcus <hl> form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters."}
{"question": "What does typically Staphylococcus look like?", "paragraph": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "answer": "clusters", "sentence": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters . <hl> Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "paragraph_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" <hl> clusters <hl>. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "sentence_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" <hl> clusters <hl> ."}
{"question": "Formation of what can be related to fungal mycelia?", "paragraph": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "answer": "branched filaments", "sentence": "Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments , similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. <hl> Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments , similar in appearance to fungal mycelia. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in \"bunch of grapes\" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, <hl> branched filaments <hl>, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.", "sentence_answer": "Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, <hl> branched filaments <hl> , similar in appearance to fungal mycelia."}
{"question": "What does bacteria use to adhere to surfaces?", "paragraph": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "answer": "biofilms", "sentence": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. <hl> These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called <hl> biofilms <hl> or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called <hl> biofilms <hl> or bacterial mats."}
{"question": "How extent can biofilm be?", "paragraph": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "answer": "up to half a meter in depth", "sentence": "These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth , and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. <hl> These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth , and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. <hl> Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to <hl> up to half a meter in depth <hl>, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to <hl> up to half a meter in depth <hl> , and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea."}
{"question": "What is part of secondary structure in the complex formation of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "answer": "microcolonies,", "sentence": "Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. <hl> Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. <hl> In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as <hl> microcolonies, <hl> through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as <hl> microcolonies, <hl> through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients."}
{"question": "What is the purpose of networks of channels in microcolonies?", "paragraph": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "answer": "to enable better diffusion of nutrients", "sentence": "Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. <hl> Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients . <hl> In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels <hl> to enable better diffusion of nutrients <hl>. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels <hl> to enable better diffusion of nutrients <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which bacteria is more difficult to eradicate?", "paragraph": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "answer": "bacteria protected within biofilms", "sentence": "Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. <hl> Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and <hl> bacteria protected within biofilms <hl> are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and <hl> bacteria protected within biofilms <hl> are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria."}
{"question": "What is the vital nutriment for Myxobacteria?", "paragraph": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "answer": "amino acids", "sentence": "For example, when starved of amino acids , Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells.", "paragraph_sentence": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. <hl> For example, when starved of amino acids , Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. <hl> In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of <hl> amino acids <hl>, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "sentence_answer": "For example, when starved of <hl> amino acids <hl> , Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells."}
{"question": "Why do cells of Myxobacteria migrate towards each other?", "paragraph": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "answer": "aggregate to form fruiting bodies", "sentence": "For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells.", "paragraph_sentence": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. <hl> For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. <hl> In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and <hl> aggregate to form fruiting bodies <hl> up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "sentence_answer": "For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and <hl> aggregate to form fruiting bodies <hl> up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells."}
{"question": "How hard to treat bacteria cells in a passive state?", "paragraph": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "answer": "more resistant", "sentence": "For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "paragraph_sentence": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. <hl> For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are <hl> more resistant <hl> to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "sentence_answer": "For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are <hl> more resistant <hl> to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells."}
{"question": "What bacteria do in fruiting bodies?", "paragraph": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "answer": "multicellular organisation", "sentence": "In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation .", "paragraph_sentence": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. <hl> In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation . <hl> For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of <hl> multicellular organisation <hl>. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.", "sentence_answer": "In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of <hl> multicellular organisation <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is a cell membrane?", "paragraph": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "answer": "lipid", "sentence": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid , cytoplasmic or plasma membrane).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid , cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). <hl> This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "paragraph_answer": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a <hl> lipid <hl>, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "sentence_answer": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a <hl> lipid <hl> , cytoplasmic or plasma membrane)."}
{"question": "What does membrane accomplish?", "paragraph": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "answer": "barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components", "sentence": "This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell.", "paragraph_sentence": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). <hl> This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. <hl> As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "paragraph_answer": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a <hl> barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components <hl> of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "sentence_answer": "This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a <hl> barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components <hl> of the cytoplasm within the cell."}
{"question": "Do bacteria have membrabe-bound organelles in their cytoplasm?", "paragraph": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "answer": "do not", "sentence": "As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures.", "paragraph_sentence": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. <hl> As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. <hl> They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "paragraph_answer": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria <hl> do not <hl> usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "sentence_answer": "As they are prokaryotes, bacteria <hl> do not <hl> usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures."}
{"question": "Absence of what make bacteria belong to prokaryotes?", "paragraph": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "answer": "true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles", "sentence": "They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells.", "paragraph_sentence": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. <hl> They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. <hl> Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "paragraph_answer": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a <hl> true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles <hl> present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "sentence_answer": "They lack a <hl> true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles <hl> present in eukaryotic cells."}
{"question": "What bacteria was observed as before prokaryotic cytoskeleton was discovered?", "paragraph": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "answer": "simple bags of cytoplasm", "sentence": "Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm , but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered.", "paragraph_sentence": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. <hl> Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm , but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. <hl> These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "paragraph_answer": "The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as <hl> simple bags of cytoplasm <hl>, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called \"bacterial hyperstructures\".", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria were once seen as <hl> simple bags of cytoplasm <hl> , but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered."}
{"question": "What is crucial for biochemical reactions?", "paragraph": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "answer": "concentration gradients across membranes", "sentence": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes . <hl> The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "paragraph_answer": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use <hl> concentration gradients across membranes <hl>. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "sentence_answer": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use <hl> concentration gradients across membranes <hl> ."}
{"question": "What kind of membrane do bacteria cells are filled with?", "paragraph": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "answer": "light-gathering membrane", "sentence": "However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane .", "paragraph_sentence": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. <hl> However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane . <hl> These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "paragraph_answer": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of <hl> light-gathering membrane <hl>. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "sentence_answer": "However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of <hl> light-gathering membrane <hl> ."}
{"question": "How does electron transit occur in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "answer": "between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space", "sentence": "The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space .", "paragraph_sentence": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. <hl> The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space . <hl> However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "paragraph_answer": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane <hl> between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space <hl>. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "sentence_answer": "The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane <hl> between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space <hl> ."}
{"question": "Can membrane of bacteria create lipid structure?", "paragraph": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "answer": "light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures", "sentence": "These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. <hl> These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. <hl> Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "paragraph_answer": "Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These <hl> light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures <hl> called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.", "sentence_answer": "These <hl> light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures <hl> called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria."}
{"question": "What is genetic make of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "answer": "a single circular DNA chromosome", "sentence": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. <hl> The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically <hl> a single circular DNA chromosome <hl> located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically <hl> a single circular DNA chromosome <hl> located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid."}
{"question": "Where is DNA chromosome of bacteria located?", "paragraph": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "answer": "in the cytoplasm", "sentence": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. <hl> The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located <hl> in the cytoplasm <hl> in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located <hl> in the cytoplasm <hl> in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid."}
{"question": "How does nucleoid look?", "paragraph": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "answer": "irregularly shaped body", "sentence": "an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in <hl> an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. <hl> The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an <hl> irregularly shaped body <hl> called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "sentence_answer": "an <hl> irregularly shaped body <hl> called the nucleoid."}
{"question": "What are the exceptions of non-internal membrane bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "answer": "phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria", "sentence": "The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. <hl> The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. <hl> Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The <hl> phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria <hl> may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria <hl> may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures."}
{"question": "What is the purpose of polyribosomes in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "answer": "production of proteins", "sentence": "Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins , but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. <hl> Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins , but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. <hl> Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the <hl> production of proteins <hl>, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.", "sentence_answer": "Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the <hl> production of proteins <hl> , but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea."}
{"question": "What types of intracellar nutrient can bacteria produce?", "paragraph": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "answer": "glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates", "sentence": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates . <hl> Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "paragraph_answer": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as <hl> glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates <hl>. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "sentence_answer": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as <hl> glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates <hl> ."}
{"question": "What gas vacuoles are respoonsible for in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "answer": "to control their buoyancy", "sentence": "They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy .", "paragraph_sentence": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. <hl> They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy . <hl> Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "paragraph_answer": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria <hl> to control their buoyancy <hl>. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "sentence_answer": "They allow the bacteria <hl> to control their buoyancy <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the most common nonliving compositions in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "answer": "glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments", "sentence": "The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments .", "paragraph_sentence": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. <hl> The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments . <hl> Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "paragraph_answer": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are <hl> glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments <hl>. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "sentence_answer": "The most common inclusions are <hl> glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments <hl> ."}
{"question": "How does gas vesicles produced by Cyanobacteria help her to move in water?", "paragraph": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "answer": "move up or down into water layers with different light intensities", "sentence": "Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels.", "paragraph_sentence": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. <hl> Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. <hl> Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "paragraph_answer": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to <hl> move up or down into water layers with different light intensities <hl> and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "sentence_answer": "Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to <hl> move up or down into water layers with different light intensities <hl> and nutrient levels."}
{"question": "What are chromatophores used for?", "paragraph": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "answer": "photosynthesis", "sentence": "Used primarily for photosynthesis , they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids.", "paragraph_sentence": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. <hl> Used primarily for photosynthesis , they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. <hl> An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "paragraph_answer": "Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy \u2013 allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for <hl> photosynthesis <hl>, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.", "sentence_answer": "Used primarily for <hl> photosynthesis <hl> , they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids."}
{"question": "What composes the cell envelope?", "paragraph": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "answer": "cell membrane and cell wall", "sentence": "The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope.", "paragraph_sentence": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. <hl> The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. <hl> A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "paragraph_answer": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The <hl> cell membrane and cell wall <hl> comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> cell membrane and cell wall <hl> comprise the cell envelope."}
{"question": "What is most common cell wall material?", "paragraph": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "answer": "peptidoglycan", "sentence": "A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids.", "paragraph_sentence": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. <hl> A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. <hl> Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "paragraph_answer": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is <hl> peptidoglycan <hl> (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "sentence_answer": "A common bacterial cell wall material is <hl> peptidoglycan <hl> (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids."}
{"question": "Are cell walls of bacteria similar to cell walls of plants and fungi?", "paragraph": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "answer": "Bacterial cell walls are different", "sentence": "Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively.", "paragraph_sentence": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. <hl> Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. <hl> The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "paragraph_answer": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. <hl> Bacterial cell walls are different <hl> from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Bacterial cell walls are different <hl> from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively."}
{"question": "How can antibiotic penicillin destroy bacteria?", "paragraph": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "answer": "by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan", "sentence": "The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan .", "paragraph_sentence": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. <hl> The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria <hl> by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria <hl> by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the main materials of cell walls of plants and fungi?", "paragraph": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "answer": "cellulose and chitin", "sentence": "Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin , respectively.", "paragraph_sentence": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. <hl> Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin , respectively. <hl> The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "paragraph_answer": "In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called \"murein\" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of <hl> cellulose and chitin <hl>, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of <hl> cellulose and chitin <hl> , respectively."}
{"question": "What does gram-positive bacteria have?", "paragraph": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "answer": "thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids", "sentence": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids . <hl> In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "paragraph_answer": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a <hl> thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids <hl>. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "sentence_answer": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a <hl> thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why gram-negative cell bacteria is more toxic than gram-positive bacteria?", "paragraph": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "answer": "polysaccharides and lipid A", "sentence": "Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. <hl> Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. <hl> Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "paragraph_answer": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of <hl> polysaccharides and lipid A <hl> that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "sentence_answer": "Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of <hl> polysaccharides and lipid A <hl> that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria."}
{"question": "What can be endotoxins called?", "paragraph": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "answer": "Lipopolysaccharides", "sentence": "Lipopolysaccharides , also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. <hl> Lipopolysaccharides , also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. <hl> Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "paragraph_answer": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. <hl> Lipopolysaccharides <hl>, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Lipopolysaccharides <hl> , also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria."}
{"question": "What can different structure of the cell walls of bacteria effect?", "paragraph": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "answer": "differences in antibiotic susceptibility", "sentence": "These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility ; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. <hl> These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility ; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. <hl> If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "paragraph_answer": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce <hl> differences in antibiotic susceptibility <hl>; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "sentence_answer": "These differences in structure can produce <hl> differences in antibiotic susceptibility <hl> ; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa."}
{"question": "What is the main defense of human body against eye infections?", "paragraph": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "answer": "enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears", "sentence": "The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears , also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "paragraph_sentence": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. <hl> The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears , also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. \u03b2-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The <hl> enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears <hl>, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears <hl> , also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections."}
{"question": "What is the most typical staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria?", "paragraph": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "answer": "Ziehl-Neelsen stain", "sentence": "The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background.", "paragraph_sentence": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. <hl> The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. <hl> L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "paragraph_answer": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the <hl> Ziehl-Neelsen stain <hl> or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "sentence_answer": "The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the <hl> Ziehl-Neelsen stain <hl> or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background."}
{"question": "What is mycolic acid is responsible for in Mycobacteria?", "paragraph": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "answer": "staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention.", "sentence": "The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background.", "paragraph_sentence": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. <hl> The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. <hl> L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "paragraph_answer": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the <hl> staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. <hl> The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "sentence_answer": "The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the <hl> staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. <hl> The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background."}
{"question": "What helps Mycobacteria be resistant to decolorization?", "paragraph": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "answer": "high mycolic acid content", "sentence": "The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention.", "paragraph_sentence": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. <hl> The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. <hl> The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "paragraph_answer": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The <hl> high mycolic acid content <hl> of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> high mycolic acid content <hl> of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention."}
{"question": "What is the main pathogenic bacteria in L-form class ?", "paragraph": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "answer": "Mycoplasma", "sentence": "The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "paragraph_sentence": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. <hl> The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is <hl> Mycoplasma <hl> (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).", "sentence_answer": "The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is <hl> Mycoplasma <hl> (not to be confused with Mycobacteria)."}
{"question": "What are fimbriae?", "paragraph": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "answer": "fine filaments of protein", "sentence": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein , usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein , usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. <hl> They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "paragraph_answer": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are <hl> fine filaments of protein <hl>, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "sentence_answer": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are <hl> fine filaments of protein <hl> , usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length."}
{"question": "What are fimbriae liable for?", "paragraph": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "answer": "involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells", "sentence": "Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells , and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens.", "paragraph_sentence": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. <hl> Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells , and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. <hl> Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "paragraph_answer": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be <hl> involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells <hl>, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "sentence_answer": "Fimbriae are believed to be <hl> involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells <hl> , and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens."}
{"question": "What is the diameter of fimbriae?", "paragraph": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "answer": "2\u201310 nanometres", "sentence": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. <hl> They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "paragraph_answer": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually <hl> 2\u201310 nanometres <hl> in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "sentence_answer": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually <hl> 2\u201310 nanometres <hl> in diameter and up to several micrometers in length."}
{"question": "What are pili?", "paragraph": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "answer": "cellular appendages", "sentence": "pilus) are cellular appendages , slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below).", "paragraph_sentence": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. <hl> pilus) are cellular appendages , slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). <hl> They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "paragraph_answer": "Fimbriae (sometimes called \"attachment pili\") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2\u201310 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are <hl> cellular appendages <hl>, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).", "sentence_answer": "pilus) are <hl> cellular appendages <hl> , slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or \"sex pili\" (see bacterial genetics, below)."}
{"question": "What are highly resistant dormant structures of certain gram-positive bacteria called?", "paragraph": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "answer": "endospores", "sentence": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores . <hl> In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "paragraph_answer": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called <hl> endospores <hl>. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "sentence_answer": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called <hl> endospores <hl> ."}
{"question": "Is creating endospore a reproductive process?", "paragraph": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "answer": "is not a reproductive process", "sentence": "In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process , although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell.", "paragraph_sentence": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. <hl> In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process , although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. <hl> Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "paragraph_answer": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this <hl> is not a reproductive process <hl>, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "sentence_answer": "In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this <hl> is not a reproductive process <hl> , although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell."}
{"question": "What are ribosomes in endospores are enclosed in?", "paragraph": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "answer": "cortex layer", "sentence": "Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat.", "paragraph_sentence": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. <hl> Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. <hl> Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "paragraph_answer": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a <hl> cortex layer <hl> and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "sentence_answer": "Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a <hl> cortex layer <hl> and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat."}
{"question": "What chemical compound comprises 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores?", "paragraph": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "answer": "Dipicolinic acid", "sentence": "Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores.", "paragraph_sentence": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. <hl> Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. <hl> It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "paragraph_answer": "Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. <hl> Dipicolinic acid <hl> is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Dipicolinic acid <hl> is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores."}
{"question": "Is there a metabolism in endospores?", "paragraph": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "answer": "show no detectable metabolism", "sentence": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. <hl> In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "paragraph_answer": "Endospores <hl> show no detectable metabolism <hl> and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "sentence_answer": "Endospores <hl> show no detectable metabolism <hl> and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation."}
{"question": "What extreme physical and chemical stresses can endospores endure?", "paragraph": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "answer": "UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure", "sentence": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure , and desiccation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure , and desiccation. <hl> In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "paragraph_answer": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of <hl> UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure <hl>, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "sentence_answer": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of <hl> UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure <hl> , and desiccation."}
{"question": "How long can endospores of bacteria stay alive in dormant state?", "paragraph": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "answer": "for millions of years", "sentence": "In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years , and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space.", "paragraph_sentence": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. <hl> In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years , and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. <hl> According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "paragraph_answer": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable <hl> for millions of years <hl>, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "sentence_answer": "In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable <hl> for millions of years <hl> , and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space."}
{"question": "What endospore-forming bacteria can cause tetanus disease?", "paragraph": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "answer": "Clostridium tetani", "sentence": "Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.", "paragraph_sentence": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" <hl> Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, \"There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth \u2014 and we know they're very hardened to radiation.\" Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with <hl> Clostridium tetani <hl> endospores causes tetanus.", "sentence_answer": "Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with <hl> Clostridium tetani <hl> endospores causes tetanus."}
{"question": "What is commonly used to determine taxonomy of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "answer": "The distribution of metabolic traits", "sentence": "The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. <hl> The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. <hl> Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. <hl> The distribution of metabolic traits <hl> within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The distribution of metabolic traits <hl> within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications."}
{"question": "How is bacterial metabolism determined?", "paragraph": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "answer": "nutritional groups", "sentence": "Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. <hl> Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. <hl> An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into <hl> nutritional groups <hl> on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial metabolism is classified into <hl> nutritional groups <hl> on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth."}
{"question": "What are electron acceptors accountable for?", "paragraph": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "answer": "aerobic or anaerobic respiration", "sentence": "An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. <hl> An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for <hl> aerobic or anaerobic respiration <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for <hl> aerobic or anaerobic respiration <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are three main criterias of bacterial metabolism?", "paragraph": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "answer": "the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors", "sentence": "Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. <hl> Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. <hl> An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: <hl> the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors <hl> used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: <hl> the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors <hl> used for growth."}
{"question": "How does heterotrophic carbon metabolism occur?", "paragraph": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "answer": "organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources", "sentence": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources , or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources , or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. <hl> Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "paragraph_answer": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where <hl> organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources <hl>, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "sentence_answer": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where <hl> organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources <hl> , or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide."}
{"question": "When carbon metabolism is called autotrophic?", "paragraph": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "answer": "cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide", "sentence": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide . <hl> Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "paragraph_answer": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that <hl> cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide <hl>. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "sentence_answer": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that <hl> cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide <hl> ."}
{"question": "What category do parasitic bacteria fall into?", "paragraph": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "answer": "Heterotrophic bacteria", "sentence": "Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types.", "paragraph_sentence": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. <hl> Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. <hl> Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "paragraph_answer": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. <hl> Heterotrophic bacteria <hl> include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Heterotrophic bacteria <hl> include parasitic types."}
{"question": "Green sulfur-bacteria is typical representative of what type of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "answer": "autotrophic bacteria", "sentence": "Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria.", "paragraph_sentence": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. <hl> Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. <hl> Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "paragraph_answer": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical <hl> autotrophic bacteria <hl> are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "sentence_answer": "Typical <hl> autotrophic bacteria <hl> are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria."}
{"question": "What is chemotrophy ?", "paragraph": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "answer": "the use of chemical substances for energy", "sentence": "Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy , which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "paragraph_sentence": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. <hl> Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy , which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, <hl> the use of chemical substances for energy <hl>, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).", "sentence_answer": "Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, <hl> the use of chemical substances for energy <hl> , which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration)."}
{"question": "What do lithotrophs use ?", "paragraph": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "answer": "inorganic electron donors", "sentence": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. <hl> Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use <hl> inorganic electron donors <hl> and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use <hl> inorganic electron donors <hl> and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors."}
{"question": "What type of electron donors organotrophs use?", "paragraph": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "answer": "organic compounds", "sentence": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. <hl> Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use <hl> organic compounds <hl> as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use <hl> organic compounds <hl> as electron donors."}
{"question": "In what organisms is oxygen used as eelectron acceptor?", "paragraph": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "answer": "anaerobic organisms", "sentence": "In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. <hl> In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. <hl> This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In <hl> anaerobic organisms <hl> other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> anaerobic organisms <hl> other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors."}
{"question": "What do respiratory organisms use as electron donors?", "paragraph": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "answer": "chemical compounds", "sentence": "Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. <hl> Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. <hl> This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use <hl> chemical compounds <hl> as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.", "sentence_answer": "Respiratory organisms use <hl> chemical compounds <hl> as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction."}
{"question": "What is sulfate-reducing bacteria accountable for?", "paragraph": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "answer": "the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury", "sentence": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. <hl> Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for <hl> the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury <hl> (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "sentence_answer": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for <hl> the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury <hl> (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment."}
{"question": "What is the by-product of non-repiratory anaerobes?", "paragraph": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "answer": "ethanol", "sentence": "Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste.", "paragraph_sentence": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. <hl> Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. <hl> Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "paragraph_answer": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as <hl> ethanol <hl> in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "sentence_answer": "Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as <hl> ethanol <hl> in brewing) as waste."}
{"question": "How can anaerobes adjust to the surrounding environment?", "paragraph": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "answer": "can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors", "sentence": "Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "paragraph_sentence": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. <hl> Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes <hl> can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors <hl> depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.", "sentence_answer": "Facultative anaerobes <hl> can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors <hl> depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves."}
{"question": "What are hydrogen and carbon monoxide for Lithotrophic bacteria?", "paragraph": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "answer": "Common inorganic electron donors", "sentence": "Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds.", "paragraph_sentence": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. <hl> Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. <hl> In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "paragraph_answer": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. <hl> Common inorganic electron donors <hl> are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Common inorganic electron donors <hl> are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds."}
{"question": "How can gas methane be used in exceptional set of conditions by methanotrophic bacteria?", "paragraph": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "answer": "both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism", "sentence": "In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism .", "paragraph_sentence": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. <hl> In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism . <hl> In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "paragraph_answer": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as <hl> both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism <hl>. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "sentence_answer": "In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as <hl> both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the main element for aerobic photorophy?", "paragraph": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "answer": "oxygen", "sentence": "In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead.", "paragraph_sentence": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. <hl> In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. <hl> Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "paragraph_answer": "Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, <hl> oxygen <hl> is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.", "sentence_answer": "In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, <hl> oxygen <hl> is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead."}
{"question": "What chemical process helps bacteria to absorb raw materials?", "paragraph": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "answer": "diffusion", "sentence": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. <hl> The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "paragraph_answer": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by <hl> diffusion <hl> or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "sentence_answer": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by <hl> diffusion <hl> or through molecular channels in cell membranes."}
{"question": "How can bacteria obtain raw materials from the environment?", "paragraph": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "answer": "in the form of relatively small molecules", "sentence": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules , which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules , which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. <hl> The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "paragraph_answer": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only <hl> in the form of relatively small molecules <hl>, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "sentence_answer": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only <hl> in the form of relatively small molecules <hl> , which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes."}
{"question": "What process is used by eukaryotic cells to absorb external items?", "paragraph": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "answer": "endocytosis", "sentence": "It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis , the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "paragraph_sentence": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). <hl> It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis , the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles <hl> endocytosis <hl>, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "sentence_answer": "It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles <hl> endocytosis <hl> , the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items."}
{"question": "What part of bacteria cell is used during diffusion?", "paragraph": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "answer": "molecular channels in cell membranes", "sentence": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes . <hl> The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "paragraph_answer": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through <hl> molecular channels in cell membranes <hl>. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.", "sentence_answer": "Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through <hl> molecular channels in cell membranes <hl> ."}
{"question": "How size and reproduction are linked in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "answer": "Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce", "sentence": "Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. <hl> Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. <hl> Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. <hl> Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce <hl> through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce <hl> through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction."}
{"question": "How does bacteria reproduce?", "paragraph": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "answer": "through binary fission", "sentence": "Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission , a form of asexual reproduction.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. <hl> Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission , a form of asexual reproduction. <hl> Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce <hl> through binary fission <hl>, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce <hl> through binary fission <hl> , a form of asexual reproduction."}
{"question": "If the conditions are right how long does it take for bacteria to reproduce?", "paragraph": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "answer": "divide extremely rapidly", "sentence": "Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly , and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. <hl> Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly , and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. <hl> In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and <hl> divide extremely rapidly <hl>, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "sentence_answer": "Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and <hl> divide extremely rapidly <hl> , and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes."}
{"question": "What are produced in cell division?", "paragraph": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "answer": "two identical clone daughter cells", "sentence": "In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. <hl> In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. <hl> Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "paragraph_answer": "Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, <hl> two identical clone daughter cells <hl> are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.", "sentence_answer": "In cell division, <hl> two identical clone daughter cells <hl> are produced."}
{"question": "In what environment are bacteria being cultivated in labs?", "paragraph": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "answer": "solid or liquid media", "sentence": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media . <hl> Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "paragraph_answer": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using <hl> solid or liquid media <hl>. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "sentence_answer": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using <hl> solid or liquid media <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is typical solid setting?", "paragraph": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "answer": "agar plates", "sentence": "Solid growth media, such as agar plates , are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. <hl> Solid growth media, such as agar plates , are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. <hl> However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "paragraph_answer": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as <hl> agar plates <hl>, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "sentence_answer": "Solid growth media, such as <hl> agar plates <hl> , are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain."}
{"question": "What can help to indentify specific bacteria?", "paragraph": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "answer": "The use of selective media", "sentence": "The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. <hl> The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. <hl> The use of selective media <hl> (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The use of selective media <hl> (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms."}
{"question": "Which environment is better to isolate a single example of bacteria strain?", "paragraph": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "answer": "agar plates", "sentence": "Solid growth media, such as agar plates , are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. <hl> Solid growth media, such as agar plates , are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. <hl> However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "paragraph_answer": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as <hl> agar plates <hl>, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "sentence_answer": "Solid growth media, such as <hl> agar plates <hl> , are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain."}
{"question": "Which media is preffered to grow larger volumes of bacteria?", "paragraph": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "answer": "liquid growth media", "sentence": "However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required.", "paragraph_sentence": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. <hl> However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. <hl> Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "paragraph_answer": "In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, <hl> liquid growth media <hl> are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.", "sentence_answer": "However, <hl> liquid growth media <hl> are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required."}
{"question": "What is the simple way of producing large volume of bacteria cells?", "paragraph": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "answer": "high levels of nutrients", "sentence": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. <hl> However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "paragraph_answer": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use <hl> high levels of nutrients <hl> to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "sentence_answer": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use <hl> high levels of nutrients <hl> to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly."}
{"question": "What caused the evolution of different growth strategies in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "answer": "nutrients are limited", "sentence": "However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited , meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. <hl> However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited , meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. <hl> This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "paragraph_answer": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, <hl> nutrients are limited <hl>, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "sentence_answer": "However, in natural environments, <hl> nutrients are limited <hl> , meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely."}
{"question": "What can create a subsequent increase of nutrients in natural environment?", "paragraph": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "answer": "biofilms", "sentence": "In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms ) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. <hl> In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms ) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. <hl> These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "paragraph_answer": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., <hl> biofilms <hl>) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "sentence_answer": "In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., <hl> biofilms <hl> ) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses."}
{"question": "What do algal bacteria if nutrients are available?", "paragraph": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "answer": "grow extremely rapidly", "sentence": "Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). <hl> Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. <hl> Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "paragraph_answer": "Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can <hl> grow extremely rapidly <hl> when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).", "sentence_answer": "Some organisms can <hl> grow extremely rapidly <hl> when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer."}
{"question": "What is the first stage of bacteria adaptation?", "paragraph": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "answer": "lag phase", "sentence": "The first phase of growth is the lag phase , a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. <hl> The first phase of growth is the lag phase , a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. <hl> The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the <hl> lag phase <hl>, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "sentence_answer": "The first phase of growth is the <hl> lag phase <hl> , a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth."}
{"question": "What is the second phase of bacteria growth known for?", "paragraph": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "answer": "rapid exponential growth", "sentence": "The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. <hl> The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth . <hl> The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by <hl> rapid exponential growth <hl>. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "sentence_answer": "The log phase is marked by <hl> rapid exponential growth <hl> ."}
{"question": "The absence of what causes the last stage of bacteria growth?", "paragraph": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "answer": "nutrients", "sentence": "During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). <hl> During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. <hl> The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, <hl> nutrients <hl> are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "sentence_answer": "During log phase, <hl> nutrients <hl> are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth."}
{"question": "What is called the third statge of growth of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "answer": "stationary phase", "sentence": "The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. <hl> The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. <hl> The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the <hl> stationary phase <hl> and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "sentence_answer": "The third phase of growth is the <hl> stationary phase <hl> and is caused by depleted nutrients."}
{"question": "How many phase are in the growth of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "answer": "four phases", "sentence": "Bacterial growth follows four phases .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacterial growth follows four phases . <hl> When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial growth follows <hl> four phases <hl>. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial growth follows <hl> four phases <hl> ."}
{"question": "What shape is chromosome of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "answer": "circular chromosome", "sentence": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. <hl> Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacteria have a single <hl> circular chromosome <hl> that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "sentence_answer": "Most bacteria have a single <hl> circular chromosome <hl> that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum."}
{"question": "What bacteria is an exception to single circular chromosome rule?", "paragraph": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "answer": "Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia", "sentence": "Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. <hl> Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. <hl> The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. <hl> Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia <hl> are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia <hl> are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome."}
{"question": "What bacteria is responsible for Lyme disease?", "paragraph": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "answer": "Borrelia burgdorferi", "sentence": "Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi , the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome.", "paragraph_sentence": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. <hl> Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi , the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. <hl> The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as <hl> Borrelia burgdorferi <hl>, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "sentence_answer": "Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as <hl> Borrelia burgdorferi <hl> , the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome."}
{"question": "How does chromosome of Borrelia burgdoferi look like?", "paragraph": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "answer": "single linear chromosome", "sentence": "Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome .", "paragraph_sentence": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. <hl> Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome . <hl> The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "paragraph_answer": "Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a <hl> single linear chromosome <hl>. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.", "sentence_answer": "Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a <hl> single linear chromosome <hl> ."}
{"question": "What makes bacteria an asexual organism?", "paragraph": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "answer": "inherit identical copies of their parent's genes", "sentence": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). <hl> However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, <hl> inherit identical copies of their parent's genes <hl> (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, <hl> inherit identical copies of their parent's genes <hl> (i.e., they are clonal)."}
{"question": "What can cause mutation in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "answer": "changes to their genetic material DNA", "sentence": "However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). <hl> However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. <hl> Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on <hl> changes to their genetic material DNA <hl> caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "sentence_answer": "However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on <hl> changes to their genetic material DNA <hl> caused by genetic recombination or mutations."}
{"question": "What are two ways changes to DNA of bacteria can occur?", "paragraph": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "answer": "random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\"", "sentence": "Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\" , where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. <hl> Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\" , where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either <hl> random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\" <hl>, where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.", "sentence_answer": "Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either <hl> random mutation during replication or \"stress-directed mutation\" <hl> , where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate."}
{"question": "What is the aftermath of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles?", "paragraph": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "answer": "Transduction of bacterial genes", "sentence": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. <hl> Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Transduction of bacterial genes <hl> by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Transduction of bacterial genes <hl> by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation."}
{"question": "What is the result of bacterial adaptation of E.coli bacteria host and plasmid of another bacteria?", "paragraph": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "answer": "Conjugation", "sentence": "Conjugation , in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another.", "paragraph_sentence": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. <hl> Conjugation , in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. <hl> It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "paragraph_answer": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. <hl> Conjugation <hl>, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Conjugation <hl> , in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another."}
{"question": "How does conjugation take place?", "paragraph": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "answer": "conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome", "sentence": "It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome , and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium.", "paragraph_sentence": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. <hl> It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome , and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. <hl> Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "paragraph_answer": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a <hl> conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome <hl>, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "sentence_answer": "It is seldom that a <hl> conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome <hl> , and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium."}
{"question": "Is conjugation a common bacterial adaptation?", "paragraph": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "answer": "It is seldom", "sentence": "It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium.", "paragraph_sentence": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. <hl> It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. <hl> Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "paragraph_answer": "Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. <hl> It is seldom <hl> that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> It is seldom <hl> that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium."}
{"question": "What does transformation of bacteria depends on?", "paragraph": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "answer": "numerous bacterial gene products", "sentence": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. <hl> In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on <hl> numerous bacterial gene products <hl> that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "sentence_answer": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on <hl> numerous bacterial gene products <hl> that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer."}
{"question": "How simple is the process of transformation?", "paragraph": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "answer": "this complex process", "sentence": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process , and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process , and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. <hl> In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform <hl> this complex process <hl>, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "sentence_answer": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform <hl> this complex process <hl> , and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer."}
{"question": "What is the first requirement in order for bacteria to bind and recombine with other bacteria's DNA", "paragraph": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "answer": "enter a special physiological state termed competence", "sentence": "In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence).", "paragraph_sentence": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. <hl> In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). <hl> In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first <hl> enter a special physiological state termed competence <hl> (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "sentence_answer": "In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first <hl> enter a special physiological state termed competence <hl> (see Natural competence)."}
{"question": "How big can be the transformation level?", "paragraph": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "answer": "between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome", "sentence": "The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome .", "paragraph_sentence": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. <hl> The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome . <hl> Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be <hl> between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome <hl>. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "sentence_answer": "The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be <hl> between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome <hl> ."}
{"question": "How rare is the transformation among bacteria organisms?", "paragraph": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "answer": "common", "sentence": "Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation.", "paragraph_sentence": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. <hl> Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. <hl> The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "paragraph_answer": "Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be <hl> common <hl> among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.", "sentence_answer": "Transformation appears to be <hl> common <hl> among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation."}
{"question": "Between what species do usually transduction, conjugation and transformation take place?", "paragraph": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "answer": "the same species", "sentence": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species , but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species , but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. <hl> In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "paragraph_answer": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of <hl> the same species <hl>, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "sentence_answer": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of <hl> the same species <hl> , but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance."}
{"question": "What are the consequences of transfer between different species of bacteria?", "paragraph": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "answer": "transfer of antibiotic resistance", "sentence": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance . <hl> In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "paragraph_answer": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the <hl> transfer of antibiotic resistance <hl>. In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "sentence_answer": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the <hl> transfer of antibiotic resistance <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is horizontal gene transfer?", "paragraph": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "answer": "gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment", "sentence": "In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions.", "paragraph_sentence": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. <hl> In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. <hl> Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "paragraph_answer": "In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. In such cases, <hl> gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment <hl> is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.", "sentence_answer": "In such cases, <hl> gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment <hl> is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions."}
{"question": "What are Bacteriophages?", "paragraph": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "answer": "viruses that infect bacteria", "sentence": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria . <hl> Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteriophages are <hl> viruses that infect bacteria <hl>. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteriophages are <hl> viruses that infect bacteria <hl> ."}
{"question": "What can viruses do to bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "answer": "infect and lyse their host bacteria", "sentence": "Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria , while others insert into the bacterial chromosome.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. <hl> Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria , while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. <hl> A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply <hl> infect and lyse their host bacteria <hl>, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "sentence_answer": "Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply <hl> infect and lyse their host bacteria <hl> , while others insert into the bacterial chromosome."}
{"question": "What can happen if Bacteriophage contain genes of host's phenotype?", "paragraph": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "answer": "lethal pathogen", "sentence": "A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. <hl> A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen . <hl> Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a <hl> lethal pathogen <hl>. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "sentence_answer": "A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a <hl> lethal pathogen <hl> ."}
{"question": "How can bacteria resist virus DNA?", "paragraph": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "answer": "CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity", "sentence": "This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. <hl> This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This <hl> CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity <hl> to infection.", "sentence_answer": "This <hl> CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity <hl> to infection."}
{"question": "What is monotrichous?", "paragraph": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "answer": "single flagellum", "sentence": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). <hl> The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a <hl> single flagellum <hl> (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a <hl> single flagellum <hl> (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous)."}
{"question": "How many proteins is typical flagellum consist os?", "paragraph": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "answer": "20 proteins", "sentence": "The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins , with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). <hl> The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins , with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. <hl> The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about <hl> 20 proteins <hl>, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "sentence_answer": "The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about <hl> 20 proteins <hl> , with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly."}
{"question": "When flagellum is distributed throughout the surface of the cell?", "paragraph": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "answer": "peritrichous", "sentence": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell ( peritrichous ).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell ( peritrichous ). <hl> The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (<hl> peritrichous <hl>). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell ( <hl> peritrichous <hl> )."}
{"question": "If bacteria has flagellum at each end what is the name of the species?", "paragraph": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "answer": "amphitrichous", "sentence": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end ( amphitrichous ), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous),", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end ( amphitrichous ), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), <hl> while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (<hl> amphitrichous <hl>), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end ( <hl> amphitrichous <hl> ), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous),"}
{"question": "How does flagellum function within the cell?", "paragraph": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "answer": "uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane", "sentence": "The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. <hl> The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. <hl> This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that <hl> uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane <hl> for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.", "sentence_answer": "The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that <hl> uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane <hl> for power."}
{"question": "How can we classify the vast variety of bacterial species?", "paragraph": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "answer": "grouping organisms based on similarities", "sentence": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities . <hl> Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and <hl> grouping organisms based on similarities <hl>. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and <hl> grouping organisms based on similarities <hl> ."}
{"question": "Can classification be helpful in determining differences between distinct species?", "paragraph": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "answer": "unclear", "sentence": "While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species.", "paragraph_sentence": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. <hl> While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. <hl> This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was <hl> unclear <hl> whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was <hl> unclear <hl> whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species."}
{"question": "What supports the uncertainty in classification between the same kind of bacteria?", "paragraph": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "answer": "lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria,", "sentence": "This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species.", "paragraph_sentence": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. <hl> This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. <hl> Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the <hl> lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, <hl> as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "This uncertainty was due to the <hl> lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, <hl> as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species."}
{"question": "What can lateral gene transfer create in bacteria?", "paragraph": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "answer": "different morphologies and metabolisms", "sentence": "Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms .", "paragraph_sentence": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. <hl> Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms . <hl> To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very <hl> different morphologies and metabolisms <hl>. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very <hl> different morphologies and metabolisms <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the way modern classification tries to determine species?", "paragraph": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "answer": "emphasizes molecular systematics", "sentence": "To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics , using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene.", "paragraph_sentence": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. <hl> To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics , using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. <hl> Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification <hl> emphasizes molecular systematics <hl>, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification <hl> emphasizes molecular systematics <hl> , using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene."}
{"question": "What would original term \"bacteria\" determine?", "paragraph": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "answer": "all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes", "sentence": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes . <hl> However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to <hl> all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes <hl>. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to <hl> all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are two main groups of prokaryotic organisms are divided into?", "paragraph": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "answer": "Eubacteria and Archaebacteria", "sentence": "However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria , but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. <hl> However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria , but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. <hl> The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called <hl> Eubacteria and Archaebacteria <hl>, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called <hl> Eubacteria and Archaebacteria <hl> , but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor."}
{"question": "What groups of organisms are closely related to each other?", "paragraph": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "answer": "archaea and eukaryotes", "sentence": "The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. <hl> The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. <hl> These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The <hl> archaea and eukaryotes <hl> are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> archaea and eukaryotes <hl> are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria."}
{"question": "What domain system is commonly used nowdays to classify microorganisms?", "paragraph": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "answer": "three-domain system", "sentence": "These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system , which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology.", "paragraph_sentence": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. <hl> These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system , which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. <hl> However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "paragraph_answer": "The term \"bacteria\" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the <hl> three-domain system <hl>, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.", "sentence_answer": "These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the <hl> three-domain system <hl> , which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology."}
{"question": "What was developed by Hans Christian Gram?", "paragraph": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "answer": "The Gram stain", "sentence": "The Gram stain , developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Gram stain , developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. <hl> The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Gram stain <hl>, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Gram stain <hl> , developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls."}
{"question": "What year was the Grahm stain was developed?", "paragraph": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "answer": "1884", "sentence": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. <hl> The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "paragraph_answer": "The Gram stain, developed in <hl> 1884 <hl> by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "sentence_answer": "The Gram stain, developed in <hl> 1884 <hl> by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls."}
{"question": "What color do Gram positive bacteria cell walls turn to after being stained?", "paragraph": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "answer": "purple", "sentence": "The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple , while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. <hl> The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple , while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. <hl> By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "paragraph_answer": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain <hl> purple <hl>, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "sentence_answer": "The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain <hl> purple <hl> , while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink."}
{"question": "What color is typical for Gram-negative bacteria after staining?", "paragraph": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "answer": "pink", "sentence": "The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. <hl> The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink . <hl> By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "paragraph_answer": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears <hl> pink <hl>. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "sentence_answer": "The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears <hl> pink <hl> ."}
{"question": "What stain shows better test results on Norcadia bacteria?", "paragraph": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "answer": "Ziehl\u2013Neelsen", "sentence": "Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). <hl> Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl\u2013Neelsen or similar stains. <hl> Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "paragraph_answer": "The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the \"Gram-positive\" cell wall stain purple, while the thin \"Gram-negative\" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on <hl> Ziehl\u2013Neelsen <hl> or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.", "sentence_answer": "Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on <hl> Ziehl\u2013Neelsen <hl> or similar stains."}
{"question": "What technique has becoming more popular in classification of bacteria?", "paragraph": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "answer": "molecular methods", "sentence": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods . <hl> Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "paragraph_answer": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using <hl> molecular methods <hl>. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "sentence_answer": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using <hl> molecular methods <hl> ."}
{"question": "What tool does DNA based diagnostics use?", "paragraph": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "answer": "polymerase chain reaction", "sentence": "Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction , are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods.", "paragraph_sentence": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. <hl> Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction , are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. <hl> These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "paragraph_answer": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as <hl> polymerase chain reaction <hl>, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "sentence_answer": "Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as <hl> polymerase chain reaction <hl> , are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods."}
{"question": "What else can molecular methods of classification reveal?", "paragraph": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "answer": "identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells", "sentence": "These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing.", "paragraph_sentence": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. <hl> These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. <hl> However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "paragraph_answer": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and <hl> identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells <hl> that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "sentence_answer": "These methods also allow the detection and <hl> identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells <hl> that are metabolically active but non-dividing."}
{"question": "Can new methods determine a total number of bacteria species?", "paragraph": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "answer": "cannot even be estimated with any certainty", "sentence": "However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty .", "paragraph_sentence": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. <hl> However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty . <hl> Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "paragraph_answer": "As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of \"viable but nonculturable\" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and <hl> cannot even be estimated with any certainty <hl>. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species \u2013 and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.", "sentence_answer": "However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and <hl> cannot even be estimated with any certainty <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why are certain bacteria called predatory?", "paragraph": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "answer": "bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms", "sentence": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms , these species are called predatory bacteria.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms , these species are called predatory bacteria. <hl> These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "paragraph_answer": "Some species of <hl> bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms <hl>, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "sentence_answer": "Some species of <hl> bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms <hl> , these species are called predatory bacteria."}
{"question": "Which way do Vampirovibrio absorb nutrients of other microorganisms?", "paragraph": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "answer": "attach to their prey in order to digest them", "sentence": "Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter.", "paragraph_sentence": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. <hl> Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. <hl> These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "paragraph_answer": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either <hl> attach to their prey in order to digest them <hl> and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "sentence_answer": "Other bacterial predators either <hl> attach to their prey in order to digest them <hl> and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter."}
{"question": "What technique do Daptobacter use in order to kill other microorganism?", "paragraph": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "answer": "invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol", "sentence": "Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol , such as Daptobacter.", "paragraph_sentence": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. <hl> Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol , such as Daptobacter. <hl> These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "paragraph_answer": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or <hl> invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol <hl>, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "sentence_answer": "Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or <hl> invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol <hl> , such as Daptobacter."}
{"question": "Where do Daptobacter bacteria come from?", "paragraph": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "answer": "saprophages", "sentence": "These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "paragraph_sentence": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. <hl> These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from <hl> saprophages <hl> that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.", "sentence_answer": "These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from <hl> saprophages <hl> that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms."}
{"question": "What helps bacteria to survive?", "paragraph": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "answer": "close spatial associations", "sentence": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. <hl> One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "paragraph_answer": "Certain bacteria form <hl> close spatial associations <hl> that are essential for their survival. One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "sentence_answer": "Certain bacteria form <hl> close spatial associations <hl> that are essential for their survival."}
{"question": "What kind of bacteria can form interspecies hydrogen transfer?", "paragraph": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "answer": "anaerobic bacteria", "sentence": "One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen.", "paragraph_sentence": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. <hl> One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. <hl> The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "paragraph_answer": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of <hl> anaerobic bacteria <hl> that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "sentence_answer": "One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of <hl> anaerobic bacteria <hl> that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen."}
{"question": "What do anaerobic bacteria consume?", "paragraph": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "answer": "butyric acid or propionic acid", "sentence": "One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid , and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen.", "paragraph_sentence": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. <hl> One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid , and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. <hl> The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "paragraph_answer": "Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as <hl> butyric acid or propionic acid <hl>, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.", "sentence_answer": "One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as <hl> butyric acid or propionic acid <hl> , and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen."}
{"question": "Where do bacteria stay in soil?", "paragraph": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "answer": "rhizosphere", "sentence": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. <hl> This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "paragraph_answer": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the <hl> rhizosphere <hl> (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "sentence_answer": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the <hl> rhizosphere <hl> (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds."}
{"question": "What do bacteria do in soil?", "paragraph": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "answer": "converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds", "sentence": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds . <hl> This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "paragraph_answer": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, <hl> converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds <hl>. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "sentence_answer": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, <hl> converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds <hl> ."}
{"question": "How does the conversion help the vegetation?", "paragraph": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "answer": "provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen", "sentence": "This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves.", "paragraph_sentence": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. <hl> This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. <hl> Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "paragraph_answer": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to <hl> provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen <hl> for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "sentence_answer": "This serves to <hl> provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen <hl> for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves."}
{"question": "What is the amount of bacteria in human intestines?", "paragraph": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "answer": "over 1,000 bacterial species", "sentence": "For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates.", "paragraph_sentence": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. <hl> For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. <hl> The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "paragraph_answer": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of <hl> over 1,000 bacterial species <hl> in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "sentence_answer": "For example, the presence of <hl> over 1,000 bacterial species <hl> in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates."}
{"question": "How does gut flora prevent growth of pathogenic bacteria?", "paragraph": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "answer": "through competitive exclusion", "sentence": "The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion ) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "paragraph_sentence": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. <hl> The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion ) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually <hl> through competitive exclusion <hl>) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.", "sentence_answer": "The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually <hl> through competitive exclusion <hl> ) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements."}
{"question": "What are the pathogenes?", "paragraph": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "answer": "bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms", "sentence": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms , they are classed as pathogens.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms , they are classed as pathogens. <hl> Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "paragraph_answer": "If <hl> bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms <hl>, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "sentence_answer": "If <hl> bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms <hl> , they are classed as pathogens."}
{"question": "Can cause for most pathogenic diseases be found soon?", "paragraph": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "answer": "may only be discovered many years after", "sentence": "A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after , as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease.", "paragraph_sentence": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. <hl> A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after , as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. <hl> Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "paragraph_answer": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease <hl> may only be discovered many years after <hl>, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "sentence_answer": "A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease <hl> may only be discovered many years after <hl> , as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease."}
{"question": "What can pathogenes cause?", "paragraph": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "answer": "human death and disease", "sentence": "Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis.", "paragraph_sentence": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. <hl> Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. <hl> A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "paragraph_answer": "If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of <hl> human death and disease <hl> and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.", "sentence_answer": "Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of <hl> human death and disease <hl> and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis."}
{"question": "How pathogenes interact with it's human host?", "paragraph": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "answer": "pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions", "sentence": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. <hl> Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "paragraph_answer": "Each species of <hl> pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions <hl> with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "sentence_answer": "Each species of <hl> pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions <hl> with its human hosts."}
{"question": "Can all bacteria in human body be harmful?", "paragraph": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "answer": "exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease", "sentence": "Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all.", "paragraph_sentence": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. <hl> Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. <hl> Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "paragraph_answer": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually <hl> exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease <hl> at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "sentence_answer": "Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually <hl> exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease <hl> at all."}
{"question": "Which bacteria cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever disiease?", "paragraph": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "answer": "species of Rickettsia", "sentence": "One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever.", "paragraph_sentence": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. <hl> One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. <hl> Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "paragraph_answer": "Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One <hl> species of Rickettsia <hl> causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.", "sentence_answer": "One <hl> species of Rickettsia <hl> causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever."}
{"question": "What type of antibiotics called bacterocidal?", "paragraph": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "answer": "if they kill bacteria", "sentence": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria , or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria , or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. <hl> There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal <hl> if they kill bacteria <hl>, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal <hl> if they kill bacteria <hl> , or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth."}
{"question": "What kind of antibiotics are used for prevention of bacterial growth", "paragraph": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "answer": "bacteriostatic", "sentence": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. <hl> There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or <hl> bacteriostatic <hl> if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "sentence_answer": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or <hl> bacteriostatic <hl> if they just prevent bacterial growth."}
{"question": "What is the drawback of using antibiotics if agriculture?", "paragraph": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "answer": "rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations", "sentence": "Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. <hl> Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations . <hl> Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the <hl> rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations <hl>. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "sentence_answer": "Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the <hl> rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations <hl> ."}
{"question": "Besides in treating human disease where else are antibiotics used?", "paragraph": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "answer": "in intensive farming to promote animal growth", "sentence": "Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth , where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. <hl> Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth , where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. <hl> Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and <hl> in intensive farming to promote animal growth <hl>, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "sentence_answer": "Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and <hl> in intensive farming to promote animal growth <hl> , where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations."}
{"question": "What is common prevention method of infections in medicine?", "paragraph": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "answer": "sterilizing", "sentence": "Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters.", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. <hl> Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. <hl> Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as <hl> sterilizing <hl> the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.", "sentence_answer": "Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as <hl> sterilizing <hl> the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters."}
{"question": "What quality of bacteria is being widely used re-cyling?", "paragraph": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "answer": "ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds", "sentence": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. <hl> Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds <hl> is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds <hl> is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation."}
{"question": "What is being used in cleaning up oil spills?", "paragraph": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "answer": "Bacteria", "sentence": "Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. <hl> Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. <hl> Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. <hl> Bacteria <hl> capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Bacteria <hl> capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills."}
{"question": "What other way is bacteria aiding to nature?", "paragraph": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "answer": "used for the bioremediation", "sentence": "Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes.", "paragraph_sentence": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. <hl> Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. <hl> In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "paragraph_answer": "The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also <hl> used for the bioremediation <hl> of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria are also <hl> used for the bioremediation <hl> of industrial toxic wastes."}
{"question": "What sciences use bacteria?", "paragraph": "Because of their ability to quickly grow and the relative ease with which they can be manipulated, bacteria are the workhorses for the fields of molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry. By making mutations in bacterial DNA and examining the resulting phenotypes, scientists can determine the function of genes, enzymes and metabolic pathways in bacteria, then apply this knowledge to more complex organisms. This aim of understanding the biochemistry of a cell reaches its most complex expression in the synthesis of huge amounts of enzyme kinetic and gene expression data into mathematical models of entire organisms. This is achievable in some well-studied bacteria, with models of Escherichia coli metabolism now being produced and tested. This understanding of bacterial metabolism and genetics allows the use of biotechnology to bioengineer bacteria for the production of therapeutic proteins, such as insulin, growth factors, or antibodies.", "answer": "molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry", "sentence": "Because of their ability to quickly grow and the relative ease with which they can be manipulated, bacteria are the workhorses for the fields of molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Because of their ability to quickly grow and the relative ease with which they can be manipulated, bacteria are the workhorses for the fields of molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry . <hl> By making mutations in bacterial DNA and examining the resulting phenotypes, scientists can determine the function of genes, enzymes and metabolic pathways in bacteria, then apply this knowledge to more complex organisms. This aim of understanding the biochemistry of a cell reaches its most complex expression in the synthesis of huge amounts of enzyme kinetic and gene expression data into mathematical models of entire organisms. This is achievable in some well-studied bacteria, with models of Escherichia coli metabolism now being produced and tested. This understanding of bacterial metabolism and genetics allows the use of biotechnology to bioengineer bacteria for the production of therapeutic proteins, such as insulin, growth factors, or antibodies.", "paragraph_answer": "Because of their ability to quickly grow and the relative ease with which they can be manipulated, bacteria are the workhorses for the fields of <hl> molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry <hl>. By making mutations in bacterial DNA and examining the resulting phenotypes, scientists can determine the function of genes, enzymes and metabolic pathways in bacteria, then apply this knowledge to more complex organisms. This aim of understanding the biochemistry of a cell reaches its most complex expression in the synthesis of huge amounts of enzyme kinetic and gene expression data into mathematical models of entire organisms. This is achievable in some well-studied bacteria, with models of Escherichia coli metabolism now being produced and tested. This understanding of bacterial metabolism and genetics allows the use of biotechnology to bioengineer bacteria for the production of therapeutic proteins, such as insulin, growth factors, or antibodies.", "sentence_answer": "Because of their ability to quickly grow and the relative ease with which they can be manipulated, bacteria are the workhorses for the fields of <hl> molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the first time bacteria were observed?", "paragraph": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "answer": "1676", "sentence": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676 , using a single-lens microscope of his own design.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676 , using a single-lens microscope of his own design. <hl> He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in <hl> 1676 <hl>, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in <hl> 1676 <hl> , using a single-lens microscope of his own design."}
{"question": "Who discovered bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "answer": "Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek", "sentence": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. <hl> He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria were first observed by the <hl> Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek <hl> in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria were first observed by the <hl> Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek <hl> in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design."}
{"question": "How was he able to see bacteria?", "paragraph": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "answer": "using a single-lens microscope of his own design", "sentence": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design . <hl> He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, <hl> using a single-lens microscope of his own design <hl>. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "sentence_answer": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, <hl> using a single-lens microscope of his own design <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long did it take for his discovery to be taken seriously?", "paragraph": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "answer": "over a century", "sentence": "They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century .", "paragraph_sentence": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. <hl> They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century . <hl> Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "paragraph_answer": "Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for <hl> over a century <hl>. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria \u2014 as opposed to his famous \"animalcules\" (spermatozoa) \u2014 taken seriously.", "sentence_answer": "They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for <hl> over a century <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the first antibiotic discovered?", "paragraph": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "answer": "In 1910", "sentence": "In 1910 , Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen.", "paragraph_sentence": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. <hl> In 1910 , Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. <hl> Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "paragraph_answer": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. <hl> In 1910 <hl>, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In 1910 <hl> , Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen."}
{"question": "Who was the creator of antibiotic?", "paragraph": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "answer": "Paul Ehrlich", "sentence": "In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen.", "paragraph_sentence": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. <hl> In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. <hl> Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "paragraph_answer": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, <hl> Paul Ehrlich <hl> developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "sentence_answer": "In 1910, <hl> Paul Ehrlich <hl> developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen."}
{"question": "What bacteria did he treat first?", "paragraph": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "answer": "Treponema pallidum", "sentence": "In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen.", "paragraph_sentence": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. <hl> In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. <hl> Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "paragraph_answer": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained <hl> Treponema pallidum <hl> \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "sentence_answer": "In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained <hl> Treponema pallidum <hl> \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen."}
{"question": "Who based their research on Enrlich's stains works?", "paragraph": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "answer": "Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen", "sentence": "Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "paragraph_sentence": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. <hl> Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the <hl> Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen <hl> stain.", "sentence_answer": "Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the <hl> Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen <hl> stain."}
{"question": "How was his discovery aknowledged?", "paragraph": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "answer": "had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize", "sentence": "Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "paragraph_sentence": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. <hl> Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum \u2014 the spirochaete that causes syphilis \u2014 into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich <hl> had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize <hl> for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain.", "sentence_answer": "Ehrlich <hl> had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize <hl> for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl\u2013Neelsen stain."}
{"question": "What's the abbreviation for a printed wiring board?", "paragraph": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "answer": "PWB", "sentence": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board ( PWB )", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board ( PWB ) <hl> or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "paragraph_answer": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (<hl> PWB <hl>) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "sentence_answer": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board ( <hl> PWB <hl> )"}
{"question": "What organization likes the term \"circuit card assembly\" for boards that have already been assembled?", "paragraph": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "answer": "IPC", "sentence": "The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies.", "paragraph_sentence": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). <hl> The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. <hl> The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "paragraph_answer": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The <hl> IPC <hl> preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> IPC <hl> preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies."}
{"question": "What would we call a printed circuit board with embedded electronics, abbreviated PCA?", "paragraph": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "answer": "printed circuit assembly", "sentence": "A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA).", "paragraph_sentence": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. <hl> A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). <hl> The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "paragraph_answer": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a <hl> printed circuit assembly <hl> (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "sentence_answer": "A PCB populated with electronic components is called a <hl> printed circuit assembly <hl> (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA)."}
{"question": "What's the more appropriate, but mostly unused, name for a printed circuit board when it doesn't have embedded components?", "paragraph": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "answer": "printed wiring board", "sentence": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. <hl> However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "paragraph_answer": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a <hl> printed wiring board <hl> (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "sentence_answer": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a <hl> printed wiring board <hl> (PWB) or etched wiring board."}
{"question": "What abbreviation would the IPC use for an assembled circuit board?", "paragraph": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "answer": "CCA", "sentence": "The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly ( CCA ),", "paragraph_sentence": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). <hl> The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly ( CCA ), <hl> and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "paragraph_answer": "When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (<hl> CCA <hl>), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.", "sentence_answer": "The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly ( <hl> CCA <hl> ),"}
{"question": "In the old PCB design method, what was used to connect component pin pads?", "paragraph": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "answer": "traces", "sentence": "Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads.", "paragraph_sentence": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. <hl> Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. <hl> Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then <hl> traces <hl> were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "sentence_answer": "Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then <hl> traces <hl> were routed to connect the pads."}
{"question": "What did PCB designers used to employ on a mylar sheet?", "paragraph": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "answer": "photomask", "sentence": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. <hl> Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a <hl> photomask <hl> on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "sentence_answer": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a <hl> photomask <hl> on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size."}
{"question": "What were traces originally made out of?", "paragraph": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "answer": "self-adhesive tape", "sentence": "Traces were made with self-adhesive tape .", "paragraph_sentence": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. <hl> Traces were made with self-adhesive tape . <hl> Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with <hl> self-adhesive tape <hl>. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "sentence_answer": "Traces were made with <hl> self-adhesive tape <hl> ."}
{"question": "Designers would rub on a dry transfer of what to make the process of laying out components simpler?", "paragraph": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "answer": "common component footprints", "sentence": "Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency.", "paragraph_sentence": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. <hl> Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. <hl> Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of <hl> common component footprints <hl> increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "sentence_answer": "Rub-on dry transfers of <hl> common component footprints <hl> increased efficiency."}
{"question": "What kind of metal coated the blank boards used to make PCBs?", "paragraph": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.", "answer": "copper", "sentence": "To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper -clad boards.", "paragraph_sentence": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. <hl> To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper -clad boards. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank <hl> copper <hl>-clad boards.", "sentence_answer": "To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank <hl> copper <hl> -clad boards."}
{"question": "What process groups PCBs before transfer to a panel?", "paragraph": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "answer": "Panelization", "sentence": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. <hl> Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Panelization <hl> is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Panelization <hl> is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel."}
{"question": "Is it more common for panels to have a single design or many designs?", "paragraph": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "answer": "a single design", "sentence": "Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel.", "paragraph_sentence": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. <hl> Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. <hl> There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "paragraph_answer": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of <hl> a single design <hl> but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "sentence_answer": "Usually a panel consists of <hl> a single design <hl> but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel."}
{"question": "What type of panels can also be referred to as an \"array?'", "paragraph": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "answer": "assembly panels", "sentence": "There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels.", "paragraph_sentence": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. <hl> There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. <hl> The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "paragraph_answer": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: <hl> assembly panels <hl> - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "sentence_answer": "There are two types of panels: <hl> assembly panels <hl> - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels."}
{"question": "What step of the bare board manufacture would be impossible if panels weren't always used?", "paragraph": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "answer": "the plating process", "sentence": "The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process .", "paragraph_sentence": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. <hl> The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process . <hl> Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "paragraph_answer": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements <hl> the plating process <hl>. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "sentence_answer": "The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements <hl> the plating process <hl> ."}
{"question": "Besides assembly panels, what's the other type of panel?", "paragraph": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "answer": "bare board manufacturing panels", "sentence": "There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels .", "paragraph_sentence": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. <hl> There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels . <hl> The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "paragraph_answer": "Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and <hl> bare board manufacturing panels <hl>. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.", "sentence_answer": "There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and <hl> bare board manufacturing panels <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the process called whereby the individual PCBs are separated?", "paragraph": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "answer": "depaneling", "sentence": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling . <hl> Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "paragraph_answer": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called <hl> depaneling <hl>. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "sentence_answer": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called <hl> depaneling <hl> ."}
{"question": "What boundaries would you follow to separate PCBs on a panel?", "paragraph": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "answer": "individual circuits", "sentence": "Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits , much like a sheet of postage stamps.", "paragraph_sentence": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. <hl> Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits , much like a sheet of postage stamps. <hl> Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "paragraph_answer": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the <hl> individual circuits <hl>, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "sentence_answer": "Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the <hl> individual circuits <hl> , much like a sheet of postage stamps."}
{"question": "What technology has made depaneling possible without needing to physically interact with the board?", "paragraph": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "answer": "lasers", "sentence": "Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact.", "paragraph_sentence": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. <hl> Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. <hl> Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "paragraph_answer": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by <hl> lasers <hl> which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "sentence_answer": "Today depaneling is often done by <hl> lasers <hl> which cut the board with no contact."}
{"question": "What does the V-shaped groove method save?", "paragraph": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "answer": "space", "sentence": "Another method, which takes less space , is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel.", "paragraph_sentence": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. <hl> Another method, which takes less space , is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. <hl> The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "paragraph_answer": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less <hl> space <hl>, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "sentence_answer": "Another method, which takes less <hl> space <hl> , is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel."}
{"question": "What delicate component is less likely to be damaged if laser depanelization is used?", "paragraph": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "answer": "circuits", "sentence": "Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits , much like a sheet of postage stamps.", "paragraph_sentence": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. <hl> Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits , much like a sheet of postage stamps. <hl> Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "paragraph_answer": "The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual <hl> circuits <hl>, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.", "sentence_answer": "Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual <hl> circuits <hl> , much like a sheet of postage stamps."}
{"question": "Do additive or subtractive methods use less raw materials?", "paragraph": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "answer": "additive", "sentence": "In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process.", "paragraph_sentence": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. <hl> In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. <hl> The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "paragraph_answer": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In <hl> additive <hl> methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> additive <hl> methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process."}
{"question": "What object is used to expose selected parts of the photosensitive film to light?", "paragraph": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "answer": "mask", "sentence": "In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film).", "paragraph_sentence": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. <hl> In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). <hl> The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "paragraph_answer": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a <hl> mask <hl> and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "sentence_answer": "In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a <hl> mask <hl> and then developed which removes the unexposed film)."}
{"question": "What chemical element is often present in the bath used to sensitive exposed film after it's been imaged?", "paragraph": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "answer": "palladium", "sentence": "The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). <hl> The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. <hl> The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "paragraph_answer": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing <hl> palladium <hl> and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "sentence_answer": "The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing <hl> palladium <hl> and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions."}
{"question": "In subtractive methods, what metal covers the board and is then partially removed?", "paragraph": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "answer": "copper", "sentence": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. <hl> In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "paragraph_answer": "Subtractive methods remove <hl> copper <hl> from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "sentence_answer": "Subtractive methods remove <hl> copper <hl> from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern."}
{"question": "In the additive method, which parts of the laminate are plated with copper?", "paragraph": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "answer": "sensitized areas", "sentence": "The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas .", "paragraph_sentence": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. <hl> The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas . <hl> When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "paragraph_answer": "Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the <hl> sensitized areas <hl>. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.", "sentence_answer": "The laminate is then plated with copper in the <hl> sensitized areas <hl> ."}
{"question": "In the semi-additive process, what do the areas exposed by the mask become at the end?", "paragraph": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "answer": "traces", "sentence": "(Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces .)", "paragraph_sentence": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. <hl> (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces .) <hl> Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the <hl> traces <hl>.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "sentence_answer": "(Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the <hl> traces <hl> .)"}
{"question": "What metal is used to plate the unmasked parts of the board in the semi-additive method?", "paragraph": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "answer": "copper", "sentence": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. <hl> A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of <hl> copper <hl> already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "sentence_answer": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of <hl> copper <hl> already on it."}
{"question": "After the mask comes off of the board, what step takes off the original plating?", "paragraph": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "answer": "etching", "sentence": "The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces.", "paragraph_sentence": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. <hl> The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. <hl> Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief <hl> etching <hl> step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "sentence_answer": "The mask is stripped away and a brief <hl> etching <hl> step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces."}
{"question": "What company used to make radios with additive boards in the mid-20th century?", "paragraph": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "answer": "General Electric", "sentence": "General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "paragraph_sentence": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. <hl> General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. <hl> General Electric <hl> made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> General Electric <hl> made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards."}
{"question": "What weight of plating is possible with copper?", "paragraph": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "answer": "any", "sentence": "Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight.", "paragraph_sentence": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) <hl> Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. <hl> Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "paragraph_answer": "Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to <hl> any <hl> desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.", "sentence_answer": "Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to <hl> any <hl> desired weight."}
{"question": "What non-professionals might use immersion etching, since it's the easiest way to make a PCB?", "paragraph": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "answer": "hobbyists", "sentence": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists , is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists , is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. <hl> Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "paragraph_answer": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by <hl> hobbyists <hl>, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "sentence_answer": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by <hl> hobbyists <hl> , is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride."}
{"question": "If you wanted to speed up the etching process, you could agitate the bath up or add what to it?", "paragraph": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "answer": "Heat", "sentence": "Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate.", "paragraph_sentence": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. <hl> Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. <hl> In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "paragraph_answer": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. <hl> Heat <hl> and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Heat <hl> and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate."}
{"question": "Is the immersion etching process long or short compared to other production methods?", "paragraph": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "answer": "long", "sentence": "Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long .", "paragraph_sentence": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. <hl> Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long . <hl> Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "paragraph_answer": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is <hl> long <hl>. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "sentence_answer": "Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is <hl> long <hl> ."}
{"question": "What funny name is used for the etching process where air is blown through the etching solution to get it moving around?", "paragraph": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "answer": "bubble etching", "sentence": "In bubble etching , air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching.", "paragraph_sentence": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. <hl> In bubble etching , air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. <hl> Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "paragraph_answer": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In <hl> bubble etching <hl>, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> bubble etching <hl> , air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching."}
{"question": "What's the fastest and most easily controlled process for etching?", "paragraph": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "answer": "spray etching", "sentence": "Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching .", "paragraph_sentence": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. <hl> Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching . <hl> In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "paragraph_answer": "The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as <hl> spray etching <hl>. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.", "sentence_answer": "Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as <hl> spray etching <hl> ."}
{"question": "If you started with a two-sided laminate etched on either side, laminated to the top and bottom, and processed it again to get traces on the outside layers, how many layers would your final PCB have?", "paragraph": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "answer": "four", "sentence": "For example, a four -layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil.", "paragraph_sentence": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. <hl> For example, a four -layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. <hl> It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "paragraph_answer": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a <hl> four <hl>-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "sentence_answer": "For example, a <hl> four <hl> -layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil."}
{"question": "What makes up the inside of a multi-layer PCB?", "paragraph": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "answer": "trace layers", "sentence": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. <hl> This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "paragraph_answer": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have <hl> trace layers <hl> inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "sentence_answer": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have <hl> trace layers <hl> inside the board."}
{"question": "Pressure is one thing you need to apply to make a multi-layer PCB; what's the other thing?", "paragraph": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "answer": "heat", "sentence": "This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time.", "paragraph_sentence": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. <hl> This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. <hl> This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "paragraph_answer": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and <hl> heat <hl> for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "sentence_answer": "This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and <hl> heat <hl> for a period of time."}
{"question": "What tool is used to push the trace layers in a multi-layer PCB together?", "paragraph": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "answer": "press", "sentence": "This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time.", "paragraph_sentence": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. <hl> This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. <hl> This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "paragraph_answer": "Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a <hl> press <hl> by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.", "sentence_answer": "This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a <hl> press <hl> by applying pressure and heat for a period of time."}
{"question": "What kind of material sometimes used for drilling will lose sharpness quickly if used for PCBs?", "paragraph": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "answer": "high-speed-steel", "sentence": "Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards.", "paragraph_sentence": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. <hl> Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. <hl> The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "paragraph_answer": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with <hl> high-speed-steel <hl> is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "sentence_answer": "Drilling with <hl> high-speed-steel <hl> is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards."}
{"question": "What property do PCBs have that makes them tough to drill through?", "paragraph": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "answer": "abrasive", "sentence": "Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective.", "paragraph_sentence": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. <hl> Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. <hl> Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "paragraph_answer": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very <hl> abrasive <hl> and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "sentence_answer": "Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very <hl> abrasive <hl> and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective."}
{"question": "What kind of drill bit do you need to drill holes in a PCB?", "paragraph": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "answer": "coated tungsten carbide", "sentence": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide . <hl> Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "paragraph_answer": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid <hl> coated tungsten carbide <hl>. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "sentence_answer": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid <hl> coated tungsten carbide <hl> ."}
{"question": "What's another name for NCD files that has an \"x\" in it?", "paragraph": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "answer": "Excellon files", "sentence": "These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \" Excellon files \".", "paragraph_sentence": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. <hl> These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \" Excellon files \". <hl> The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "paragraph_answer": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"<hl> Excellon files <hl>\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "sentence_answer": "These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \" <hl> Excellon files <hl> \"."}
{"question": "What does the \"NCD\" in \"NCD files\" mean?", "paragraph": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "answer": "numerically controlled drill", "sentence": "These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\".", "paragraph_sentence": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. <hl> These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". <hl> The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "paragraph_answer": "Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called <hl> numerically controlled drill <hl> (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.", "sentence_answer": "These computer-generated files are also called <hl> numerically controlled drill <hl> (NCD) files or \"Excellon files\"."}
{"question": "What do the hole walls in two-layer PCBs have to be before they can be electroplated?", "paragraph": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "answer": "conductive", "sentence": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. <hl> These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "paragraph_answer": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made <hl> conductive <hl> and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "sentence_answer": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made <hl> conductive <hl> and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes."}
{"question": "What's the minimum number of layers a PCB can have to be considered \"multi-layer\"?", "paragraph": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system.", "paragraph_sentence": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. <hl> For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. <hl> Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "paragraph_answer": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with <hl> three <hl> layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "sentence_answer": "For multi-layer boards, those with <hl> three <hl> layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system."}
{"question": "What process does a multi-layer PCB usually undergo before plating to make sure the layers have good connectivity with each other?", "paragraph": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "answer": "de-smear", "sentence": "Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch.", "paragraph_sentence": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. <hl> Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. <hl> The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "paragraph_answer": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical <hl> de-smear <hl> process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "sentence_answer": "Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical <hl> de-smear <hl> process, or by plasma-etch."}
{"question": "What type of boards undergo the etch-back process?", "paragraph": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "answer": "high reliability", "sentence": "On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma.", "paragraph_sentence": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. <hl> On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. <hl> The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "paragraph_answer": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On <hl> high reliability <hl> boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> high reliability <hl> boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma."}
{"question": "Etch-back removes glass fibers and what other material?", "paragraph": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "answer": "resin", "sentence": "The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "paragraph_sentence": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. <hl> The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes. These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes <hl> resin <hl> and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.", "sentence_answer": "The etch-back removes <hl> resin <hl> and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper."}
{"question": "What happens to untreated copper that makes it difficult to solder?", "paragraph": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "answer": "oxidizes", "sentence": "The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable.", "paragraph_sentence": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. <hl> The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. <hl> Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "paragraph_answer": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper <hl> oxidizes <hl> quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "sentence_answer": "The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper <hl> oxidizes <hl> quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable."}
{"question": "What chemical treatment will prevent bare copper from oxidizing?", "paragraph": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "answer": "benzimidazolethiol", "sentence": "Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol , prevent surface oxidation of bare copper.", "paragraph_sentence": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. <hl> Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol , prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. <hl> The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "paragraph_answer": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as <hl> benzimidazolethiol <hl>, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "sentence_answer": "Treatments, such as <hl> benzimidazolethiol <hl> , prevent surface oxidation of bare copper."}
{"question": "What's the process by which bare copper gets covered in solder?", "paragraph": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "answer": "hot air solder levelling", "sentence": "Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL).", "paragraph_sentence": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. <hl> Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). <hl> The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "paragraph_answer": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by <hl> hot air solder levelling <hl> (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "sentence_answer": "Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by <hl> hot air solder levelling <hl> (HASL)."}
{"question": "What does hot air solder leveling ensure the coated copper will have?", "paragraph": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "answer": "solderable surface", "sentence": "The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface .", "paragraph_sentence": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). <hl> The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface . <hl> This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "paragraph_answer": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a <hl> solderable surface <hl>. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "sentence_answer": "The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a <hl> solderable surface <hl> ."}
{"question": "What alloy can no longer be used in HASL because of restrictions on the use of one of its metal components?", "paragraph": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "answer": "tin-lead", "sentence": "This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead.", "paragraph_sentence": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. <hl> This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. <hl> One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "paragraph_answer": "Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a <hl> tin-lead <hl> alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.", "sentence_answer": "This solder was a <hl> tin-lead <hl> alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead."}
{"question": "What does OSP stand for?", "paragraph": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "answer": "organic surface protectant", "sentence": "Other platings used are OSP ( organic surface protectant ), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Other platings used are OSP ( organic surface protectant ), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). <hl> Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "paragraph_answer": "Other platings used are OSP (<hl> organic surface protectant <hl>), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "sentence_answer": "Other platings used are OSP ( <hl> organic surface protectant <hl> ), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel)."}
{"question": "What metal is often under the gold plating on edge connectors?", "paragraph": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "answer": "nickel", "sentence": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). <hl> Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "paragraph_answer": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless <hl> nickel <hl> with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "sentence_answer": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless <hl> nickel <hl> with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel)."}
{"question": "What's the abbreviation for immersion silver plating?", "paragraph": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "answer": "IAg", "sentence": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver ( IAg ), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver ( IAg ), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). <hl> Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "paragraph_answer": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (<hl> IAg <hl>), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "sentence_answer": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver ( <hl> IAg <hl> ), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel)."}
{"question": "Ag3Cu is one intermetallic that tin forms; what's the other one?", "paragraph": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "answer": "Cu5Sn6", "sentence": "Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "paragraph_sentence": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. <hl> Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as <hl> Cu5Sn6 <hl> and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "sentence_answer": "Tin forms intermetallics such as <hl> Cu5Sn6 <hl> and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids."}
{"question": "What might the rapid diffusion of coating metal into tin solder leave in the surface coating?", "paragraph": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.", "answer": "voids", "sentence": "Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids .", "paragraph_sentence": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. <hl> Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving <hl> voids <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving <hl> voids <hl> ."}
{"question": "What's the process whereby metal filaments are grown on or in a PCB via DC voltage?", "paragraph": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "answer": "Electrochemical migration", "sentence": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. <hl> Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Electrochemical migration <hl> (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Electrochemical migration <hl> (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias."}
{"question": "Along with silver and aluminum, what metal grows metal filaments when exposed to an electric field?", "paragraph": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "answer": "zinc", "sentence": "Silver, zinc , and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field.", "paragraph_sentence": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. <hl> Silver, zinc , and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. <hl> Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "paragraph_answer": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, <hl> zinc <hl>, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "sentence_answer": "Silver, <hl> zinc <hl> , and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field."}
{"question": "In addition to \"whiskers,\" what does silver sprout around ions like halide?", "paragraph": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "answer": "conducting surface paths", "sentence": "Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use.", "paragraph_sentence": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. <hl> Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. <hl> Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "paragraph_answer": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows <hl> conducting surface paths <hl> in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "sentence_answer": "Silver also grows <hl> conducting surface paths <hl> in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use."}
{"question": "What do scientist call the function whereby tin changes when it's very cold?", "paragraph": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "answer": "tin pest", "sentence": "Another coating issue is tin pest , the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "paragraph_sentence": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. <hl> Another coating issue is tin pest , the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is <hl> tin pest <hl>, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "sentence_answer": "Another coating issue is <hl> tin pest <hl> , the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature."}
{"question": "What's present in plated surfaces that causes tin to grow metal filaments?", "paragraph": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "answer": "tension", "sentence": "Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface.", "paragraph_sentence": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. <hl> Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to tension in the plated surface. <hl> Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "paragraph_answer": "Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to <hl> tension <hl> in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.", "sentence_answer": "Tin will grow \"whiskers\" due to <hl> tension <hl> in the plated surface."}
{"question": "If part of a PCB isn't solderable, what can be used instead?", "paragraph": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "answer": "solder resist", "sentence": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). <hl> One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "paragraph_answer": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with <hl> solder resist <hl> (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "sentence_answer": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with <hl> solder resist <hl> (solder mask)."}
{"question": "What's another term used for \"solder resist\"?", "paragraph": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "answer": "solder mask", "sentence": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist ( solder mask )", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist ( solder mask ) <hl> . One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "paragraph_answer": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (<hl> solder mask <hl>). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "sentence_answer": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist ( <hl> solder mask <hl> )"}
{"question": "What solder resist with a four-word name is a popular choice in the industry?", "paragraph": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "answer": "liquid photoimageable solder mask", "sentence": "One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" ( liquid photoimageable solder mask ).", "paragraph_sentence": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). <hl> One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" ( liquid photoimageable solder mask ). <hl> A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "paragraph_answer": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (<hl> liquid photoimageable solder mask <hl>). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "sentence_answer": "One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" ( <hl> liquid photoimageable solder mask <hl> )."}
{"question": "What kind of coating gets applied to the PWB before light exposure?", "paragraph": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "answer": "photo-sensitive", "sentence": "A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away.", "paragraph_sentence": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). <hl> A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. <hl> Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "paragraph_answer": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A <hl> photo-sensitive <hl> coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "sentence_answer": "A <hl> photo-sensitive <hl> coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away."}
{"question": "What solder resist is so inaccurate that few choose it anymore?", "paragraph": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "answer": "screen print epoxy ink", "sentence": "Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink .", "paragraph_sentence": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. <hl> Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink . <hl> Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "paragraph_answer": "Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called \"LPI\" (liquid photoimageable solder mask). A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to <hl> screen print epoxy ink <hl>. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.", "sentence_answer": "Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to <hl> screen print epoxy ink <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are bare-board tests looking for besides \"opens\"?", "paragraph": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "answer": "\"shorts\"", "sentence": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". <hl> A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "paragraph_answer": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for <hl> \"shorts\" <hl> and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "sentence_answer": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for <hl> \"shorts\" <hl> and \"opens\"."}
{"question": "What conductive metal are the lands on a circuit board made out of?", "paragraph": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "answer": "copper", "sentence": "For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. <hl> For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. <hl> Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "paragraph_answer": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with <hl> copper <hl> lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "sentence_answer": "For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with <hl> copper <hl> lands on the board."}
{"question": "What's an absent connection that needs to be linked up on an unpopulated board called?", "paragraph": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "answer": "An open", "sentence": "An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. <hl> An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. <hl> For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "paragraph_answer": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. <hl> An open <hl> is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> An open <hl> is a missing connection between points that should be connected."}
{"question": "What does a flying probe tester deliver to the contact points during testing?", "paragraph": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "answer": "voltage", "sentence": "a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply <hl> a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a <hl> voltage <hl> to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "sentence_answer": "a <hl> voltage <hl> to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these."}
{"question": "What system tells the flying probe where to go and what to do?", "paragraph": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "answer": "CAM system", "sentence": "The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "paragraph_sentence": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. <hl> The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for \"shorts\" and \"opens\". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The <hl> CAM system <hl> instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> CAM system <hl> instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these."}
{"question": "Surface-mount is one type of construction used in PCB assembly; what's the other one?", "paragraph": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "answer": "through-hole", "sentence": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. <hl> Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "paragraph_answer": "Often, <hl> through-hole <hl> and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "sentence_answer": "Often, <hl> through-hole <hl> and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages."}
{"question": "Which type of construction makes components that use more space?", "paragraph": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "answer": "through-hole", "sentence": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. <hl> Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "paragraph_answer": "Often, <hl> through-hole <hl> and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "sentence_answer": "Often, <hl> through-hole <hl> and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages."}
{"question": "Which of the two kinds of construction is weaker under strain?", "paragraph": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "answer": "surface-mount", "sentence": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. <hl> Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "paragraph_answer": "Often, through-hole and <hl> surface-mount <hl> construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "sentence_answer": "Often, through-hole and <hl> surface-mount <hl> construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages."}
{"question": "If you're building a circuit board that has a lot of components that won't be used, which construction would be better?", "paragraph": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "answer": "surface-mount", "sentence": "Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. <hl> Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "paragraph_answer": "Often, through-hole and <hl> surface-mount <hl> construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.", "sentence_answer": "Often, through-hole and <hl> surface-mount <hl> construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages."}
{"question": "What's the most frequently used test configuration procedure for ICs?", "paragraph": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "answer": "Joint Test Action Group", "sentence": "Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard.", "paragraph_sentence": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. <hl> Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. <hl> The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "paragraph_answer": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the <hl> Joint Test Action Group <hl> (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "sentence_answer": "Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the <hl> Joint Test Action Group <hl> (JTAG) standard."}
{"question": "Do test circuits create permanent or temporary connections between traces?", "paragraph": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "answer": "temporary", "sentence": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. <hl> Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "paragraph_answer": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form <hl> temporary <hl> connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "sentence_answer": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form <hl> temporary <hl> connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly."}
{"question": "What component of the printed circuit board is appraised with boundary scan testing?", "paragraph": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "answer": "ICs", "sentence": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. <hl> Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "paragraph_answer": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various <hl> ICs <hl> on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "sentence_answer": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various <hl> ICs <hl> on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly."}
{"question": "To whom would you go to acquire the algorithms you'd use for the Joint Test Action Group procedures?", "paragraph": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "answer": "JTAG tool vendors", "sentence": "JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "paragraph_sentence": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. <hl> JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. <hl> JTAG tool vendors <hl> provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> JTAG tool vendors <hl> provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins."}
{"question": "What would you avoid by using the Joint Test Action Group standard?", "paragraph": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "answer": "physical test probes", "sentence": "The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes .", "paragraph_sentence": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. <hl> The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes . <hl> JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "paragraph_answer": "In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using <hl> physical test probes <hl>. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.", "sentence_answer": "The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using <hl> physical test probes <hl> ."}
{"question": "If a PCB is intended for use in an setting with extreme conditions, what would probably be applied?", "paragraph": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "answer": "conformal coating", "sentence": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating , which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating , which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. <hl> The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "paragraph_answer": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a <hl> conformal coating <hl>, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "sentence_answer": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a <hl> conformal coating <hl> , which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered."}
{"question": "The conformal coating can prevent leaking, shorts, and what other type of moisture damage?", "paragraph": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "answer": "corrosion", "sentence": "The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation.", "paragraph_sentence": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. <hl> The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. <hl> The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "paragraph_answer": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents <hl> corrosion <hl> and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "sentence_answer": "The coat prevents <hl> corrosion <hl> and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation."}
{"question": "A conformal coating can be applied by spraying the PCB or by doing what else to it?", "paragraph": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "answer": "dipping", "sentence": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. <hl> The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "paragraph_answer": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by <hl> dipping <hl> or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "sentence_answer": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by <hl> dipping <hl> or spraying after the components have been soldered."}
{"question": "What material was first used for conformal coating?", "paragraph": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "answer": "wax", "sentence": "The earliest conformal coats were wax ; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy.", "paragraph_sentence": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. <hl> The earliest conformal coats were wax ; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. <hl> Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "paragraph_answer": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were <hl> wax <hl>; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "sentence_answer": "The earliest conformal coats were <hl> wax <hl> ; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy."}
{"question": "What action is made much more difficult for boards that have a conformal coating?", "paragraph": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "answer": "servicing", "sentence": "The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "paragraph_sentence": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. <hl> The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that <hl> servicing <hl> of the board is rendered extremely difficult.", "sentence_answer": "The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that <hl> servicing <hl> of the board is rendered extremely difficult."}
{"question": "What special protection are most PCBs shipped in?", "paragraph": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "answer": "antistatic bags", "sentence": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. <hl> When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "paragraph_answer": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in <hl> antistatic bags <hl> during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "sentence_answer": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in <hl> antistatic bags <hl> during transport."}
{"question": "What force can easily change or even completely destroy an etch on a PCB?", "paragraph": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "answer": "static charge", "sentence": "Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). <hl> Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. <hl> Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "paragraph_answer": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated <hl> static charge <hl> through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "sentence_answer": "Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated <hl> static charge <hl> through the board, damaging or destroying components."}
{"question": "What's another term for \"grounded\" in the context of PCBs?", "paragraph": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "answer": "earthed", "sentence": "When handling these boards, the user must be grounded ( earthed ).", "paragraph_sentence": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. <hl> When handling these boards, the user must be grounded ( earthed ). <hl> Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "paragraph_answer": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (<hl> earthed <hl>). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "sentence_answer": "When handling these boards, the user must be grounded ( <hl> earthed <hl> )."}
{"question": "Non-traditional PCBs include microwave PCBs and what other type of board?", "paragraph": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "answer": "MCMs", "sentence": "This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. <hl> This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as <hl> MCMs <hl> and microwave PCBs.", "sentence_answer": "This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as <hl> MCMs <hl> and microwave PCBs."}
{"question": "What class of PCBs are even more susceptible to static than standard ones?", "paragraph": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "answer": "non-traditional", "sentence": "This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "paragraph_sentence": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. <hl> This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on <hl> non-traditional <hl> PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.", "sentence_answer": "This is especially true on <hl> non-traditional <hl> PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs."}
{"question": "If a lead wasn't soldered manually, what device was used?", "paragraph": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "answer": "wave soldering machine", "sentence": "Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine .", "paragraph_sentence": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. <hl> Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a <hl> wave soldering machine <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Leads may be soldered either manually or by a <hl> wave soldering machine <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which type of PCB construction technique was used first?", "paragraph": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "answer": "through-hole", "sentence": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. <hl> Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "paragraph_answer": "The first PCBs used <hl> through-hole <hl> technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "sentence_answer": "The first PCBs used <hl> through-hole <hl> technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side."}
{"question": "In through-hole construction, what are the leads on the front attached to on the back?", "paragraph": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "answer": "copper traces", "sentence": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. <hl> Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "paragraph_answer": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto <hl> copper traces <hl> on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "sentence_answer": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto <hl> copper traces <hl> on the other side."}
{"question": "For boards with two sides, to what angle are leads bent to in order to install them horizontally?", "paragraph": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "answer": "90 degrees", "sentence": "Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. <hl> Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. <hl> Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "paragraph_answer": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads <hl> 90 degrees <hl> in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "sentence_answer": "Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads <hl> 90 degrees <hl> in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends."}
{"question": "What is improved by bending leads in opposite directions on the back of double-sided PCBs?", "paragraph": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "answer": "mechanical strength", "sentence": "Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength ), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. <hl> Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength ), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. <hl> Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "paragraph_answer": "The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's <hl> mechanical strength <hl>), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.", "sentence_answer": "Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's <hl> mechanical strength <hl> ), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends."}
{"question": "Which type of construction is more expensive?", "paragraph": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "answer": "Through-hole", "sentence": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. <hl> Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Through-hole <hl> manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Through-hole <hl> manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side."}
{"question": "What type of boards end up with limited routing space in through-hole manufacture?", "paragraph": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "answer": "multi-layer", "sentence": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. <hl> Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "paragraph_answer": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on <hl> multi-layer <hl> boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "sentence_answer": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on <hl> multi-layer <hl> boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side."}
{"question": "What force might damage a PCB if large components are surface mounted?", "paragraph": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "answer": "mechanical stress", "sentence": "Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "paragraph_sentence": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. <hl> Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to <hl> mechanical stress <hl> which might damage the PCB.", "sentence_answer": "Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to <hl> mechanical stress <hl> which might damage the PCB."}
{"question": "What components can be surface mounted to save space?", "paragraph": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "answer": "small-sized SMD components", "sentence": "Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "paragraph_sentence": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. <hl> Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, <hl> small-sized SMD components <hl> were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "sentence_answer": "Once surface-mounting came into use, <hl> small-sized SMD components <hl> were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB."}
{"question": "A component might not be able to be made any smaller because of its mechanical limitations or what other need?", "paragraph": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "answer": "power requirements", "sentence": "Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "paragraph_sentence": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. <hl> Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to <hl> power requirements <hl> or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.", "sentence_answer": "Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to <hl> power requirements <hl> or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB."}
{"question": "When did surface-mount become a commonly used manufacturing process?", "paragraph": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "answer": "mid-1990s", "sentence": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s . <hl> Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "paragraph_answer": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the <hl> mid-1990s <hl>. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "sentence_answer": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the <hl> mid-1990s <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did the new components with end tabs replace?", "paragraph": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "answer": "wire leads", "sentence": "Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes.", "paragraph_sentence": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. <hl> Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. <hl> Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "paragraph_answer": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of <hl> wire leads <hl> to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "sentence_answer": "Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of <hl> wire leads <hl> to pass through holes."}
{"question": "What improvement is possible with surface-mounting that enables higher production and lower labor costs?", "paragraph": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "answer": "automation", "sentence": "Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation , reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates.", "paragraph_sentence": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. <hl> Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation , reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. <hl> Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "paragraph_answer": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of <hl> automation <hl>, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "sentence_answer": "Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of <hl> automation <hl> , reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates."}
{"question": "What are SMDs?", "paragraph": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "answer": "surface mount devices", "sentence": "Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages.", "paragraph_sentence": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. <hl> Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. <hl> Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "paragraph_answer": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor <hl> surface mount devices <hl> (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "sentence_answer": "Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor <hl> surface mount devices <hl> (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages."}
{"question": "Is it the chip or the package that influences the price of an SMD more?", "paragraph": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "answer": "chip", "sentence": "Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages.", "paragraph_sentence": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. <hl> Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. <hl> Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "paragraph_answer": "Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the <hl> chip <hl> itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.", "sentence_answer": "Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the <hl> chip <hl> itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages."}
{"question": "What process is a trace left over from?", "paragraph": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "answer": "etching", "sentence": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching . <hl> The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "paragraph_answer": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after <hl> etching <hl>. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "sentence_answer": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after <hl> etching <hl> ."}
{"question": "Along with thickness, what determines the resistance of a trace?", "paragraph": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "answer": "width", "sentence": "The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry.", "paragraph_sentence": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. <hl> The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. <hl> Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "paragraph_answer": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by <hl> width <hl> and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "sentence_answer": "The resistance, determined by <hl> width <hl> and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry."}
{"question": "What type of trace is often narrower than a ground trace?", "paragraph": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "answer": "signal", "sentence": "Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces.", "paragraph_sentence": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. <hl> Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. <hl> In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "paragraph_answer": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than <hl> signal <hl> traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "sentence_answer": "Power and ground traces may need to be wider than <hl> signal <hl> traces."}
{"question": "In a multi-layer board, what metal would a ground plane be mostly made out of?", "paragraph": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "answer": "copper", "sentence": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. <hl> The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "paragraph_answer": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the <hl> copper <hl> foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "sentence_answer": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the <hl> copper <hl> foil that remains after etching."}
{"question": "What type of circuits use a stripline and microstrip format?", "paragraph": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "answer": "microwave circuits", "sentence": "For microwave circuits , transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance.", "paragraph_sentence": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. <hl> For microwave circuits , transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. <hl> In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "paragraph_answer": "Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For <hl> microwave circuits <hl>, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.", "sentence_answer": "For <hl> microwave circuits <hl> , transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance."}
{"question": "What element of a laminate is designated by the cloth to resin ratio, among other things?", "paragraph": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "answer": "type designation", "sentence": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.)", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) <hl> and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "paragraph_answer": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's <hl> type designation <hl> (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "sentence_answer": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's <hl> type designation <hl> (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.)"}
{"question": "What's the name for the measurement of a laminate's change in thickness as its temperature changes?", "paragraph": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "answer": "Z-axis expansion coefficient", "sentence": "Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "paragraph_sentence": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. <hl> Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the <hl> Z-axis expansion coefficient <hl> (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "sentence_answer": "Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the <hl> Z-axis expansion coefficient <hl> (how much the thickness changes with temperature)."}
{"question": "What's the abbreviation for the glass transition temperature of a laminate?", "paragraph": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "answer": "Tg", "sentence": "Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature ( Tg ), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "paragraph_sentence": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. <hl> Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature ( Tg ), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (<hl> Tg <hl>), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).", "sentence_answer": "Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (t\u03b4), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature ( <hl> Tg <hl> ), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature)."}
{"question": "What's the common name of polytetrafluoroethylene?", "paragraph": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "answer": "Teflon", "sentence": "Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene ( Teflon ), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. <hl> Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene ( Teflon ), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. <hl> Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "paragraph_answer": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (<hl> Teflon <hl>), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "sentence_answer": "Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene ( <hl> Teflon <hl> ), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3."}
{"question": "What pre-preg material is designated by \"FR-2\"?", "paragraph": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "answer": "phenolic cotton paper", "sentence": "Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 ( phenolic cotton paper ), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester).", "paragraph_sentence": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. <hl> Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 ( phenolic cotton paper ), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). <hl> Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "paragraph_answer": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (<hl> phenolic cotton paper <hl>), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "sentence_answer": "Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 ( <hl> phenolic cotton paper <hl> ), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester)."}
{"question": "To what type of packaging is thermal expansion particularly critical?", "paragraph": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "answer": "ball grid array", "sentence": "Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). <hl> Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with <hl> ball grid array <hl> (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "sentence_answer": "Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with <hl> ball grid array <hl> (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability."}
{"question": "What material delivers optimum dimensional stability?", "paragraph": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "answer": "glass fiber", "sentence": "Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). <hl> Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and <hl> glass fiber <hl> offers the best dimensional stability.", "sentence_answer": "Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and <hl> glass fiber <hl> offers the best dimensional stability."}
{"question": "What dielectric is matte glass and polyester?", "paragraph": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "answer": "FR-6", "sentence": "Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester).", "paragraph_sentence": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. <hl> Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). <hl> Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "paragraph_answer": "There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), <hl> FR-6 <hl> (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.", "sentence_answer": "Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), <hl> FR-6 <hl> (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester)."}
{"question": "Along with the non-woven class, what makes up the reinforcement type materials?", "paragraph": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "answer": "woven", "sentence": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. <hl> Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "paragraph_answer": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - <hl> woven <hl> and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "sentence_answer": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - <hl> woven <hl> and non-woven."}
{"question": "Which is the more expensive reinforcement type?", "paragraph": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "answer": "non-woven", "sentence": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven . <hl> Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "paragraph_answer": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and <hl> non-woven <hl>. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "sentence_answer": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and <hl> non-woven <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of structure do woven reinforcements have that cause them to have variation in their electrical parameters?", "paragraph": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "answer": "spatially nonhomogeneous", "sentence": "The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern.", "paragraph_sentence": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. <hl> The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. <hl> Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "paragraph_answer": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The <hl> spatially nonhomogeneous <hl> structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> spatially nonhomogeneous <hl> structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern."}
{"question": "Which ratio varies because of the structure of woven reinforcements?", "paragraph": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "answer": "resin/glass", "sentence": "The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern.", "paragraph_sentence": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. <hl> The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. <hl> Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "paragraph_answer": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different <hl> resin/glass <hl> ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "sentence_answer": "The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different <hl> resin/glass <hl> ratio at different areas of the weave pattern."}
{"question": "For what kind of applications are non-woven reinforcement materials better than woven ones?", "paragraph": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "answer": "RF/analog", "sentence": "Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.", "paragraph_sentence": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. <hl> Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some <hl> RF/analog <hl> applications.", "sentence_answer": "Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some <hl> RF/analog <hl> applications."}
{"question": "What's the temperature at which resin softens and expands called?", "paragraph": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "answer": "glass transition temperature", "sentence": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. <hl> Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "paragraph_answer": "At the <hl> glass transition temperature <hl> the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "sentence_answer": "At the <hl> glass transition temperature <hl> the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias."}
{"question": "Along with vias, what makes up the components of a board?", "paragraph": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "answer": "joints", "sentence": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. <hl> Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "paragraph_answer": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the <hl> joints <hl> and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "sentence_answer": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the <hl> joints <hl> and the vias."}
{"question": "What will happen to the components when the temperature of resin goes above that of glass transition?", "paragraph": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "answer": "mechanical overload", "sentence": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. <hl> Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "paragraph_answer": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts <hl> mechanical overload <hl> on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "sentence_answer": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts <hl> mechanical overload <hl> on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias."}
{"question": "What do thick boards require to resist plating failure?", "paragraph": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "answer": "high Tg matrix", "sentence": "Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix .", "paragraph_sentence": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. <hl> Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require <hl> high Tg matrix <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require <hl> high Tg matrix <hl> ."}
{"question": "When resin stays below Tg, its thermal expansion is similar to that of copper and what other material?", "paragraph": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "answer": "glass", "sentence": "At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. <hl> Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "paragraph_answer": "At the <hl> glass <hl> transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.", "sentence_answer": "At the <hl> glass <hl> transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias."}
{"question": "What will happen to the materials when a board gets wet or is in a humid area?", "paragraph": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "answer": "Moisture absorption", "sentence": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. <hl> Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Moisture absorption <hl> occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Moisture absorption <hl> occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water."}
{"question": "If materials absorb moisture and then are heated enough to vaporize the water, the board might show delamination or what other type of damage?", "paragraph": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "answer": "cracking", "sentence": "Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts.", "paragraph_sentence": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. <hl> Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. <hl> Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "paragraph_answer": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause <hl> cracking <hl> and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "sentence_answer": "Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause <hl> cracking <hl> and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts."}
{"question": "What percentage absorption do F-4 epoxies have?", "paragraph": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "answer": "0.15%", "sentence": "Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15% .", "paragraph_sentence": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. <hl> Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15% . <hl> Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "paragraph_answer": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only <hl> 0.15% <hl>. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "sentence_answer": "Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only <hl> 0.15% <hl> ."}
{"question": "What's the approximate relative dielectric constant of most materials in circuit boards?", "paragraph": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "answer": "4", "sentence": "Epoxies of the FR- 4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%.", "paragraph_sentence": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. <hl> Epoxies of the FR- 4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. <hl> Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "paragraph_answer": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-<hl> 4 <hl> materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "sentence_answer": "Epoxies of the FR- <hl> 4 <hl> materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%."}
{"question": "What material has an absorption rate of only 0.01%?", "paragraph": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "answer": "Teflon", "sentence": "Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%.", "paragraph_sentence": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. <hl> Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. <hl> Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "paragraph_answer": "Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. <hl> Teflon <hl> has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for \"popcorning\" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Teflon <hl> has very low absorption of 0.01%."}
{"question": "What's the minimum amount of copper a layer in a PCB can have to be considered \"heavy copper\"?", "paragraph": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "answer": "three ounces", "sentence": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. <hl> PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "paragraph_answer": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding <hl> three ounces <hl> of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "sentence_answer": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding <hl> three ounces <hl> of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick."}
{"question": "About how thick would a PCB layer be if it contained three oz. of copper?", "paragraph": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "answer": "0.0042 inches", "sentence": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. <hl> PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "paragraph_answer": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately <hl> 0.0042 inches <hl> (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "sentence_answer": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately <hl> 0.0042 inches <hl> (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick."}
{"question": "What will a circuit board with heavy copper carry very well?", "paragraph": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "answer": "current", "sentence": "PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current -carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains.", "paragraph_sentence": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. <hl> PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current -carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. <hl> Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "paragraph_answer": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase <hl> current <hl>-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "sentence_answer": "PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase <hl> current <hl> -carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains."}
{"question": "What would a PCB designer use heavy copper to make their circuit board resist?", "paragraph": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "answer": "thermal strains", "sentence": "PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains .", "paragraph_sentence": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. <hl> PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains . <hl> Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "paragraph_answer": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to <hl> thermal strains <hl>. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "sentence_answer": "PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to <hl> thermal strains <hl> ."}
{"question": "Where does the heat go when it leaves heavy copper-plated vias?", "paragraph": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "answer": "external heat sinks", "sentence": "Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks .", "paragraph_sentence": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. <hl> Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks . <hl> IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "paragraph_answer": "The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 \u03bcm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to <hl> external heat sinks <hl>. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.", "sentence_answer": "Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to <hl> external heat sinks <hl> ."}
{"question": "What arduous aspect of the process can designers skip in Multiwire?", "paragraph": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "answer": "routing of wires", "sentence": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. <hl> This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "paragraph_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the <hl> routing of wires <hl> (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "sentence_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the <hl> routing of wires <hl> (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another."}
{"question": "What does the machine create by drawing a straight line between two points on the board?", "paragraph": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "answer": "a connection", "sentence": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection , the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection , the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. <hl> This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "paragraph_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs <hl> a connection <hl>, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "sentence_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs <hl> a connection <hl> , the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another."}
{"question": "Along with quick design times, what problem does Multiwire cut down on?", "paragraph": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "answer": "crosstalk", "sentence": "This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "paragraph_sentence": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. <hl> This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced <hl> crosstalk <hl> (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "sentence_answer": "This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced <hl> crosstalk <hl> (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed."}
{"question": "What makes Multiwire impractical to use when large quantities of a board are needed?", "paragraph": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "answer": "cost", "sentence": "This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "paragraph_sentence": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. <hl> This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the <hl> cost <hl> is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "sentence_answer": "This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the <hl> cost <hl> is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed."}
{"question": "In simple language, what are the interconnections in an embedding matrix?", "paragraph": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "answer": "wires", "sentence": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections ( wires ) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections ( wires ) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. <hl> This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "paragraph_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (<hl> wires <hl>) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other\u2014which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.", "sentence_answer": "Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections ( <hl> wires <hl> ) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another."}
{"question": "What type of construction is best for applications that need to portion space carefully?", "paragraph": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "answer": "Cordwood", "sentence": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. <hl> In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Cordwood <hl> construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Cordwood <hl> construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important."}
{"question": "What gets mounted in the middle of two parallel planes in a cordwood construction?", "paragraph": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "answer": "axial-leaded components", "sentence": "In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. <hl> In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. <hl> The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "paragraph_answer": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, <hl> axial-leaded components <hl> were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "sentence_answer": "In cordwood construction, <hl> axial-leaded components <hl> were mounted between two parallel planes."}
{"question": "What type of component has to be used in cordwood construction to its detriment?", "paragraph": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "answer": "nickel-leaded", "sentence": "One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. <hl> One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. <hl> Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "paragraph_answer": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special <hl> nickel-leaded <hl> components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "sentence_answer": "One disadvantage of this system was that special <hl> nickel-leaded <hl> components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made."}
{"question": "What do insulating cards prevent between interconnection layers?", "paragraph": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "answer": "shorting", "sentence": "To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them.", "paragraph_sentence": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. <hl> To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. <hl> Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "paragraph_answer": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid <hl> shorting <hl> together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "sentence_answer": "To avoid <hl> shorting <hl> together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them."}
{"question": "What force caused the physical damage to components that affected the Apollo program?", "paragraph": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "answer": "Differential thermal expansion", "sentence": "Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program).", "paragraph_sentence": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. <hl> Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). <hl> Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "paragraph_answer": "Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. <hl> Differential thermal expansion <hl> of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Differential thermal expansion <hl> of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program)."}
{"question": "Who was the German inventor who wrote in 1903 about conductors being laminated in layers to a board?", "paragraph": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "answer": "Albert Hanson", "sentence": "In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson , described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers.", "paragraph_sentence": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. <hl> In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson , described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. <hl> Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "paragraph_answer": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, <hl> Albert Hanson <hl>, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "sentence_answer": "In 1903, a German inventor, <hl> Albert Hanson <hl> , described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers."}
{"question": "What material did Thomas Edison experiment with by trying to chemically attach conductors to it?", "paragraph": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "answer": "linen paper", "sentence": "Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904.", "paragraph_sentence": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. <hl> Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. <hl> Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "paragraph_answer": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto <hl> linen paper <hl> in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "sentence_answer": "Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto <hl> linen paper <hl> in 1904."}
{"question": "What year did Arthur Berry patent his print-and-etch method?", "paragraph": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "answer": "1913", "sentence": "Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask.", "paragraph_sentence": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. <hl> Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. <hl> Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "paragraph_answer": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in <hl> 1913 <hl> patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "sentence_answer": "Arthur Berry in <hl> 1913 <hl> patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask."}
{"question": "In Max Schoop's method, what was used to create the flame-sprayed pattern on the board?", "paragraph": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "answer": "a patterned mask", "sentence": "Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask .", "paragraph_sentence": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. <hl> Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask . <hl> Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "paragraph_answer": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through <hl> a patterned mask <hl>. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "sentence_answer": "Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through <hl> a patterned mask <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who obtained a patent in 1927 for his method of electroplating circuit patterns?", "paragraph": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "answer": "Charles Ducas", "sentence": "Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "paragraph_sentence": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. <hl> Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. <hl> Charles Ducas <hl> in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Charles Ducas <hl> in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns."}
{"question": "What was Paul Eisler making when he came up with the printed circuit?", "paragraph": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "answer": "a radio set", "sentence": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. <hl> Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "paragraph_answer": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of <hl> a radio set <hl> while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "sentence_answer": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of <hl> a radio set <hl> while working in England around 1936."}
{"question": "What event prompted the United States to adopt the printed circuit to make proximity fuses?", "paragraph": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "answer": "World War II", "sentence": "Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. <hl> Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II . <hl> After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "paragraph_answer": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in <hl> World War II <hl>. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "sentence_answer": "Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in <hl> World War II <hl> ."}
{"question": "When was the printed circuit released for commercial use in the U.S.?", "paragraph": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "answer": "1948", "sentence": "After the war, in 1948 , the USA released the invention for commercial use.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. <hl> After the war, in 1948 , the USA released the invention for commercial use. <hl> Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "paragraph_answer": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in <hl> 1948 <hl>, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "sentence_answer": "After the war, in <hl> 1948 <hl> , the USA released the invention for commercial use."}
{"question": "Who was working on the same type of large-scale application of printed circuits as the U.S. in Britain in the mid-1950s?", "paragraph": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "answer": "Geoffrey Dummer", "sentence": "At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer , then at the RRDE.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. <hl> At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer , then at the RRDE. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by <hl> Geoffrey Dummer <hl>, then at the RRDE.", "sentence_answer": "At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by <hl> Geoffrey Dummer <hl> , then at the RRDE."}
{"question": "What process was created by the U.S. Army that led to innovation in consumer electronics?", "paragraph": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "answer": "Auto-Sembly", "sentence": "Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. <hl> Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. <hl> At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "paragraph_answer": "The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the <hl> Auto-Sembly <hl> process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.", "sentence_answer": "Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the <hl> Auto-Sembly <hl> process was developed by the United States Army."}
{"question": "What company developed the first electronic circuit that could be mass produced and was durable enough to be fired from a gun?", "paragraph": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "answer": "Globe Union", "sentence": "The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place.", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. <hl> The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. <hl> The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of <hl> Globe Union <hl> submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "sentence_answer": "The Centralab Division of <hl> Globe Union <hl> submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place."}
{"question": "Who was in charge of the Centralab Division of Globe Union when the PCB used in anti-aircraft fuses was invented?", "paragraph": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "answer": "Harry W. Rubinstein", "sentence": "Harry W. Rubinstein , the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate.", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. <hl> Harry W. Rubinstein , the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. <hl> As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. <hl> Harry W. Rubinstein <hl>, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Harry W. Rubinstein <hl> , the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate."}
{"question": "Where did Harry Rubinstein attend college?", "paragraph": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "answer": "University of Wisconsin-Madison", "sentence": "As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison , for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. <hl> As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison , for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the <hl> University of Wisconsin-Madison <hl>, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "sentence_answer": "As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the <hl> University of Wisconsin-Madison <hl> , for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors."}
{"question": "What was the plate used for anti-aircraft proximity fuses in World War II made out of?", "paragraph": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "answer": "ceramic", "sentence": "The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place.", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. <hl> The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. <hl> The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a <hl> ceramic <hl> plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "sentence_answer": "The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a <hl> ceramic <hl> plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place."}
{"question": "What award did Rubinstein win in 1984 for his contributions?", "paragraph": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "answer": "Cledo Brunetti Award", "sentence": "It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate.", "paragraph_sentence": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. <hl> It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. <hl> As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "paragraph_answer": "During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted <hl> Cledo Brunetti Award <hl> for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.", "sentence_answer": "It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted <hl> Cledo Brunetti Award <hl> for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate."}
{"question": "What type of construction was originally used for all electronic components?", "paragraph": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "answer": "through-hole", "sentence": "This method of assembly is called through-hole construction.", "paragraph_sentence": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. <hl> This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. <hl> In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "paragraph_answer": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called <hl> through-hole <hl> construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "sentence_answer": "This method of assembly is called <hl> through-hole <hl> construction."}
{"question": "In what year was the Auto-Sembly process created?", "paragraph": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "answer": "1949", "sentence": "In 1949 , Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered.", "paragraph_sentence": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. <hl> In 1949 , Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. <hl> The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "paragraph_answer": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In <hl> 1949 <hl>, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 1949 <hl> , Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered."}
{"question": "What year was the patent for the Auto-Sembly process granted?", "paragraph": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "answer": "1956", "sentence": "The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army.", "paragraph_sentence": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. <hl> The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. <hl> With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "paragraph_answer": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in <hl> 1956 <hl> was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "sentence_answer": "The patent they obtained in <hl> 1956 <hl> was assigned to the U.S. Army."}
{"question": "Although two men developed the Auto-Sembly process, to whom was the patent officially granted?", "paragraph": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "answer": "U.S. Army", "sentence": "The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army .", "paragraph_sentence": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. <hl> The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army . <hl> With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "paragraph_answer": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the <hl> U.S. Army <hl>. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "sentence_answer": "The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the <hl> U.S. Army <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which part of the Auto-Sembly manufacturing process is the most costly?", "paragraph": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "answer": "drilling holes", "sentence": "However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "paragraph_sentence": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. <hl> However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since <hl> drilling holes <hl> is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.", "sentence_answer": "However, the wires and holes are wasteful since <hl> drilling holes <hl> is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off."}
{"question": "How many club members are there?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders", "sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders . <hl> Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders <hl>. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many matches does each team play?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season.", "sentence": "Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. <hl> Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. <hl> It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. <hl> Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. <hl> Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. <hl> Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings."}
{"question": "What days are most games played?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings", "sentence": "Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. <hl> Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings . <hl> It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. <hl> Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings <hl>. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who sponsors the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership.", "sentence": "It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. <hl> It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. <hl> It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. <hl> Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. <hl> Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL)."}
{"question": "What name is the Premier League known as outside of the United Kingdom?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence": "Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. <hl> Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. <hl> Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL). <hl>", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL). <hl>"}
{"question": "How many member clubs are shareholders in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "20", "sentence": "the 20 member clubs act as shareholders.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which <hl> the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. <hl> Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the <hl> 20 <hl> member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "the <hl> 20 <hl> member clubs act as shareholders."}
{"question": "When do Premier League seasons run from?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "August to May", "sentence": "Seasons run from August to May .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. <hl> Seasons run from August to May . <hl> Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from <hl> August to May <hl>. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "Seasons run from <hl> August to May <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many matches do each team play?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "38", "sentence": "Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. <hl> Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. <hl> Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play <hl> 38 <hl> matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "Teams play <hl> 38 <hl> matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season."}
{"question": "Who sponsors the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "Barclays Bank", "sentence": "It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. <hl> It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. <hl> Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by <hl> Barclays Bank <hl> and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "It is currently sponsored by <hl> Barclays Bank <hl> and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership."}
{"question": "What is the Premier League commonly referred to outside the UK?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "answer": "English Premier League", "sentence": "Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. <hl> Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the <hl> English Premier League <hl> (EPL).", "sentence_answer": "Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the <hl> English Premier League <hl> (EPL)."}
{"question": "What date was the Premier League formed?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992", "sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 <hl> following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 <hl> following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal."}
{"question": "Who secured the domestic rights to broadcast games 116 and 38 respectively?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively.", "sentence": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights.", "paragraph_sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. <hl> In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with <hl> BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with <hl> BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights."}
{"question": "How much was the deal worth?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314", "sentence": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314 , with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively.", "paragraph_sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314 , with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314 <hl>, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314 <hl> , with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively."}
{"question": "How much revenue does the league generate in domestic and international television rights?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights", "sentence": "The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights .", "paragraph_sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights . <hl> In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights <hl>. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights <hl> ."}
{"question": "In 2014/15, how much were the teams apportioned in revenues?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence": "In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. <hl> In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. <hl> In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion. <hl>"}
{"question": "When was the Premier League originally formed?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "20 February 1992", "sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on <hl> 20 February 1992 <hl> following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on <hl> 20 February 1992 <hl> following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal."}
{"question": "When was the Football League originally founded?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "1888", "sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888 , and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888 , and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in <hl> 1888 <hl>, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in <hl> 1888 <hl> , and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal."}
{"question": "How many games were secured to broadcast by BSkyB?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "116", "sentence": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively.", "paragraph_sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast <hl> 116 <hl> and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast <hl> 116 <hl> and 38 games respectively."}
{"question": "How many games were secured to broadcast by BT Group?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "38", "sentence": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively.", "paragraph_sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. <hl> The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and <hl> 38 <hl> games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and <hl> 38 <hl> games respectively."}
{"question": "How much income does the Premier League generate per year in worldwide television rights?", "paragraph": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "answer": "\u20ac2.2 billion", "sentence": "The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights.", "paragraph_sentence": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. <hl> The league generates \u20ac2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. <hl> In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "paragraph_answer": "The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth \u00a31 billion a year domestically as of 2013\u201314, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates <hl> \u20ac2.2 billion <hl> per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of \u00a31.6 billion.", "sentence_answer": "The league generates <hl> \u20ac2.2 billion <hl> per year in domestic and international television rights."}
{"question": "Is the Premier League the most watched football league in the world?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world,", "sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, <hl> broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, <hl> broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people."}
{"question": "How many territories is the Premier League broadcast to?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "broadcast in 212 territories", "sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, <hl> broadcast in 212 territories <hl> to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, <hl> broadcast in 212 territories <hl> to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people."}
{"question": "What is the potential television audience of the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people", "sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people . <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and <hl> a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people <hl>. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and <hl> a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the Premier League's UEFA co-efficients of leagues rank?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues", "sentence": "The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. <hl> The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. <hl> The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues <hl> based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues <hl> based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons."}
{"question": "What is the average game attendance for the league?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000", "sentence": "In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000 , second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000 , second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. <hl> Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, <hl> the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000 <hl>, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "In the 2014\u201315 season, <hl> the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000 <hl> , second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500."}
{"question": "To how many homes is the Premier League broadcast to?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "643 million", "sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to <hl> 643 million <hl> homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to <hl> 643 million <hl> homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people."}
{"question": "What average attendance number was exceeded by the Premier League in the 2014-15 season?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "36,000", "sentence": "In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000 , second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000 , second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. <hl> Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded <hl> 36,000 <hl>, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded <hl> 36,000 <hl> , second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500."}
{"question": "Which league has the highest average attendance in professional football?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "Bundesliga", "sentence": "In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga 's 43,500.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga 's 43,500. <hl> Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the <hl> Bundesliga <hl>'s 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the <hl> Bundesliga <hl> 's 43,500."}
{"question": "To how many territories is the Premier League broadcast to?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "212", "sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in <hl> 212 <hl> territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in <hl> 212 <hl> territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people."}
{"question": "What is the potential television audience of the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "answer": "4.7 billion", "sentence": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. <hl> In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of <hl> 4.7 billion <hl> people. In the 2014\u201315 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of <hl> 4.7 billion <hl> people."}
{"question": "When was the low point for English football?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "the late '80s had marked a low point for English football", "sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football . <hl> Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, <hl> the late '80s had marked a low point for English football <hl>. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "sentence_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, <hl> the late '80s had marked a low point for English football <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why was there a low point for English football?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife", "sentence": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife , and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985.", "paragraph_sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. <hl> Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife , and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. <hl> Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife <hl>, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife <hl> , and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985."}
{"question": "Why were the English clubs banned from European competition in the 1980's?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985.", "sentence": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. <hl> Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and <hl> English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "sentence_answer": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and <hl> English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad."}
{"question": "Had the Football League First Division ever been in the top level?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888", "sentence": "The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888 , was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888 , was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888 <hl>, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888 <hl> , was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad."}
{"question": "In which year were English football clubs banned from competition in Europe?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "1985", "sentence": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. <hl> Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985 . <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in <hl> 1985 <hl>. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "sentence_answer": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in <hl> 1985 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How long were the clubs banned for?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "five years", "sentence": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985.", "paragraph_sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. <hl> Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for <hl> five years <hl> following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "sentence_answer": "Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for <hl> five years <hl> following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985."}
{"question": "What did English players do after the ban?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "moved abroad", "sentence": "The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad .", "paragraph_sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had <hl> moved abroad <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had <hl> moved abroad <hl> ."}
{"question": "When attendance dropped to the Football League First Division, what else decreased?", "paragraph": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "answer": "revenues", "sentence": "The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues , and several top English players had moved abroad.", "paragraph_sentence": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. <hl> The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues , and several top English players had moved abroad. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and <hl> revenues <hl>, and several top English players had moved abroad.", "sentence_answer": "The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and <hl> revenues <hl> , and several top English players had moved abroad."}
{"question": "When did the downward trend of the English Football start to turn around?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse", "sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse ; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse ; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_answer": "However, <hl> by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse <hl>; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "However, <hl> by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse <hl> ; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals."}
{"question": "Was England successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals.", "sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; <hl> England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; <hl> England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year."}
{"question": "Did the UEFA remove the 5 year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990", "sentence": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 <hl> (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 <hl> (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year."}
{"question": "What did the removal of the ban result in?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "(resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991", "sentence": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991 )", "paragraph_sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991 ) <hl> and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 <hl> (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991 <hl>) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 <hl> (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991 <hl> )"}
{"question": "Did the Taylor Report on stadiums safety standards propose expensive upgrades to stadiums?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster", "sentence": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster , was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster , was published in January of that year. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which <hl> proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster <hl>, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which <hl> proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster <hl> , was published in January of that year."}
{"question": "In which year did English football's downward trend stop thanks to England making it to the FIFA World Cup semi-finals?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "1990", "sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990 s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However, by the turn of the 1990 s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the <hl> 1990 <hl>s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "However, by the turn of the <hl> 1990 <hl> s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals."}
{"question": "In which year was the English club ban lifted by UEFA?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "1990", "sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990 s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However, by the turn of the 1990 s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the <hl> 1990 <hl>s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "However, by the turn of the <hl> 1990 <hl> s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals."}
{"question": "In which year shortly thereafter did Manchester United win the UEFA Winners' Cup?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "1991", "sentence": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991 )", "paragraph_sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991 ) <hl> and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in <hl> 1991 <hl>) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in <hl> 1991 <hl> )"}
{"question": "In which month was the Taylor Report published?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "January", "sentence": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in <hl> January <hl> of that year.", "sentence_answer": "UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in <hl> January <hl> of that year."}
{"question": "In which year was the Taylor Report published?", "paragraph": "However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "answer": "1990", "sentence": "However, by the turn of the 1990 s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> However, by the turn of the 1990 s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. <hl> UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "paragraph_answer": "However, by the turn of the <hl> 1990 <hl>s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.", "sentence_answer": "However, by the turn of the <hl> 1990 <hl> s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals."}
{"question": "How much money did the Football League receive in revenues from television money for a two year agreement in 1986?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986", "sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986 , but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986 , but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; <hl> the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986 <hl>, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; <hl> the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986 <hl> , but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years."}
{"question": "In 1998, the deal was renewed for what amount over four years?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years.", "sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. <hl> As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that <hl> deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that <hl> deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay."}
{"question": "In 1988, how many clubs threateded to leave and form another league?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\"", "sentence": "The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\" , but were eventually persuaded to stay.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\" , but were eventually persuaded to stay. <hl> As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; <hl> ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\" <hl>, but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; <hl> ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\" <hl> , but were eventually persuaded to stay."}
{"question": "Why did some of the top teams consider leaving the Football league?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence": "As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. <hl> As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order <hl> to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order <hl> to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport. <hl>"}
{"question": "What did the Football League's television agreement price rise to in 1988?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "\u00a344 million", "sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to <hl> \u00a344 million <hl> over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to <hl> \u00a344 million <hl> over four years."}
{"question": "When was the first year that clubs threatened to leave the Football League?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "1988", "sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988 , the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988 , the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in <hl> 1988 <hl>, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in <hl> 1988 <hl> , the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years."}
{"question": "What price was set for Football League television rights in 1986?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "\u00a36.3 million", "sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received <hl> \u00a36.3 million <hl> for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received <hl> \u00a36.3 million <hl> for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years."}
{"question": "For how many years was the 1986 television rights contract?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "two", "sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two -year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two -year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a <hl> two <hl>-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a <hl> two <hl> -year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years."}
{"question": "For how many years was the 1988 television rights contract?", "paragraph": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "answer": "four", "sentence": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over four years. <hl> The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "paragraph_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over <hl> four <hl> years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a \"super league\", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.", "sentence_answer": "Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received \u00a36.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to \u00a344 million over <hl> four <hl> years."}
{"question": "In 1991, was a proposal for a new league postponed?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled", "sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. <hl> The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled <hl> for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled <hl> for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall."}
{"question": "What did this agreement establish?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League.", "sentence": "The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. <hl> The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. <hl> The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_answer": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, <hl> established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. <hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, <hl> established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. <hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements."}
{"question": "When was the Founder Members Agreement signed?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991", "sentence": "The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. <hl> The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. <hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_answer": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. <hl> The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 <hl> by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 <hl> by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League."}
{"question": "Would the new top division have commerical independence from the Football Association as well as the Football League?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League", "sentence": "The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League , giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. <hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League , giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. <hl> The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_answer": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. <hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League <hl>, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League <hl> , giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements."}
{"question": "Would the FA Premier League be able to negotiate their broadcasting and sponsorship agreements?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements.", "sentence": "The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. <hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, <hl> giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. <hl> The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, <hl> giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. <hl> The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe."}
{"question": "On which day was the Founder Members Agreement signed?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "17 July 1991", "sentence": "The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. <hl> The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. <hl> The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_answer": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on <hl> 17 July 1991 <hl> by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "The Founder Members Agreement, signed on <hl> 17 July 1991 <hl> by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League."}
{"question": "What was the argument made for the splitting off of the FA Premier League which would lead to being able to compete across Europe?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "extra income", "sentence": "The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. <hl> The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the <hl> extra income <hl> would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "The argument given at the time was that the <hl> extra income <hl> would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe."}
{"question": "In which year was the proposal for a new league tabled?", "paragraph": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "answer": "1991", "sentence": "At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. <hl> The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "paragraph_answer": "At the close of the <hl> 1991 <hl> season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.", "sentence_answer": "At the close of the <hl> 1991 <hl> season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall."}
{"question": "Why did Greg Dyke of London Weekend Television meet with representatives of the biggest five English football clubs in 1990?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League.", "sentence": "The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money.", "paragraph_sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. <hl> The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. <hl> The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. <hl> The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. <hl> Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. <hl> Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money."}
{"question": "Why did Dyke only want the larger clubs featured on national television?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television", "sentence": "Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money.", "paragraph_sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. <hl> Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. <hl> The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. <hl> Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television <hl> and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television <hl> and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money."}
{"question": "Did the five clubs think this was a good idea?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it", "sentence": "The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it ; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea.", "paragraph_sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. <hl> The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it ; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. <hl> The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. <hl> The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it <hl>; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it <hl> ; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea."}
{"question": "Were talks held with the Football Association to see if they were okay with this plan?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea", "sentence": "The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea .", "paragraph_sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. <hl> The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea . <hl> The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so <hl> David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea <hl>. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so <hl> David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who was the London Weekend Television's managing director?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "Greg Dyke", "sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke , met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke , met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. <hl> The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), <hl> Greg Dyke <hl>, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), <hl> Greg Dyke <hl> , met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990."}
{"question": "In which year did the managing director meet with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "1990", "sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990 . <hl> The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in <hl> 1990 <hl>. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in <hl> 1990 <hl> ."}
{"question": "In which country did the managing director meet with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "England", "sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. <hl> The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in <hl> England <hl> in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in <hl> England <hl> in 1990."}
{"question": "Which Arsenal representative held talks with the Football Association about getting their backing for the new league?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "David Dein", "sentence": "The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea.", "paragraph_sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. <hl> The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. <hl> The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so <hl> David Dein <hl> of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "sentence_answer": "The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so <hl> David Dein <hl> of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea."}
{"question": "What did the Football Association want to do through building a relationship with the new league?", "paragraph": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.", "answer": "weaken the Football League's position", "sentence": "The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position .", "paragraph_sentence": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. <hl> The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the \"big five\" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to <hl> weaken the Football League's position <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to <hl> weaken the Football League's position <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did the First Division clubs resign from the Football League?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse", "sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse <hl> and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse <hl> and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate."}
{"question": "When was the FA Premier League formed as a limited company?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate.", "sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. <hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and <hl> on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and <hl> on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three."}
{"question": "How many divisions did the Premier League start out with at this time?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "the Premier League would operate with a single division", "sentence": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. <hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; <hl> the Premier League would operate with a single division <hl> and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; <hl> the Premier League would operate with a single division <hl> and the Football League with three."}
{"question": "How many divisions did the Football League after the the Premier League was founded?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "the Football League with three", "sentence": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three . <hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and <hl> the Football League with three <hl>. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and <hl> the Football League with three <hl> ."}
{"question": "Was there a change in the competition format after the Premier League was formed?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight", "sentence": "There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight , and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. <hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight , and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. <hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight <hl>, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight <hl> , and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted."}
{"question": "On which date was the FA Premier League formed legally?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "27 May 1992", "sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on <hl> 27 May 1992 <hl> the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on <hl> 27 May 1992 <hl> the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate."}
{"question": "Out of which organization's headquarters did the original FA Premier League staff operate out of?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "Football Association", "sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association 's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association 's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the <hl> Football Association <hl>'s then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the <hl> Football Association <hl> 's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate."}
{"question": "How old was the Football League when the break-up happened?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "104", "sentence": "This meant a break-up of the 104 -year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104 -year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions <hl> ; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the <hl> 104 <hl>-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "This meant a break-up of the <hl> 104 <hl> -year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions"}
{"question": "How many divisions were left in the Football League after the split?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three . <hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with <hl> three <hl>. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with <hl> three <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many divisions did the Premier League start with after the split?", "paragraph": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "answer": "a single division", "sentence": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. <hl> This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. <hl> There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "paragraph_answer": "In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with <hl> a single division <hl> and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.", "sentence_answer": "This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with <hl> a single division <hl> and the Football League with three."}
{"question": "When did the Premier League hold its first season?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393", "sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 <hl> and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 <hl> and was originally composed of 22 clubs."}
{"question": "Originally, how many clubs did the Premier League have?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "was originally composed of 22 clubs.", "sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. <hl> The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and <hl> was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and <hl> was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United."}
{"question": "Who scored the first ever goal for the Premier League", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United.", "sentence": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon.", "paragraph_sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. <hl> Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. <hl> The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. <hl> The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon."}
{"question": "Which blubs were relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991-1992 season and didn't take part in the first Premier League season?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division", "sentence": "Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. <hl> Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. <hl> Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division <hl> at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division <hl> at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season."}
{"question": "In which years were the first season?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "1992\u201393", "sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in <hl> 1992\u201393 <hl> and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "The league held its first season in <hl> 1992\u201393 <hl> and was originally composed of 22 clubs."}
{"question": "How many clubs originally made up the league?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "22", "sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of <hl> 22 <hl> clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of <hl> 22 <hl> clubs."}
{"question": "Who scored the first goal in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "Brian Deane", "sentence": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United.", "paragraph_sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. <hl> The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by <hl> Brian Deane <hl> of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by <hl> Brian Deane <hl> of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United."}
{"question": "For which team was the first goal scored?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "Sheffield United", "sentence": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United.", "paragraph_sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. <hl> The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of <hl> Sheffield United <hl> in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of <hl> Sheffield United <hl> in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United."}
{"question": "Against which team was the first goal scored?", "paragraph": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "answer": "Manchester United", "sentence": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United .", "paragraph_sentence": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. <hl> The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against Manchester United . <hl> The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "paragraph_answer": "The league held its first season in 1992\u201393 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against <hl> Manchester United <hl>. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991\u201392 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.", "sentence_answer": "The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2\u20131 win against <hl> Manchester United <hl> ."}
{"question": "What was an important feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United", "sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United . <hl> During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was <hl> the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United <hl>. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was <hl> the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which team had no losses in 2003-2004 and ended up winning the league?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304", "sentence": "During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304 , the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. <hl> During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304 , the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. <hl> In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with <hl> Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304 <hl>, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with <hl> Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304 <hl> , the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League."}
{"question": "Why was Kevin Keegan concerned about the league in May of 2008?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division,", "sentence": "In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. <hl> In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" <hl> Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 <hl> Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, <hl> \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "In May 2008 <hl> Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, <hl> \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\""}
{"question": "Since 2003-04, has any club won all of its games like Arsenal did?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League.", "sentence": "During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. <hl> During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" <hl> Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with <hl> Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. <hl> In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with <hl> Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. <hl> In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\""}
{"question": "In how many season from 2003 to 2009 did the \"Big Four\" take all four top places in the UEFA Champions League?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "5", "sentence": "During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. <hl> During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. <hl> In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in <hl> 5 <hl> out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in <hl> 5 <hl> out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League."}
{"question": "Which of the \"Big Four\" teams did not lose a single game in the 2003-04 season?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "Arsenal", "sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal , Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal , Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. <hl> During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: <hl> Arsenal <hl>, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: <hl> Arsenal <hl> , Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United."}
{"question": "Who stated that \"Big Four\" dominance was a threat to the division?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "Kevin Keegan", "sentence": "In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. <hl> In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" <hl> Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 <hl> Kevin Keegan <hl> stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "In May 2008 <hl> Kevin Keegan <hl> stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\""}
{"question": "Who said that all of the tussles in the Premier League made it interesting, even if only four teams dominated?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "Richard Scudamore", "sentence": "Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" <hl> Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive <hl> Richard Scudamore <hl> said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "Premier League chief executive <hl> Richard Scudamore <hl> said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\""}
{"question": "What was Richard Scudamore's job?", "paragraph": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "answer": "Premier League chief executive", "sentence": "In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "paragraph_sentence": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. <hl> In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\" <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called \"Big Four\" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003\u201304 to 2008\u201309 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003\u201304, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" <hl> Premier League chief executive <hl> Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\"", "sentence_answer": "In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that \"Big Four\" dominance threatened the division, \"This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world.\" <hl> Premier League chief executive <hl> Richard Scudamore said in defence: \"There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting.\""}
{"question": "Which team finished fourth in the 2009-10 season?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005", "sentence": "In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. <hl> In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005 . <hl> Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. <hl> In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005 <hl>. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Why was there critcism of the elite clubs?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs.", "sentence": "Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. <hl> Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. <hl> That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, <hl> due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. <hl> Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, <hl> due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. <hl> Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395."}
{"question": "Which two \"Big Four\" clubs did not finish in the top four in the 2011-12 season?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four", "sentence": "That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. <hl> That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. <hl> That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four <hl> places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four <hl> places for the first time since 1994\u201395."}
{"question": "Since 1994-95, who was the first club out side of the \"Big Four\" to win the title", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395.", "sentence": "Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. <hl> Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. <hl> Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. <hl> That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. <hl> That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395."}
{"question": "In the 2009-10 season, which team was the first to break into the \"Big Four\" since 2005?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "Tottenham", "sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. <hl> In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with <hl> Tottenham <hl> Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with <hl> Tottenham <hl> Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four."}
{"question": "In which position did Tottenham finish in the 2009-10 season?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "fourth", "sentence": "In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005.", "paragraph_sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. <hl> In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. <hl> Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished <hl> fourth <hl> and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished <hl> fourth <hl> and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005."}
{"question": "In 2011-12, which club was the first non-\"Big Four\" team to win since 1994-95?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "Manchester City", "sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. <hl> In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and <hl> Manchester City <hl> both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and <hl> Manchester City <hl> both breaking into the top four."}
{"question": "In 2011-12, how many \"Big Four\" clubs finished outside the top four places in the league?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "two", "sentence": "That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. <hl> That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw <hl> two <hl> of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "That season also saw <hl> two <hl> of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395."}
{"question": "In 2005, which was the only non-\"Big Four\" team to break the top four?", "paragraph": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "answer": "Everton", "sentence": "In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005.", "paragraph_sentence": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. <hl> In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. <hl> Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "paragraph_answer": "The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the \"Big Four\" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since <hl> Everton <hl> in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of \"super clubs\" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011\u201312 season, becoming the first club outside the \"Big Four\" to win since 1994\u201395. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994\u201395.", "sentence_answer": "In the 2009\u201310 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since <hl> Everton <hl> in 2005."}
{"question": "What was the number of clubs reduced to in 1995.", "paragraph": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "answer": "the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995", "sentence": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. <hl> On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, <hl> the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 <hl> when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "sentence_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, <hl> the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 <hl> when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted."}
{"question": "In 1995, who requested that domestic leagues lower the amount of games played.", "paragraph": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football", "sentence": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football , that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football , that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. <hl> On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football <hl>, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football <hl> , that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted."}
{"question": "Who insisted that the number of games played in each domestic league must be reduced?", "paragraph": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "answer": "FIFA", "sentence": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football ( FIFA ), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football ( FIFA ), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. <hl> On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (<hl> FIFA <hl>), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "sentence_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football ( <hl> FIFA <hl> ), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted."}
{"question": "In 1995, what was the number of clubs in the league reduced to?", "paragraph": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "answer": "20", "sentence": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. <hl> On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to <hl> 20 <hl> in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "sentence_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to <hl> 20 <hl> in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted."}
{"question": "On which date did FIFA request that all European leagues reduce the number of teams within themselves to 18?", "paragraph": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "answer": "8 June 2006", "sentence": "On 8 June 2006 , FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. <hl> On 8 June 2006 , FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. <hl> The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On <hl> 8 June 2006 <hl>, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 8 June 2006 <hl> , FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season."}
{"question": "In the 2007-08 season, how many teams was the Premier League left with?", "paragraph": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "answer": "20", "sentence": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. <hl> On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to <hl> 20 <hl> in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "sentence_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to <hl> 20 <hl> in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted."}
{"question": "How many teams were relegated from the Premier League in 1995?", "paragraph": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "answer": "four", "sentence": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. <hl> On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "paragraph_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when <hl> four <hl> teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007\u201308 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007\u201308 season kicked off again with 20 teams.", "sentence_answer": "Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when <hl> four <hl> teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted."}
{"question": "How many votes does each Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) club have on issues?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts.", "sentence": "Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. <hl> Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. <hl> The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. <hl> Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. <hl> The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. <hl> The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league."}
{"question": "Who is the chairman of the FAPL and when was he appointed?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 199", "sentence": "The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 199 9, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. <hl> The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 199 9, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. <hl> The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. <hl> The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 199 <hl>9, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 199 <hl> 9, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999."}
{"question": "Why did John Quinton and Peter Leaver resign as chairman and chief excutive?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance.", "sentence": "The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. <hl> The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, <hl> John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. <hl> The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "The former chairman and chief executive, <hl> John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. <hl> The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league."}
{"question": "Does the Football Association say about the management of the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence": "The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. <hl> The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but <hl> has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but <hl> has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league. <hl>"}
{"question": "Who owns the Football Association Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "member clubs", "sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs . <hl> Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 <hl> member clubs <hl>. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 <hl> member clubs <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many votes do the member clubs of the Premier League have each?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "one", "sentence": "Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. <hl> Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. <hl> The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with <hl> one <hl> vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "Each club is a shareholder, with <hl> one <hl> vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts."}
{"question": "What do the people each club elect oversee?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "the daily operations of the league", "sentence": "The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. <hl> The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league . <hl> The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee <hl> the daily operations of the league <hl>. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee <hl> the daily operations of the league <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who is the current chairman of the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "Sir Dave Richards", "sentence": "The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards , who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. <hl> The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards , who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. <hl> The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is <hl> Sir Dave Richards <hl>, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "The current chairman is <hl> Sir Dave Richards <hl> , who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999."}
{"question": "Who is the current CEO of the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "answer": "Richard Scudamore", "sentence": "The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore , appointed in November 1999.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. <hl> The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore , appointed in November 1999. <hl> The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is <hl> Richard Scudamore <hl>, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.", "sentence_answer": "The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is <hl> Richard Scudamore <hl> , appointed in November 1999."}
{"question": "Who decides on how many Premeir League representatives there are for the European Club Association?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "answer": "the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients.", "sentence": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. <hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, <hl> the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. <hl> For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, <hl> the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. <hl> For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur."}
{"question": "How many representatives does the Premier League have for the European Club Association for 2012-13?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "answer": "For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association", "sentence": "For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association : Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. <hl> For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association : Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. <hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. <hl> For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association <hl>: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association <hl> : Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur."}
{"question": "How many members does the European Club Association elect for the UEFA's Club Competitions Committee?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "answer": "The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee", "sentence": "The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee , which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. <hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee , which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. <hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee <hl>, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee <hl> , which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League."}
{"question": "Which competitions does the Club Competitions Committee have a say in?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "answer": "Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "sentence": "The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. <hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's <hl> Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's <hl> Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League. <hl>"}
{"question": "According to what are the number of and which clubs chosen to attend the European Club Association?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "answer": "UEFA coefficients", "sentence": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients . <hl> For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to <hl> UEFA coefficients <hl>. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to <hl> UEFA coefficients <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many representatives did the Premier League have in the European Club Association during the 2012-13 season?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "answer": "10", "sentence": "For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. <hl> For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. <hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has <hl> 10 <hl> representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has <hl> 10 <hl> representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur."}
{"question": "How many members is the European Club Association responsible for electing to the UEFA Club Competitions Committee?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. <hl> The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012\u201313 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing <hl> three <hl> members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "The European Club Association is responsible for electing <hl> three <hl> members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League."}
{"question": "When does the Premier League have its playing season?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "During the course of a season (from August to May)", "sentence": "During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) <hl> each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) <hl> each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games."}
{"question": "How many games does each club play each season?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games.", "sentence": "During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. <hl> No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) <hl> each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "During the course of a season (from August to May) <hl> each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw."}
{"question": "How many points does each club receive for each win?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "Teams receive three points for a win", "sentence": "Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. <hl> No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win <hl> and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Teams receive three points for a win <hl> and one point for a draw."}
{"question": "Which criteria is used to rank the clubs?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored.", "sentence": "Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. <hl> Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. <hl> If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. <hl> Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. <hl> If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. <hl> If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position."}
{"question": "How is a tie for the championship handled?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank.", "sentence": "If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. <hl> If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. <hl> If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. <hl> The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. <hl> The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place."}
{"question": "How many clubs are currently in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "20", "sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are <hl> 20 <hl> clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "There are <hl> 20 <hl> clubs in the Premier League."}
{"question": "Which month marks the start of a Premier League season?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "August", "sentence": "During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from <hl> August <hl> to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "During the course of a season (from <hl> August <hl> to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games."}
{"question": "Which month marks the start of a Premier League season?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "May", "sentence": "During the course of a season (from August to May ) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May ) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to <hl> May <hl>) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "During the course of a season (from August to <hl> May <hl> ) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games."}
{"question": "How many times does each club play every other club?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "twice", "sentence": "During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others <hl> twice <hl> (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others <hl> twice <hl> (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games."}
{"question": "How many total games does each club in the Premier League play per season?", "paragraph": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "answer": "38", "sentence": "During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games.", "paragraph_sentence": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. <hl> During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. <hl> Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "paragraph_answer": "There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of <hl> 38 <hl> games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.", "sentence_answer": "During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of <hl> 38 <hl> games."}
{"question": "What will a fifth place Premier League team qualify for?", "paragraph": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League", "sentence": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League , and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League , and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). <hl> Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League <hl>, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League <hl> , and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup)."}
{"question": "What places are reserved for the FA Cup and the League Cup winners?", "paragraph": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "answer": "Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament;", "sentence": "Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). <hl> Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. <hl> A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "paragraph_answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). <hl> Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; <hl> if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; <hl> if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League."}
{"question": "Why is it important to have a high Fair Play ranking?", "paragraph": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "answer": "will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round", "sentence": "If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round .", "paragraph_sentence": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. <hl> If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe <hl> will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe <hl> will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round <hl> ."}
{"question": "If a team already qualifies for the Champions League and they winner the FA Cup or the League Cup will another team get to qualify for the Champions League?", "paragraph": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "answer": "that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League.", "sentence": "Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative.", "paragraph_sentence": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). <hl> Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. <hl> If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "paragraph_answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then <hl> that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. <hl> A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "sentence_answer": "Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then <hl> that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. <hl> A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative."}
{"question": "How many Europa League places are reserved for domestic tournament winners?", "paragraph": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "answer": "Two", "sentence": "Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). <hl> Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. <hl> A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "paragraph_answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). <hl> Two <hl> Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Two <hl> Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League."}
{"question": "To which league is the fifth place Premier League team automatically qualified for?", "paragraph": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "answer": "UEFA Europa League", "sentence": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League , and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League , and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). <hl> Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "paragraph_answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the <hl> UEFA Europa League <hl>, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "sentence_answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the <hl> UEFA Europa League <hl> , and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup)."}
{"question": "The team which has the highest ranking in the Fair Play standings is guaranteed qualification for which qualifying round in the Europa League?", "paragraph": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "answer": "first", "sentence": "If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.", "paragraph_sentence": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. <hl> If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League <hl> first <hl> qualifying round.", "sentence_answer": "If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League <hl> first <hl> qualifying round."}
{"question": "Which team did not qualifty for Champions League in 2005 but was able to particpate?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League", "sentence": "UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League , giving England five qualifiers.", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. <hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League , giving England five qualifiers. <hl> UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. <hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League <hl>, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League <hl> , giving England five qualifiers."}
{"question": "Did the Liverpool Club place in the Champions League in 2005?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place", "sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. <hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened <hl> in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place <hl> in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened <hl> in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place <hl> in the Premier League that season."}
{"question": "How many qualifiers did England have for the Champions League in 2005?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers.", "sentence": "UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing.", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. <hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. <hl> However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. <hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. <hl> UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. <hl> UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing."}
{"question": "Do defending champtions get to play in the following year's Champions League if they don't have enough wins to qualify", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing.", "sentence": "UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league.", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. <hl> UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. <hl> No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. <hl> UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. <hl> However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. <hl> However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league."}
{"question": "How many winning teams from an association can participate in the Champions League?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League", "sentence": "No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League .", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. <hl> No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League . <hl> This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. <hl> No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League <hl>. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which team received special dispensation from the UEFA in 2005 so they could enter the Champions League?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "Liverpool", "sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. <hl> UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after <hl> Liverpool <hl> won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after <hl> Liverpool <hl> won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season."}
{"question": "Who did UEFA rule should automatically qualify for the Champions League?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "the defending champions", "sentence": "UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing.", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. <hl> UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. <hl> However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that <hl> the defending champions <hl> qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "UEFA subsequently ruled that <hl> the defending champions <hl> qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing."}
{"question": "At which team's expense does the previous champion's automatic entry into the Champions League without placing in the top four come?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "the fourth-placed team", "sentence": "However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league.", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. <hl> However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. <hl> No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of <hl> the fourth-placed team <hl> in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of <hl> the fourth-placed team <hl> in the league."}
{"question": "In 2012, which team was automatically qualified for the champion's league even though they did not place in the top four?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "Chelsea", "sentence": "This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. <hl> This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when <hl> Chelsea <hl> \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "This occurred in 2012, when <hl> Chelsea <hl> \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League."}
{"question": "Which team was denied entry into the Champions League in 2012 due to being bumped out of the running by the defending champion?", "paragraph": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.", "answer": "Tottenham Hotspur", "sentence": "This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur , who went into the Europa League.", "paragraph_sentence": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. <hl> This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur , who went into the Europa League. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of <hl> Tottenham Hotspur <hl>, who went into the Europa League.", "sentence_answer": "This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea \u2013 who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league \u2013 qualified for the Champions League in place of <hl> Tottenham Hotspur <hl> , who went into the Europa League."}
{"question": "How many times have Premier League teams have won the Champions League since 1992-2013?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times", "sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, <hl> Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times <hl> (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, <hl> Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times <hl> (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here)."}
{"question": "How many times has the Premier League won the World Cup (FIFA Club) during that same time period?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008)", "sentence": "The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008) , and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008) , and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been <hl> won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008) <hl>, and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been <hl> won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008) <hl> , and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here)."}
{"question": "How many times have Premier League teams been runners up in the World Cup?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "they have also been runners-up twice,", "sentence": "The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and <hl> they have also been runners-up twice, <hl> behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and <hl> they have also been runners-up twice, <hl> behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here)."}
{"question": "How many times did Premier League clubs win the Champions League between 1992 and 2013?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "four", "sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League <hl> four <hl> times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League <hl> four <hl> times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here)."}
{"question": "How many runners up in the Champions League were from the Premier League between 1992 and 2013?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "five", "sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying <hl> five <hl> of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying <hl> five <hl> of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here)."}
{"question": "Which league had the most Champions League wins between 1992 and 2013?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "La Liga", "sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's <hl> La Liga <hl> with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's <hl> La Liga <hl> with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here)."}
{"question": "Which league had the second most Champions League wins between 1992 and 2013?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "Serie A", "sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's <hl> Serie A <hl> with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's <hl> Serie A <hl> with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here)."}
{"question": "Which league had only three Champions League wins between 1992 and 2013?", "paragraph": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "answer": "Bundesliga", "sentence": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here).", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). <hl> The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "paragraph_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's <hl> Bundesliga <hl> with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileir\u00e3o with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).", "sentence_answer": "Between the 1992\u201393 season and the 2012\u201313 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's <hl> Bundesliga <hl> with three wins (see table here)."}
{"question": "What were some of the reasons for the increased revenues in 2013-14?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues", "sentence": "In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. <hl> In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues . <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, <hl> the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues <hl>. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, <hl> the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues <hl> ."}
{"question": "What are the Premier League's revenues for 2009-10?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310.", "sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with <hl> total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. <hl> In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with <hl> total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. <hl> In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues."}
{"question": "Which award did the Premier League win in 2010?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category", "sentence": "In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category <hl> for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category <hl> for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry."}
{"question": "Why did it receive this award?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence": "In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category <hl> for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category <hl> for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry. <hl>"}
{"question": "What were the Premier League's net profits in 2013-14?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues", "sentence": "In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. <hl> In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues . <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, <hl> the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues <hl>. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, <hl> the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which league has the highest revenue in the world?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "Premier League", "sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. <hl> In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_answer": "The <hl> Premier League <hl> has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> Premier League <hl> has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310."}
{"question": "What were the total revenues of the Premier League in the 2009-10 season?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "\u20ac2.48 billion", "sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. <hl> In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of <hl> \u20ac2.48 billion <hl> in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of <hl> \u20ac2.48 billion <hl> in 2009\u201310."}
{"question": "What were the net profits of the Premier League in 2013-14?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "\u00a378 million", "sentence": "In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million , exceeding all other football leagues.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. <hl> In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million , exceeding all other football leagues. <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of <hl> \u00a378 million <hl>, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of <hl> \u00a378 million <hl> , exceeding all other football leagues."}
{"question": "In which year was the Premier League awarded an International Trade award?", "paragraph": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "answer": "2010", "sentence": "In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. <hl> In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of \u20ac2.48 billion in 2009\u201310. In 2013\u201314, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of \u00a378 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In <hl> 2010 <hl> the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 2010 <hl> the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry."}
{"question": "Did Swansea qualify for the Europa Leaque in 2012-13?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League", "sentence": "In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. <hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League <hl> by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League <hl> by winning the League Cup."}
{"question": "When was Swansea City's home match played against Wigan Athletic?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011.", "sentence": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. <hl> The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. <hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was <hl> Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was <hl> Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup."}
{"question": "In 2013-14, how much did the Premier League's Welsh clubs increase by?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314,", "sentence": "The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. <hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. <hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, <hl> as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, <hl> as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season."}
{"question": "How did Swansea qualify for the Europa League?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup.", "sentence": "In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, <hl> Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. <hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "In 2012\u201313, <hl> Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. <hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season."}
{"question": "Which team gained promotion then but was relegated after its first season?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence": "The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. <hl> The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time <hl> in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time <hl> in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season. <hl>"}
{"question": "In which year did a Welsh club participate in the Premier League for the first time?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "2011", "sentence": "In 2011 , a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 2011 , a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. <hl> The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_answer": "In <hl> 2011 <hl>, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "In <hl> 2011 <hl> , a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion."}
{"question": "Which team was promoted to the Premier League in 2011?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "Swansea City", "sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. <hl> The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after <hl> Swansea City <hl> gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after <hl> Swansea City <hl> gained promotion."}
{"question": "In which stadium was the first Premier League match played outside of England?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "Liberty Stadium", "sentence": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. <hl> The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the <hl> Liberty Stadium <hl> against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the <hl> Liberty Stadium <hl> against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011."}
{"question": "On which date did Swansea City play its first Premier League game?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "20 August 2011", "sentence": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011 .", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. <hl> The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011 . <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on <hl> 20 August 2011 <hl>. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on <hl> 20 August 2011 <hl> ."}
{"question": "Against which team did Swansea City play its first Premier League game?", "paragraph": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "answer": "Wigan Athletic", "sentence": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011.", "paragraph_sentence": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. <hl> The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. <hl> In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "paragraph_answer": "In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against <hl> Wigan Athletic <hl> on 20 August 2011. In 2012\u201313, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013\u201314, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.", "sentence_answer": "The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against <hl> Wigan Athletic <hl> on 20 August 2011."}
{"question": "Which team received permission to move to Dublin, Ireland in 1998?", "paragraph": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "answer": "in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland,", "sentence": "The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland.", "paragraph_sentence": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. <hl> The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "paragraph_answer": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality <hl> in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, <hl> but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "sentence_answer": "The idea came closest to reality <hl> in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, <hl> but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland."}
{"question": "Are there any clubs Scotland or Ireland in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "answer": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result.", "sentence": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. <hl> The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. <hl> The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland."}
{"question": "What are Scotland's two largest teams?", "paragraph": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "answer": "Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers,", "sentence": "Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that <hl> Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, <hl> should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "sentence_answer": "Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that <hl> Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, <hl> should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions."}
{"question": "Why didn't they move to Dublin?", "paragraph": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "answer": "the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland.", "sentence": "The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. <hl> The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but <hl> the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "sentence_answer": "The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but <hl> the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions."}
{"question": "Which team received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin?", "paragraph": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "answer": "Wimbledon", "sentence": "The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland.", "paragraph_sentence": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. <hl> The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "paragraph_answer": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when <hl> Wimbledon <hl> received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "sentence_answer": "The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when <hl> Wimbledon <hl> received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland."}
{"question": "In which year did a Premier League team consider relocating to Ireland?", "paragraph": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "answer": "1998", "sentence": "The idea came closest to reality in 1998 , when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland.", "paragraph_sentence": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. <hl> The idea came closest to reality in 1998 , when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "paragraph_answer": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in <hl> 1998 <hl>, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "sentence_answer": "The idea came closest to reality in <hl> 1998 <hl> , when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland."}
{"question": "Who occasionally discusses a Scottish team joining the Premier League?", "paragraph": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "answer": "the media", "sentence": "Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "paragraph_sentence": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. <hl> Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, <hl> the media <hl> occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.", "sentence_answer": "Additionally, <hl> the media <hl> occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions."}
{"question": "Who received broadcasting rights to the Premier League in 1992?", "paragraph": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "answer": "The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992", "sentence": "The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. <hl> The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. <hl> At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "paragraph_answer": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. <hl> The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 <hl> was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 <hl> was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off."}
{"question": "Why was this a unique decision?", "paragraph": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "answer": "pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market,", "sentence": "At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. <hl> At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. <hl> However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "paragraph_answer": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time <hl> pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, <hl> as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "sentence_answer": "At the time <hl> pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, <hl> as was charging fans to watch live televised football."}
{"question": "What happened to the Premier League's televsion rights after this decision?", "paragraph": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "answer": "the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "sentence": "However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. <hl> However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen <hl> the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen <hl> the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar. <hl>"}
{"question": "What was the cause of this?", "paragraph": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "answer": "a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game", "sentence": "However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. <hl> However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, <hl> a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game <hl> has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "sentence_answer": "However, <hl> a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game <hl> has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar."}
{"question": "In which year did the Premier League decide to give BSkyB broadcasting rights?", "paragraph": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "answer": "1992", "sentence": "The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. <hl> The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. <hl> At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "paragraph_answer": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in <hl> 1992 <hl> was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "sentence_answer": "The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in <hl> 1992 <hl> was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off."}
{"question": "What sort of television was BSkyB that made it such a radical broadcaster to choose for the Premier League?", "paragraph": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "answer": "pay television", "sentence": "At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football.", "paragraph_sentence": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. <hl> At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. <hl> However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "paragraph_answer": "Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time <hl> pay television <hl> was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.", "sentence_answer": "At the time <hl> pay television <hl> was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football."}
{"question": "Do European Leagues sell their television rights per a collective level?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually", "sentence": "This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually , leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. <hl> This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually , leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some <hl> other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually <hl>, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "This is in contrast to some <hl> other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually <hl> , leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs."}
{"question": "What happens when European Leagues sell their televsion rights individually?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs", "sentence": "This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. <hl> This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs . <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to <hl> a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs <hl>. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to <hl> a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs <hl> ."}
{"question": "How is the teleivsion revenue distributed in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "The money is divided into three parts:", "sentence": "The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. <hl> The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: <hl> half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The money is divided into three parts: <hl> half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this."}
{"question": "How is half of the money distributed?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "half is divided equally between the clubs", "sentence": "The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs ; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs ; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. <hl> The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: <hl> half is divided equally between the clubs <hl>; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "The money is divided into three parts: <hl> half is divided equally between the clubs <hl> ; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this."}
{"question": "How is the final quarter of the money distributed?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this.", "sentence": "The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; <hl> the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. <hl> The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; <hl> the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. <hl> The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs."}
{"question": "On what sort of basis does the Premier League sell its television rights?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "collective basis", "sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis . <hl> This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a <hl> collective basis <hl>. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a <hl> collective basis <hl> ."}
{"question": "How does La Liga sell its broadcasting rights?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "individually", "sentence": "This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually , leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. <hl> This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually , leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights <hl> individually <hl>, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights <hl> individually <hl> , leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs."}
{"question": "Which clubs get the greatest share of broadcasting income when rights are sold individually?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "the top few clubs", "sentence": "This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. <hl> This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs . <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to <hl> the top few clubs <hl>. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to <hl> the top few clubs <hl> ."}
{"question": "What percentage of broadcasting revenue is divided equally by all La Liga clubs?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "half", "sentence": "The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. <hl> The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: <hl> half <hl> is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "The money is divided into three parts: <hl> half <hl> is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this."}
{"question": "What percentage of broadcasting revenue is awarded on a merit basis according to ranking at the end of the season?", "paragraph": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "answer": "one quarter", "sentence": "The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. <hl> The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. <hl> The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; <hl> one quarter <hl> is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.", "sentence_answer": "The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; <hl> one quarter <hl> is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this."}
{"question": "How much was the amount of first five seasons of the Sky television rights?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons.", "sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. <hl> The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. <hl> The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. <hl> The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons."}
{"question": "How much many did the Premier League make from selling its internation rights during 2004-07?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307", "sentence": "The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. <hl> The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307 . <hl> It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. <hl> The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307 <hl>. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What happened to Sky's agreement in 2006.", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available.", "sentence": "Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. <hl> Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. <hl> Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. <hl> Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. <hl> This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. <hl> This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company."}
{"question": "Why did this happen?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company.", "sentence": "This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. <hl> This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. <hl> Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. <hl> This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. <hl> Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. <hl> Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth."}
{"question": "What was the average income from media from 2007-2010 for the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence": "The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. <hl> The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, <hl> giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, <hl> giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010. <hl>"}
{"question": "How many seasons did the first television rights contract award to Sky?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "five", "sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. <hl> The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over <hl> five <hl> seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over <hl> five <hl> seasons."}
{"question": "How much was the first television rights contract awarded to Sky worth?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "\u00a3304 million", "sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. <hl> The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth <hl> \u00a3304 million <hl> over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth <hl> \u00a3304 million <hl> over five seasons."}
{"question": "How much was the second television rights contract awarded to Sky worth?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "\u00a3670 million", "sentence": "The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. <hl> The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. <hl> The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to <hl> \u00a3670 million <hl> over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to <hl> \u00a3670 million <hl> over four seasons."}
{"question": "How much was the third television rights contract awarded to Sky worth?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "\u00a31.024 billion", "sentence": "The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. <hl> The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. <hl> The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a <hl> \u00a31.024 billion <hl> deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "The third contract was a <hl> \u00a31.024 billion <hl> deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304."}
{"question": "By being awarded television rights, which other network broke Sky's monopoly on Premier League coverage?", "paragraph": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "answer": "Setanta Sports", "sentence": "Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. <hl> Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. <hl> This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "paragraph_answer": "The first Sky television rights agreement was worth \u00a3304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997\u201398 season, rose to \u00a3670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a \u00a31.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001\u201302 to 2003\u201304. The league brought in \u00a3320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004\u201305 to 2006\u201307. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when <hl> Setanta Sports <hl> was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of \u00a31.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for \u00a3171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the \u00a3105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay \u00a384.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched \u00a3625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than \u00a32.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around \u00a340 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.", "sentence_answer": "Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when <hl> Setanta Sports <hl> was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available."}
{"question": "Why has there been a several court cases against Sky and Premier League?", "paragraph": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel", "sentence": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel , and a number of court cases have arisen as a result.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel , and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. <hl> An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel <hl>, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel <hl> , and a number of court cases have arisen as a result."}
{"question": "What did the Office of Fair Trading decide regarding the claim that Sky abuses their position in 2002.", "paragraph": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "answer": "Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim", "sentence": "An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position.", "paragraph_sentence": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. <hl> An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. <hl> In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "paragraph_answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the <hl> Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim <hl> that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "sentence_answer": "An investigation by the <hl> Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim <hl> that BSkyB had abused its dominant position."}
{"question": "Who investigated the Premier League's collective selling rights in 1999?", "paragraph": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "answer": "In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court,", "sentence": "In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "paragraph_sentence": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. <hl> In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. <hl> In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, <hl> who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, <hl> who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest."}
{"question": "What did they decide about the collective selling issue?", "paragraph": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "answer": "the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "sentence": "In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "paragraph_sentence": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. <hl> In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by <hl> the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by <hl> the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest. <hl>"}
{"question": "What has the agreement between the Premier League and Sky been accused of being?", "paragraph": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "answer": "a cartel", "sentence": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel , and a number of court cases have arisen as a result.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel , and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. <hl> An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "paragraph_answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being <hl> a cartel <hl>, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "sentence_answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being <hl> a cartel <hl> , and a number of court cases have arisen as a result."}
{"question": "Who investigated the agreement between the Premier League and Sky in 2002?", "paragraph": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "answer": "the Office of Fair Trading", "sentence": "An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position.", "paragraph_sentence": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. <hl> An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. <hl> In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "paragraph_answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by <hl> the Office of Fair Trading <hl> in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "sentence_answer": "An investigation by <hl> the Office of Fair Trading <hl> in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position."}
{"question": "Who investigated how the Premier League sold television rights in 1999?", "paragraph": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "answer": "the UK Restrictive Practices Court", "sentence": "In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court , who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "paragraph_sentence": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. <hl> In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court , who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by <hl> the UK Restrictive Practices Court <hl>, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.", "sentence_answer": "In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by <hl> the UK Restrictive Practices Court <hl> , who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest."}
{"question": "How much money did Premier League earn regarding television rights in 2010-13?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion.", "sentence": "Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. <hl> Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. <hl> On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. <hl> Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. <hl> On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. <hl> On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313."}
{"question": "How many games did BT show in 2013-16?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year.", "sentence": "On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. <hl> On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. <hl> The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that <hl> BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. <hl> The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that <hl> BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. <hl> The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year."}
{"question": "Who will show 116 games for that same time period?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year.", "sentence": "The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. <hl> The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. <hl> The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. <hl> The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. <hl> The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. <hl> The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights."}
{"question": "How much have the domestic televsion rights increased from 2010-12 to 2012-13?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights.", "sentence": "The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. <hl> The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. <hl> The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. <hl> The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. <hl> The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season."}
{"question": "How much did BT and Sky pay for their rights up to the 2018-19 season?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence": "The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. <hl> The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when <hl> Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when <hl> Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season. <hl>"}
{"question": "When will the BBC's weekend highlights package run out?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "2016", "sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016 .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016 . <hl> Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until <hl> 2016 <hl>. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until <hl> 2016 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How much were Premier League television rights from 2010 to 2013 purchased for?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "\u00a31.782 billion", "sentence": "Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion .", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. <hl> Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion . <hl> On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for <hl> \u00a31.782 billion <hl>. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for <hl> \u00a31.782 billion <hl> ."}
{"question": "When did Setanta Sports fail to meet their payments deadline?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "22 June 2009", "sentence": "On 22 June 2009 , due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. <hl> On 22 June 2009 , due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. <hl> On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On <hl> 22 June 2009 <hl>, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 22 June 2009 <hl> , due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313."}
{"question": "When Setanta Sports could not pay their bill to the league, which network took over broadcast rights from them?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "ESPN", "sentence": "On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. <hl> On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. <hl> On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, <hl> ESPN <hl> was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, <hl> ESPN <hl> was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313."}
{"question": "On which date was it announced that BT was awarded a broadcasting contract?", "paragraph": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "answer": "13 June 2012", "sentence": "On 13 June 2012 , the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year.", "paragraph_sentence": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. <hl> On 13 June 2012 , the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. <hl> The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "paragraph_answer": "The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for \u00a31.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a \u00a330 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009\u201310 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313. On <hl> 13 June 2012 <hl>, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid \u00a3760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised \u00a33.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010\u201311 to 2012\u201313 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of \u00a35.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018\u201319 season.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 13 June 2012 <hl> , the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013\u201314 through 2015\u201316 seasons at \u00a3246 million-a-year."}
{"question": "What country is the Premier League the most distributed televised sports broadcast?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme", "sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme . <hl> In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme <hl>. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme <hl> ."}
{"question": "Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in India?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China", "sentence": "In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China , the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. <hl> In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China , the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. <hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. <hl> In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China <hl>, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China <hl> , the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season."}
{"question": "Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in China?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season.", "sentence": "In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. <hl> In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. <hl> In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. <hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. <hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season."}
{"question": "Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in Canada?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN", "sentence": "As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN , with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. <hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN , with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. <hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN <hl>, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN <hl> , with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season."}
{"question": "How many games does each of them broadcast?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence": "As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. <hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with <hl> both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with <hl> both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season. <hl>"}
{"question": "On which continent other than Europe is the Premier League especially popular?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "Asia", "sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia , where it is the most widely distributed sports programme.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia , where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. <hl> In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in <hl> Asia <hl>, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in <hl> Asia <hl> , where it is the most widely distributed sports programme."}
{"question": "Which network is the main live broadcaster of Premier League in Australia?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "Fox Sports", "sentence": "In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. <hl> In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. <hl> In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, <hl> Fox Sports <hl> broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "In Australia, <hl> Fox Sports <hl> broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch."}
{"question": "Which network in Australia offers viewers the choice of which Saturday afternoon match they watch?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "Foxtel", "sentence": "In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. <hl> In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. <hl> In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and <hl> Foxtel <hl> gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and <hl> Foxtel <hl> gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch."}
{"question": "Which network broadcasts Premier League live in India?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "STAR Sports", "sentence": "In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. <hl> In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports . <hl> In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on <hl> STAR Sports <hl>. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "In India, the matches are broadcast live on <hl> STAR Sports <hl> ."}
{"question": "Which Chinese broadcaster has Premier League rights?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "answer": "Super Sports", "sentence": "In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. <hl> In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. <hl> As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to <hl> Super Sports <hl> in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season. As of the 2013\u201314 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.", "sentence_answer": "In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to <hl> Super Sports <hl> in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013\u201314 season."}
{"question": "Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in the United States?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports.", "sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. <hl> Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. <hl> Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage."}
{"question": "What was the average viewership in the United States during the 2014-15 season?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season", "sentence": "Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season , up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. <hl> Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season , up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, <hl> with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season <hl>, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, <hl> with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season <hl> , up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage."}
{"question": "How many years did NBC Sports receive an extension for with the Premier League in 2015?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015", "sentence": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 <hl> to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "<hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 <hl> to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million)."}
{"question": "What was the value of this extension?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season <hl> in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million). <hl>", "sentence_answer": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season <hl> in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million). <hl>"}
{"question": "When will this extension end?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "through the 2021\u201322 season", "sentence": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league <hl> through the 2021\u201322 season <hl> in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league <hl> through the 2021\u201322 season <hl> in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million)."}
{"question": "Which American broadcaster shows the Premier League currently?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "NBC Sports", "sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports . <hl> Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through <hl> NBC Sports <hl>. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through <hl> NBC Sports <hl> ."}
{"question": "By what percentage has viewership in the US risen from 2012 to 2015?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "118%", "sentence": "Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. <hl> Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up <hl> 118% <hl> from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up <hl> 118% <hl> from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage."}
{"question": "How many viewers on average watched the Premier League 2014-15 season in the US?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "479,000", "sentence": "Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. <hl> Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record <hl> 479,000 <hl> viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record <hl> 479,000 <hl> viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage."}
{"question": "In which year did NBC Sports secure an extension of six years with the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "2015", "sentence": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in <hl> 2015 <hl> to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in <hl> 2015 <hl> to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million)."}
{"question": "How much was the NBC broadcasting deal with the Premier League worth in 2015?", "paragraph": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "answer": "$1 billion", "sentence": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million).", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. <hl> NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (\u00a3640 million). <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014\u201315 season, up 118% from 2012\u201313 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at <hl> $1 billion <hl> (\u00a3640 million).", "sentence_answer": "NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021\u201322 season in a deal valued at <hl> $1 billion <hl> (\u00a3640 million)."}
{"question": "Why has their been distance between the Premier League and the Football League?", "paragraph": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "answer": "in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues,", "sentence": "Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. <hl> Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. <hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "paragraph_answer": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing <hl> in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, <hl> many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "sentence_answer": "Owing <hl> in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, <hl> many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League."}
{"question": "Did many new teams in the Premier League have any difficulties in their initial season?", "paragraph": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "answer": "many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League.", "sentence": "Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League.", "paragraph_sentence": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. <hl> Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. <hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "paragraph_answer": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, <hl> many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. <hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "sentence_answer": "Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, <hl> many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. <hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League."}
{"question": "Was it unusual for a new team to go back to the Football League after their first season in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "answer": "In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League.", "sentence": "In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. <hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. <hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. <hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. <hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season."}
{"question": "In the 1997-98 season how many new teams had to go back to the Football League?", "paragraph": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "answer": "In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "sentence": "In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. <hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. <hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season. <hl>"}
{"question": "Due to the disparity in television rights revenue between leagues, who struggles to avoid relegation in their Premier League first season?", "paragraph": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "answer": "newly promoted teams", "sentence": "Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League.", "paragraph_sentence": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. <hl> Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. <hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "paragraph_answer": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many <hl> newly promoted teams <hl> have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "sentence_answer": "Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many <hl> newly promoted teams <hl> have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League."}
{"question": "In every season but 2001-02 and 2011-12, at least how many Premier League teams have been relegated?", "paragraph": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "answer": "one", "sentence": "In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League.", "paragraph_sentence": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. <hl> In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. <hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "paragraph_answer": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least <hl> one <hl> Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "sentence_answer": "In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least <hl> one <hl> Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League."}
{"question": "How many newly promoted clubs were relegated from the Premier League in 1997-98?", "paragraph": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "answer": "three", "sentence": "In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. <hl> In 1997\u201398 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001\u201302 and 2011\u201312, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997\u201398 all <hl> three <hl> promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.", "sentence_answer": "In 1997\u201398 all <hl> three <hl> promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season."}
{"question": "If a team is relegated in the Premier League what type of tv payment do they receive?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\".", "sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. <hl> Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". <hl> Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". <hl> Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons."}
{"question": "What do critics have to say about this payment?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not,", "sentence": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. <hl> Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. <hl> For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), <hl> critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, <hl> leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), <hl> critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, <hl> leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation."}
{"question": "What has happened to some of the clubs who weren't able to get back into the Premier League right away?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "financial problems", "sentence": "For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems , including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. <hl> For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems , including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. <hl> Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, <hl> financial problems <hl>, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, <hl> financial problems <hl> , including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed."}
{"question": "How much does a Football League club receive on average for their television revenues?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million", "sentence": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million ), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. <hl> Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million ), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. <hl> For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while <hl> the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million <hl>), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while <hl> the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million <hl> ), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation."}
{"question": "How does this compare an average Premier League team?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million", "sentence": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues ( the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. <hl> Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues ( the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. <hl> For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (<hl> the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million <hl> while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues ( <hl> the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million <hl> while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation."}
{"question": "To which type of team are parachute payments distributed to in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "relegated", "sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\".", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". <hl> Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are <hl> relegated <hl> from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are <hl> relegated <hl> from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\"."}
{"question": "Starting in the 2013-14 season, parachute payments are in excess of what amount of revenue?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "\u00a360 million", "sentence": "Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". <hl> Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. <hl> Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of <hl> \u00a360 million <hl> over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of <hl> \u00a360 million <hl> over four seasons."}
{"question": "What is said to widen between clubs who reach the Premier League and those who do not thanks to parachute payments?", "paragraph": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "answer": "the gap", "sentence": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. <hl> Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. <hl> For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "paragraph_answer": "The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of \"parachute payments\". Starting with the 2013\u201314 season, these payments are in excess of \u00a360 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen <hl> the gap <hl> between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.", "sentence_answer": "Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives \u00a355 million while the average Football League Championship club receives \u00a32 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen <hl> the gap <hl> between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams \"bouncing back\" soon after their relegation."}
{"question": "What was the result of their recommendation?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater", "sentence": "The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater .", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. <hl> The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater . <hl> Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; <hl> as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater <hl>. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; <hl> as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater <hl> ."}
{"question": "What did the Taylor Report recommend at the the Hillsborough disaster in 1989?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished", "sentence": "The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished ; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. <hl> The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished ; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. <hl> Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw <hl> a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished <hl>; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw <hl> a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished <hl> ; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater."}
{"question": "How many stadiums have been closed down since Premier League started?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished.", "sentence": "Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. <hl> Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. <hl> The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. <hl> Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. <hl> The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. <hl> The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220."}
{"question": "What was the total seating capacity of stadiums in the Premier League in the 2010-11 season.", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence": "The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. <hl> The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. <hl> The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523. <hl>"}
{"question": "In how many stadiums had Premier League been played as of the 2015-16 season?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "53", "sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. <hl> The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in <hl> 53 <hl> stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in <hl> 53 <hl> stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992."}
{"question": "What did the Taylor Report recommend to abolish from all stadiums?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "standing terraces", "sentence": "The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. <hl> The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. <hl> Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that <hl> standing terraces <hl> should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that <hl> standing terraces <hl> should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater."}
{"question": "How many stadiums in which the Premier League has been played have been demolished as of 2016?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "Nine", "sentence": "Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. <hl> Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. <hl> The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. <hl> Nine <hl> stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Nine <hl> stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished."}
{"question": "What is the capacity of Bloomfield Road stadium?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "16,220", "sentence": "The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220 .", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. <hl> The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220 . <hl> The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of <hl> 16,220 <hl>. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of <hl> 16,220 <hl> ."}
{"question": "What is the combined total capacity of all stadiums in the Premier League as of 2011?", "paragraph": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "answer": "770,477", "sentence": "The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.", "paragraph_sentence": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. <hl> The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "As of the 2015\u201316 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010\u201311 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is <hl> 770,477 <hl> with an average capacity of 38,523.", "sentence_answer": "The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010\u201311 season is <hl> 770,477 <hl> with an average capacity of 38,523."}
{"question": "Are attendance remittances that important to the Premier League?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs.", "sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. <hl> This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. <hl> For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. <hl> For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616."}
{"question": "What was the Premier Leagues standard attendance in the 2007-08 season?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season.", "sentence": "The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. <hl> The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. <hl> The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. <hl> This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. <hl> This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950."}
{"question": "What was the league's first year attendance average?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393).", "sentence": "This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums.", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. <hl> This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. <hl> The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from <hl> the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). <hl> However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "This represents an increase of 13,089 from <hl> the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). <hl> However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums."}
{"question": "Attendance for the 2013-14 season set a new record of how much?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million,", "sentence": "This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. <hl> This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten <hl> in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, <hl> the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "This record was then beaten <hl> in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, <hl> the highest average in England's top flight since 1950."}
{"question": "What was the average attendance for all Premier League clubs during the 2009-10 season?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "34,215", "sentence": "For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616.", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. <hl> For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. <hl> This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were <hl> 34,215 <hl> for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were <hl> 34,215 <hl> for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616."}
{"question": "What was the total attendance of all Premier League games during the 2009-10 season?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "13,001,616", "sentence": "For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616 .", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. <hl> For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616 . <hl> This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of <hl> 13,001,616 <hl>. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of <hl> 13,001,616 <hl> ."}
{"question": "By how many attendees did the average Premier League attendance increase between 1992 and 2009?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "13,089", "sentence": "This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393).", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. <hl> This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). <hl> However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of <hl> 13,089 <hl> from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "This represents an increase of <hl> 13,089 <hl> from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393)."}
{"question": "For when did the Taylor Report set the deadline for replacing terraces with seats in stadiums?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "1994\u201395", "sentence": "However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums.", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). <hl> However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. <hl> The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's <hl> 1994\u201395 <hl> deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's <hl> 1994\u201395 <hl> deadline for all-seater stadiums."}
{"question": "During which season did the Premier League set a record average attendance of over 36,000 people?", "paragraph": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "answer": "2007\u201308", "sentence": "The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. <hl> The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007\u201308 season. <hl> This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "paragraph_answer": "Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009\u201310 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992\u201393). However, during the 1992\u201393 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994\u201395 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the <hl> 2007\u201308 <hl> season. This record was then beaten in the 2013\u201314 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.", "sentence_answer": "The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the <hl> 2007\u201308 <hl> season."}
{"question": "What are some of the every day tasks that a manager of a team has to deal with?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition.", "sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. <hl> Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. <hl> Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. <hl> Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans."}
{"question": "What type of licence does a manager need?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence", "sentence": "Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences.", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. <hl> Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. <hl> The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. <hl> Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence <hl> which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence <hl> which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences."}
{"question": "Is this licence required on a permanent basis?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis", "sentence": "The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control).", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. <hl> The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). <hl> Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. <hl> The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis <hl> (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis <hl> (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control)."}
{"question": "Give an example of someone who was a caretaker manager?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence": "Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. <hl> Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; <hl> examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; <hl> examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur. <hl>"}
{"question": "What is a caretaker manager?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment.", "sentence": "Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). <hl> Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). <hl> Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. <hl> Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. <hl> Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur."}
{"question": "What license are managers in the Premier League required to hold?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "UEFA Pro Licence", "sentence": "Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences.", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. <hl> Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. <hl> The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a <hl> UEFA Pro Licence <hl> which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "Managers are required to have a <hl> UEFA Pro Licence <hl> which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences."}
{"question": "Which licence follows completion of both the UEFA B and A licences?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "UEFA Pro Licence", "sentence": "Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences.", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. <hl> Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. <hl> The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a <hl> UEFA Pro Licence <hl> which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "Managers are required to have a <hl> UEFA Pro Licence <hl> which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences."}
{"question": "For how long at most is an unlicenced caretaker manager allowed to control a Premier League team for?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "12 weeks", "sentence": "The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control).", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. <hl> The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). <hl> Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than <hl> 12 weeks <hl> \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than <hl> 12 weeks <hl> \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control)."}
{"question": "Which caretaker manager was later promoted to permanent manager at Portsmouth?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "Paul Hart", "sentence": "Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. <hl> Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include <hl> Paul Hart <hl> at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include <hl> Paul Hart <hl> at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur."}
{"question": "Which caretaker manager was later promoted to permanent manager at Tottenham Hotspur?", "paragraph": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "answer": "David Pleat", "sentence": "Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.", "paragraph_sentence": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. <hl> Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks \u2013 the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and <hl> David Pleat <hl> at Tottenham Hotspur.", "sentence_answer": "Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and <hl> David Pleat <hl> at Tottenham Hotspur."}
{"question": "Which team in 1999 had a line-up for starting that was consisted of all foreign players?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up,", "sentence": "On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. <hl> On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. <hl> By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. <hl> On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, <hl> and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, <hl> and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match."}
{"question": "At the beginning of the Premier League how many foreign players were there for the first round of games?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches", "sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. <hl> By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches <hl> hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches <hl> hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland."}
{"question": "By the 2000-1 season what was the percentage of foreign players?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total.", "sentence": "By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. <hl> By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. <hl> On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. <hl> By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. <hl> In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. <hl> In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent."}
{"question": "Which team in 2005 had all-foreign team players?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match", "sentence": "On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match .", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. <hl> On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match . <hl> By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and <hl> on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match <hl>. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and <hl> on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match <hl> ."}
{"question": "In 2009, what percent of the players were English in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence": "By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. <hl> By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. <hl> By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "<hl> By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English. <hl>"}
{"question": "How many of the original Premier League players in the 1992-93 season hailed from outside the UK or Ireland?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "eleven", "sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. <hl> By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just <hl> eleven <hl> players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just <hl> eleven <hl> players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland."}
{"question": "By 2000-01, what percentage of players in the Premier League were from outside the UK and Ireland?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "36", "sentence": "By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. <hl> By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. <hl> In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was <hl> 36 <hl> per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was <hl> 36 <hl> per cent of the total."}
{"question": "By 2004-05, what percentage of players in the Premier League were from outside the UK and Ireland?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "45", "sentence": "In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. <hl> In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. <hl> On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to <hl> 45 <hl> per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to <hl> 45 <hl> per cent."}
{"question": "On which date did Chelsea host an entirely foreign starting line-up and therefore become the first team to do so?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "26 December 1999", "sentence": "On 26 December 1999 , Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. <hl> On 26 December 1999 , Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. <hl> By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On <hl> 26 December 1999 <hl>, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "On <hl> 26 December 1999 <hl> , Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match."}
{"question": "On which date did Arsenal name a fully foreign 16-man squad for a match?", "paragraph": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "answer": "14 February 2005", "sentence": "On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match.", "paragraph_sentence": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. <hl> On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. <hl> By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "paragraph_answer": "At the inception of the Premier League in 1992\u201393, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000\u201301, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004\u201305 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on <hl> 14 February 2005 <hl> Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.", "sentence_answer": "On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on <hl> 14 February 2005 <hl> Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match."}
{"question": "Why did the Home Office change it rules regardin work permits in 1999?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players", "sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players , in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players , in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. <hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players <hl>, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players <hl> , in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union."}
{"question": "What was one of their changes?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches", "sentence": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years.", "paragraph_sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. <hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "paragraph_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. <hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches <hl> for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches <hl> for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years."}
{"question": "What was another requirement of foreign players?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years.", "sentence": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "paragraph_sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. <hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and <hl> his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "sentence_answer": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and <hl> his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal."}
{"question": "Could a club appeal a requirement?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "sentence": "If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "paragraph_sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "<hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal. <hl>"}
{"question": "In which year did the Home Office tighten rules on granting work permits to foreign football players?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "1999", "sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999 , the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999 , the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. <hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "paragraph_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in <hl> 1999 <hl>, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "sentence_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in <hl> 1999 <hl> , the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union."}
{"question": "For what percent must a player play of the competitive A team matches for which he was available for selection in the previous two years to get a work permit from the Home OFfice?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "75", "sentence": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years.", "paragraph_sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. <hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "paragraph_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least <hl> 75 <hl> per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "sentence_answer": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least <hl> 75 <hl> per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years."}
{"question": "Over the last two years, what rank must a player's team average at least in order for them to receive a work permit from the Home Office?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "70th place", "sentence": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years.", "paragraph_sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. <hl> A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "paragraph_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least <hl> 70th place <hl> in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "sentence_answer": "A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least <hl> 70th place <hl> in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years."}
{"question": "What can a club do if a player they wish to sign does not meet the Home Office's work permit requirements?", "paragraph": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.", "answer": "appeal", "sentence": "If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal .", "paragraph_sentence": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. <hl> If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal . <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may <hl> appeal <hl>.", "sentence_answer": "If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may <hl> appeal <hl> ."}
{"question": "When are the transfer windows?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January.", "sentence": "The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. <hl> The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. <hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. <hl> The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. <hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. <hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis."}
{"question": "Can players be transferred under an emergency outside the transfer windows?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis.", "sentence": "Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. <hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. <hl> This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. <hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. <hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. <hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances."}
{"question": "What new rule was put into practice during the 2010-11 season?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21,", "sentence": "As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. <hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. <hl> This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. <hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, <hl> with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, <hl> with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances."}
{"question": "Why was this new rule put into effect?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted,", "sentence": "This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. <hl> This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. <hl> This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, <hl> whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, <hl> whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'."}
{"question": "When can a player be transferred?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association.", "sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. <hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. <hl> The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. <hl> The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January."}
{"question": "During which time can a player be transferred from one European football league to another?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "transfer windows", "sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. <hl> The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during <hl> transfer windows <hl> that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "Players may only be transferred during <hl> transfer windows <hl> that are set by the Football Association."}
{"question": "How many transfer windows are available each year from the Football Association?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "two", "sentence": "The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. <hl> The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. <hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The <hl> two <hl> transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "The <hl> two <hl> transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January."}
{"question": "On which basis are transfers outside of transfer windows licenced?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "emergency", "sentence": "Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. <hl> Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. <hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an <hl> emergency <hl> basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an <hl> emergency <hl> basis."}
{"question": "What is the maximum number of players able to be registered to a Premier League team?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "25", "sentence": "As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25 -man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. <hl> As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25 -man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. <hl> This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum <hl> 25 <hl>-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum <hl> 25 <hl> -man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances."}
{"question": "How many of a 25-member Premier League squad must be from the UK or Ireland?", "paragraph": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "answer": "8", "sentence": "This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "paragraph_sentence": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. <hl> This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010\u201311 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least <hl> 8 <hl> of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.", "sentence_answer": "This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least <hl> 8 <hl> of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'."}
{"question": "Have transfer fees been increasing over the past years?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition.", "sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. <hl> The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. <hl> Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. <hl> Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million."}
{"question": "What was the record breaking transfer fee in 1996?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996.", "sentence": "The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. <hl> The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until <hl> Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until <hl> Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014."}
{"question": "In 2009, what was the transfer fee for Cristiano Ronaldo?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009,", "sentence": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, <hl> Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, <hl> and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, <hl> Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, <hl> and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014."}
{"question": "What was the transfer fee for Gareth Bale in 2013.", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013,", "sentence": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with <hl> Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, <hl> Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with <hl> Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, <hl> Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014."}
{"question": "What was Luis Suarez's transfer fee in 2014?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and <hl> Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and <hl> Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014. <hl>"}
{"question": "Who was the first British player in the Premier League to receive a transfer fee greater than \u00a33 million?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "Alan Shearer", "sentence": "Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. <hl> Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. <hl> The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season <hl> Alan Shearer <hl> became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "Prior to the start of the first Premier League season <hl> Alan Shearer <hl> became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million."}
{"question": "Who was the first British player in the Premier League to receive a transfer fee greater than \u00a315 million?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "Alan Shearer", "sentence": "Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. <hl> Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. <hl> The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season <hl> Alan Shearer <hl> became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "Prior to the start of the first Premier League season <hl> Alan Shearer <hl> became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million."}
{"question": "Who paid \u00a315 million to transfer Alan Shearer to their club?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "Newcastle United", "sentence": "The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. <hl> The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to <hl> Newcastle United <hl> in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to <hl> Newcastle United <hl> in 1996."}
{"question": "In which year did Newcastle United pay \u00a315 million to transfer Alan Shearer to their club?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "1996", "sentence": "The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. <hl> The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996 . <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in <hl> 1996 <hl>. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in <hl> 1996 <hl> ."}
{"question": "For how much did Tottenham Hotspur sell Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for in 2013?", "paragraph": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "answer": "\u00a385 million", "sentence": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "paragraph_sentence": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. <hl> The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for \u00a385 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than \u00a33 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking \u00a315 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for <hl> \u00a385 million <hl> in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014.", "sentence_answer": "The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for <hl> \u00a385 million <hl> in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for \u00a380 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Su\u00e1rez to Barcelona for \u00a375 million in 2014."}
{"question": "Who is the Golden Boot award given to each season?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season.", "sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. <hl> Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. <hl> Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. <hl> Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260."}
{"question": "Who has the record for most goals in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260", "sentence": "Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. <hl> Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260 . <hl> Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and <hl> Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260 <hl>. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "Former Blackburn Rovers and <hl> Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many players have achieved 100 goals?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark", "sentence": "Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. <hl> Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark . <hl> Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. <hl> Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark <hl>. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many different players have won the top scorer title?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title.", "sentence": "Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. <hl> Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. <hl> Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, <hl> 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. <hl> Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, <hl> 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. <hl> Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season."}
{"question": "Who has the record for scoring the most goals in single season?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively.", "sentence": "Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. <hl> Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. <hl> Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. <hl> Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. <hl> Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league."}
{"question": "To whom is the Golden Boot award given to?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "the top Premier League scorer", "sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. <hl> Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to <hl> the top Premier League scorer <hl> at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to <hl> the top Premier League scorer <hl> at the end of each season."}
{"question": "Who holds the record for the most goals in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "260", "sentence": "Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260 .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. <hl> Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260 . <hl> Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with <hl> 260 <hl>. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with <hl> 260 <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many players have 100 goals or more in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "Twenty-four", "sentence": "Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. <hl> Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. <hl> Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. <hl> Twenty-four <hl> players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Twenty-four <hl> players have reached the 100-goal mark."}
{"question": "How many different players have won or shared the top scorer title in the Premier League?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "14", "sentence": "Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. <hl> Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. <hl> Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, <hl> 14 <hl> different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, <hl> 14 <hl> different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title."}
{"question": "Who had scored four overall scoring titles as of the 2006 season?", "paragraph": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "answer": "Thierry Henry", "sentence": "Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. <hl> Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. <hl> Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "paragraph_answer": "The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992\u201393, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. <hl> Thierry Henry <hl> won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) \u2013 for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Thierry Henry <hl> won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005\u201306 season."}
{"question": "What is the Premier League Championship trophy based on?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football.", "sentence": "The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. <hl> The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. <hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. <hl> The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season."}
{"question": "Where on the trophy can two of the lions be seen?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy", "sentence": "Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. <hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy <hl> \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy <hl> \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season."}
{"question": "Where can the third lion be seen?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season", "sentence": "Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season .", "paragraph_sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season . <hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 <hl> the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season <hl>. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 <hl> the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season <hl> ."}
{"question": "What do the ribbons on the trophy mean?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence": "The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. <hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. <hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year. <hl>", "sentence_answer": "<hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year. <hl>"}
{"question": "The Golden Boot is made of sterling silver, silver gilt and which semi-precious stone?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "malachite", "sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite , a semi-precious stone.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite , a semi-precious stone. <hl> The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of <hl> malachite <hl>, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of <hl> malachite <hl> , a semi-precious stone."}
{"question": "On what type of metal band are the title-winning clubs listed on the Golden Boot?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "silver", "sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. <hl> The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling <hl> silver <hl> and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling <hl> silver <hl> and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone."}
{"question": "What does the green colour of Malachite on the Golden Boot represent?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "the green field of play", "sentence": "Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play .", "paragraph_sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. <hl> Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play . <hl> The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of <hl> the green field of play <hl>. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "Malachite's green colour is also representative of <hl> the green field of play <hl> ."}
{"question": "How many lions are found on the Golden Boot?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "Two", "sentence": "Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. <hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two <hl> of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> Two <hl> of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season."}
{"question": "Who symbolizes the third lion not found on the Golden Boot trophy?", "paragraph": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "answer": "the captain of the title winning team", "sentence": "Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season.", "paragraph_sentence": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. <hl> Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. <hl> The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "paragraph_answer": "Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by <hl> the captain of the title winning team <hl> as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.", "sentence_answer": "Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy \u2013 the third is symbolised by <hl> the captain of the title winning team <hl> as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season."}
{"question": "When did the Roman Republic begin?", "paragraph": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "answer": "509 BC", "sentence": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC , and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC , and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. <hl> It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to <hl> 509 BC <hl>, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "sentence_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to <hl> 509 BC <hl> , and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire."}
{"question": "When did the Roman Republic end?", "paragraph": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "answer": "27 BC", "sentence": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. <hl> It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in <hl> 27 BC <hl> with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "sentence_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in <hl> 27 BC <hl> with the establishment of the Roman Empire."}
{"question": "What marked the beginning of the Roman Republic?", "paragraph": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "answer": "the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom", "sentence": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom , traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom , traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. <hl> It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with <hl> the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom <hl>, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "sentence_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with <hl> the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom <hl> , traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire."}
{"question": "When was Cleopatra defeated at the Battle of Actium?", "paragraph": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "answer": "31 BC", "sentence": "Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC .", "paragraph_sentence": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. <hl> Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC . <hl> However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "paragraph_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in <hl> 31 BC <hl>. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "sentence_answer": "Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in <hl> 31 BC <hl> ."}
{"question": "What do most consider to be the event that ended the Roman Republic?", "paragraph": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "answer": "Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian", "sentence": "However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "paragraph_sentence": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. <hl> However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [\u02c8re\u02d0s \u02c8pu\u02d0b.l\u026a.ka ro\u02d0\u02c8ma\u02d0.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the <hl> Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian <hl> and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.", "sentence_answer": "However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the <hl> Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian <hl> and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic."}
{"question": "Who elected consuls in the Roman government?", "paragraph": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "answer": "citizens", "sentence": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. <hl> As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "paragraph_answer": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the <hl> citizens <hl> and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "sentence_answer": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the <hl> citizens <hl> and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates."}
{"question": "Who eventually became full members of the aristocracy?", "paragraph": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "answer": "leading plebeian families", "sentence": "Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy.", "paragraph_sentence": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. <hl> Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. <hl> The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "paragraph_answer": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and <hl> leading plebeian families <hl> became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "sentence_answer": "Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and <hl> leading plebeian families <hl> became full members of the aristocracy."}
{"question": "What were Rome's legislative structures eventually turned into?", "paragraph": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "answer": "the Justinian Code", "sentence": "Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code , and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "paragraph_sentence": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. <hl> Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code , and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into <hl> the Justinian Code <hl>, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "sentence_answer": "Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into <hl> the Justinian Code <hl> , and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations."}
{"question": "What was the senate that advised consuls in the Roman government comprised of?", "paragraph": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "answer": "appointed magistrates", "sentence": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates .", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates . <hl> As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "paragraph_answer": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of <hl> appointed magistrates <hl>. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "sentence_answer": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of <hl> appointed magistrates <hl> ."}
{"question": "What went hand and hand with military success?", "paragraph": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "answer": "political success", "sentence": "The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked.", "paragraph_sentence": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. <hl> The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. <hl> Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "paragraph_answer": "Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and <hl> political success <hl> inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.", "sentence_answer": "The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and <hl> political success <hl> inextricably linked."}
{"question": "What factor is considered by some to be the main driving force behind the expansion of Rome?", "paragraph": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "answer": "inter-state factors", "sentence": "They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created.", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. <hl> They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. <hl> In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and <hl> inter-state factors <hl> (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "sentence_answer": "They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and <hl> inter-state factors <hl> (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created."}
{"question": "What type of policy is considered by some to be responsible for Rome's many military conflicts?", "paragraph": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "answer": "imperialism", "sentence": "While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism , historians typically take a much more nuanced view.", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. <hl> While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism , historians typically take a much more nuanced view. <hl> They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and <hl> imperialism <hl>, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "sentence_answer": "While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and <hl> imperialism <hl> , historians typically take a much more nuanced view."}
{"question": "What was a common conclusion to wars in the early days of republican Rome?", "paragraph": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "answer": "restoration of the way things were", "sentence": "With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were .", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. <hl> With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were . <hl> But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the <hl> restoration of the way things were <hl>. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "sentence_answer": "With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the <hl> restoration of the way things were <hl> ."}
{"question": "What type of alliance was created between the various Roman city-states?", "paragraph": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "answer": "mutual self-protection", "sentence": "As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection , but led by Rome.", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. <hl> As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection , but led by Rome. <hl> With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of <hl> mutual self-protection <hl>, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "sentence_answer": "As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of <hl> mutual self-protection <hl> , but led by Rome."}
{"question": "What did Roman settlers commonly seek out?", "paragraph": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "answer": "land", "sentence": "But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy.", "paragraph_sentence": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. <hl> But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. <hl> It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "paragraph_answer": "The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an \"empire\" or \"state\" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright <hl> land <hl> concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.", "sentence_answer": "But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright <hl> land <hl> concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy."}
{"question": "After what war did the alliances start to solidify?", "paragraph": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "answer": "Second Punic War", "sentence": "While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations.", "paragraph_sentence": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. <hl> While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. <hl> This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "paragraph_answer": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the <hl> Second Punic War <hl> that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "sentence_answer": "While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the <hl> Second Punic War <hl> that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations."}
{"question": "What helped Rome move closer to a confrontation with several other major powers in the area?", "paragraph": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "answer": "This growing coalition", "sentence": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. <hl> The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "paragraph_answer": "<hl> This growing coalition <hl> expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "sentence_answer": "<hl> This growing coalition <hl> expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers."}
{"question": "What towns had chosen Hannibal's side?", "paragraph": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "answer": "southern Italian", "sentence": "This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "paragraph_sentence": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. <hl> This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the <hl> southern Italian <hl> towns that sided with Hannibal.", "sentence_answer": "This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the <hl> southern Italian <hl> towns that sided with Hannibal."}
{"question": "What did city-states hope to gain from the Roman confederacy?", "paragraph": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "answer": "membership (and protection)", "sentence": "The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy.", "paragraph_sentence": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. <hl> The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. <hl> While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "paragraph_answer": "This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking <hl> membership (and protection) <hl> within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.", "sentence_answer": "The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking <hl> membership (and protection) <hl> within that confederacy."}
{"question": "What effect did the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt have on nearby areas?", "paragraph": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "answer": "destabilisation", "sentence": "According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt.", "paragraph_sentence": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. <hl> According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. <hl> In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "paragraph_answer": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of <hl> destabilisation <hl> created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "sentence_answer": "According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of <hl> destabilisation <hl> created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt."}
{"question": "Who attempted to find out how Rome dominated the Greek east?", "paragraph": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "answer": "Polybius", "sentence": "According to Polybius , who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt.", "paragraph_sentence": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. <hl> According to Polybius , who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. <hl> In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "paragraph_answer": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to <hl> Polybius <hl>, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "sentence_answer": "According to <hl> Polybius <hl> , who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt."}
{"question": "Why was Rome involved in matters in the Greek east?", "paragraph": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "answer": "alliance-seeking", "sentence": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. <hl> In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "paragraph_answer": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of <hl> alliance-seeking <hl> and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "sentence_answer": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of <hl> alliance-seeking <hl> and military occupation."}
{"question": "Which countries citie-states attempted to gain the protection of Rome?", "paragraph": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "answer": "Greek", "sentence": "In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome.", "paragraph_sentence": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. <hl> In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. <hl> According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "paragraph_answer": "In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the <hl> Greek <hl> east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.", "sentence_answer": "In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the <hl> Greek <hl> east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome."}
{"question": "What was seen as the behind the Roman influence in the east?", "paragraph": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "answer": "crisis management", "sentence": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. <hl> With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "paragraph_answer": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant <hl> crisis management <hl> narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "sentence_answer": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant <hl> crisis management <hl> narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies."}
{"question": "At what point was the entire Roman world joined together under Roman control?", "paragraph": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "answer": "the time of the Roman Empire", "sentence": "It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "paragraph_sentence": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. <hl> It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until <hl> the time of the Roman Empire <hl> that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "sentence_answer": "It was not until <hl> the time of the Roman Empire <hl> that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control."}
{"question": "What was not seen as an influence of Rome's influence in the west?", "paragraph": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "answer": "intentional empire-building", "sentence": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building , but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies.", "paragraph_sentence": "<hl> Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building , but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. <hl> With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "paragraph_answer": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of <hl> intentional empire-building <hl>, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "sentence_answer": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of <hl> intentional empire-building <hl> , but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies."}
{"question": "What type of city-states were involved with the Roman Republic?", "paragraph": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "answer": "independent", "sentence": "With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire.", "paragraph_sentence": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. <hl> With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. <hl> It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "paragraph_answer": "Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of <hl> independent <hl> city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.", "sentence_answer": "With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of <hl> independent <hl> city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire."}
{"question": "In what battle did Rome claim victory over several Latin cities in?", "paragraph": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "answer": "the Battle of Lake Regillus", "sentence": "Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. <hl> Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in <hl> the Battle of Lake Regillus <hl> in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "sentence_answer": "Rome defeated Latin cities in <hl> the Battle of Lake Regillus <hl> in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii."}
{"question": "What year did the Battle of Lake Regillus take place?", "paragraph": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "answer": "496 BC", "sentence": "Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC , the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. <hl> Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC , the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in <hl> 496 BC <hl>, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "sentence_answer": "Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in <hl> 496 BC <hl> , the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii."}
{"question": "In what year did Rome claim victory against the city of Veii?", "paragraph": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "answer": "477 BC", "sentence": "Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. <hl> Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in <hl> 477 BC <hl> wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "sentence_answer": "Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in <hl> 477 BC <hl> wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii."}
{"question": "What Roman battle took place in the year 446 BC?", "paragraph": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "answer": "the Battle of Corbione", "sentence": "Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "paragraph_sentence": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. <hl> Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii. <hl>", "paragraph_answer": "The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, <hl> the Battle of Corbione <hl> in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.", "sentence_answer": "Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, <hl> the Battle of Corbione <hl> in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii."}